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GS Paper: GS3-17.Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-technology, Bio-technology and issues relating to Intellectual Property Rights.

  • What psychiatric genetics can and cannot tell an Indian family

    Why in the news?

    Families of patients with psychiatric illness increasingly ask whether the condition is in their blood and whether a genetic test can settle their child’s future. There is a tension between the real progress of psychiatric genetics and its limited power to predict individual outcomes, especially for Indian populations underrepresented in genomic databases. The central point is that genes load the dice but do not determine destiny.

    What is a genome-wide association study (GWAS)?

    1. About: A GWAS compares millions of common genetic variants across very large groups of people with and without a condition, to find variants that appear more often in one group. . It compares DNA markers, most often single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs, between individuals with a condition and healthy control groups.
    2. What it yields: It behaves like a satellite map highlighting genomic areas of interest, showing where to look for biological mechanisms rather than pinpointing a cause.

    What does polygenic risk mean?

    1. About: In common psychiatric disorders no single gene variant has a large effect, unlike single-gene diseases such as Tay-Sachs disease or Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
    2. Mechanism: Risk is polygenic, emerging from the combined influence of thousands of variants together with rare genetic changes, development, environment, and chance.

    What is a polygenic risk score?

    1. About: A polygenic risk score (PRS) compresses many small genetic effects into a single number meant to estimate a person’s inherited susceptibility.
    2. Limits: It cannot say whether a person will become ill, at what age, how severe it will be, or which medicine will work, because it captures only part of genetic liability.

    How Polygenic Risk Works

    1. Many small changes: Instead of one major gene causing an illness (like in cystic fibrosis), polygenic conditions involve hundreds or thousands of tiny DNA changes called single nucleotide polymorphisms
    2. Adding it up: Each individual variant adds or subtracts a tiny amount of risk; a PRS totals these up to estimate your overall genetic predisposition.
    3. Common conditions: It applies to complex diseases like heart disease, type 2 diabetes, schizophrenia, and certain common cancers

    What have the major GWAS findings shown?

    1. Schizophrenia: A 2022 landmark study identified associations at 287 genomic regions and pointed to genes active in neurons and synapses.
    2. Bipolar disorder: A large 2021 study identified 64 associated regions.
    3. Regulatory signals: Many signals lie in DNA that regulates when and where genes switch on, not in stretches that directly encode a protein.
    4. Shared risk: A December 2025 study in Nature reported that some inherited risk is shared across schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.

    Why is prediction unreliable, especially in India?

    1. Score does not contain life: A person with a higher score may remain well while a person with a lower score may fall ill, because the score does not contain childhood adversity, sleep disruption, substance use, medical illness, or access to care.
    2. Expert caution: The International Society of Psychiatric Genetics has cautioned that current scores for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and depression are not accurate enough for routine clinical prediction.
    3. Ancestry bias: Genomic databases have drawn disproportionately from people of European ancestry, so scores are often less accurate in other populations.
    4. Indian diversity: The GenomeIndia project generated whole-genome data from 10,000 healthy, unrelated Indians across 83 population groups and documented extraordinary genetic diversity, so a score developed elsewhere cannot simply be imported.

    What can genetics usefully change in the clinic today?

    1. Reduces blame: A mother did not cause schizophrenia by being too strict and a father did not transmit bipolar disorder through a moral failing, and biology matters.
    2. Avoids fatalism: Genetic vulnerability should not be converted into a verdict, and no test can declare a person safe or doomed.
    3. Focus on modifiable risk: The useful approach is to track early warning signs, avoid intoxicants, sleep well, seek help promptly, and focus on recovery.
    4. Visible risks: Many risks are visible without sequencing, such as lost sleep before a manic episode, escalating cannabis use, treatment stopped due to stigma, and distance from specialist care.

    Conclusion

    The central idea is that psychiatric genetics will not identify people before they fall ill, but it can replace superstition and blame with a more accurate account of vulnerability. Prediction will remain probabilistic even as datasets grow larger and more representative. The task is to keep probabilities from being misunderstood, stigmatised, or commercialised, and to involve diverse populations while protecting privacy.

    Back2Basics:

    GenomeIndia Project

    1. Convening body: Funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
    2. Aim: To build a catalogue of the genetic diversity of the Indian population.
    3. Scale: Generated whole-genome data from 10,000 healthy, unrelated Indians across 83 population groups.
    4. Significance: Provides an India-specific reference against which imported genetic risk scores can be tested rather than assumed to apply.

    Genomics in India: About

    1. Definition: Genomics studies the complete set of an organism’s DNA, including how variants relate to disease.
    2. Diversity: India’s population carries extraordinary genetic diversity across many groups, making a single national reference essential.
    3. Clinical caution: Risk scores derived from European-ancestry datasets can mislead when applied to Indian populations.

    Challenges in Psychiatric Genetics

    1. Weak prediction: Scores cannot forecast onset, severity, or treatment response for an individual.
    2. Ancestry gaps: European-dominated databases reduce accuracy elsewhere.
    3. Commercial overreach: Enthusiasm of commerce can outrun the science.
    4. Privacy risk: Genomic data raises serious privacy and consent concerns.
    5. Stigma: Misread probabilities can label people as patients-in-waiting.

    Way Forward

    1. Diversify datasets: Include diverse populations in genomic research.
    2. Community involvement: Involve clinicians and communities in deciding how data are used.
    3. Protect privacy: Enforce strong safeguards on genomic data.
    4. Integrate data: Combine genetic findings with developmental, clinical, and environmental information.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2026] Which of the following statements with regard to Genome India Project is/are correct?

    1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.

    2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.

    3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • India’s first privately-built FFSC rocket engine signals a new dawn in space flight

    Why in the News

    Bengaluru-based Astrobase Space Technologies unveiled EVEREST, India’s first privately built 800 kN Full-Flow Staged Combustion (FFSC) LOX-Methane engine on 7 August 2026. India is now the fourth country after Russia, the US and China with FFSC technology.

    What is an FFSC Engine?

    1. About: An advanced liquid rocket engine architecture offering high thrust and efficiency.
    2. Full-flow: Fuel and oxidiser pass through separate pre-burners, driving turbopumps before entering the main chamber.
    3. Advantage: Almost all propellant contributes to thrust, improving efficiency and reusability.

    What is LOX-Methane?

    • LOX: Liquid Oxygen as oxidiser.
    • Methane: Fuel that burns relatively cleanly, reducing engine deposits and aiding faster refurbishment and turnaround.

    What is IN-SPACe?

    • Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre, an autonomous agency under the Department of Space.
    • Acts as a single-window agency to promote and authorise private space activities.
    • Astrobase received support through its Technology Adoption Fund.

    Why is EVEREST Significant?

    1. Technology: Makes India the 4th FFSC-capable nation.
    2. Reusability: Suitable for reusable launch vehicles with precise throttle control.
    3. Capacity: Could enable reusable systems carrying up to 30 tonnes to LEO.
    4. Manufacturing: Uses advanced manufacturing, including large-scale 3D printing.
    5. Timeline: Development began in 2024; integrated hot-fire tests are planned at Anantapur, with first flight targeted for December 2028.

    Global Comparison

    • Russia: Pioneer in FFSC technology.
    • USA: SpaceX’s Raptor is the only operational FFSC engine.
    • China: LandSpace has developed a commercial high-thrust FFSC engine.
    • India: EVEREST marks its entry into FFSC technology.

    Private Space Sector in India

    • 2020 reforms: Opened space activities to private players through IN-SPACe.
    • Indian Space Policy 2023: Enables greater private participation across the space value chain.
    • NSIL: Commercial arm of the Department of Space.
    • Firms such as Skyroot Aerospace and Agnikul Cosmos are developing indigenous launch technologies.

    “[2026] Consider the following statements about involvement of private entities in India’s space programme:

    1. IN-SPACe is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.

    2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.

    3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • Evidence of non-Mendelian inheritance in mice

    Why in the News

    Researchers have reported evidence of non-Mendelian inheritance in mice, involving DNA methylation, genomic imprinting and paramutation. Nanopore sequencing helped detect these epigenetic marks.

    What is Epigenetic Inheritance?

    1. Definition: Transmission of heritable changes in gene activity without altering the underlying DNA sequence.
    2. Major mechanism: Chemical modifications such as DNA methylation can influence whether genes are switched on or off.
    3. Non-Mendelian: Unlike classical Mendelian inheritance, the inherited information is not limited to changes in the DNA sequence.
    4. Genomic imprinting: Expression of certain genes depends on whether they are inherited from the mother or father.
    5. Paramutation: One allele can induce a heritable change in the expression of another allele without changing its DNA sequence.
    6. Nanopore sequencing: Can detect certain DNA modifications, including methylation, while sequencing DNA.

    Why does it matter?

    • Expands inheritance theory: Heritable information can involve regulatory/epigenetic states in addition to DNA sequence.
    • Environment and inheritance: Some environmental factors can influence epigenetic states, though not every acquired epigenetic change is necessarily inherited.
    • Disease relevance: Abnormal epigenetic regulation is associated with cancers and other diseases.
    • Biotechnology: Advanced sequencing can help identify epigenetic modifications alongside DNA sequences.

    “[2021, GS3, 15 marks] What are the research and developmental achievements in applied biotechnology? How will these achievements help to uplift the poorer sections of society?

    [2021] In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:
    1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
    2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • AI tool can shrink and rewrite proteins

    Why in the News

    A university team has developed Raygun, an AI tool that can redesign and miniaturise proteins while retaining their function. This could improve the delivery of protein-based therapies and accelerate drug development.

    What is AI-based Protein Engineering?

    1. Protein engineering: Designing or modifying proteins to obtain desired properties such as smaller size, stability or specific biological functions.
    2. AI-based design: AI models trained on protein sequences can predict and generate redesigned protein structures.
    3. Raygun: The tool can shrink proteins while attempting to preserve their function, potentially making them easier to deliver.

    Why does it matter?

    • Gene therapy: Delivery vectors have limited cargo capacity. Smaller functional proteins can make therapeutic delivery easier.
    • Drug development: AI can reduce dependence on lengthy trial-and-error approaches in protein design.
    • Precision medicine: Engineered proteins could potentially be tailored for specific therapeutic functions.
    • Biosafety: Powerful AI-enabled biological design raises concerns regarding misuse, unintended effects and governance.

    Protein engineering ≠ gene editing

    • Protein engineering: Modifies/designs the protein to alter its properties.
    • Gene editing: Directly modifies DNA sequences.
    • AI protein design: Uses computational models to predict or generate useful protein sequences/structures.
    • Gene therapy: Uses genetic material or biological mechanisms to treat disease.

    [2026] Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ?
    1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
    2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
    3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.
    Select the answer using the code given below :

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 and 3 only

    [C] 1 and 2 only

    [D] 1, 2 and 3

  • AI agents flagged as a new cybersecurity risk

    Why in the News

    Leading AI developers and a national safety institute reported that AI agents took unauthorised actions during controlled cyber tests, highlighting a new category of AI safety and cybersecurity risk.

    What is an AI Agent?

    • AI Agent: An AI system that can perceive, plan, decide and act toward a goal with limited human supervision.
    • Unlike a conventional AI model that mainly generates an output, an agent can use tools, access systems and execute actions.
    • Core feature: Autonomy + goal-directed action

    What did the Tests Reveal?

    • Agents sometimes acted beyond their given instructions.
    • Such behaviour indicates that increasing autonomy can create risks beyond conventional software bugs or model errors.
    • Findings involved OpenAI, Anthropic, Meta and the UK AI Security Institute.

    Alignment Failure vs Capability Failure

    Alignment Failure

    • AI’s behaviour or strategy conflicts with human intent.
    • The system may technically pursue its objective but do so in an unauthorised or undesirable manner.

    Capability Failure

    • AI fails because of inadequate capability, reasoning or execution.
    • The problem is inability rather than deliberate deviation from the intended objective.

    “[2020] With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?
    1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
    2. Create meaningful short stories and songs
    3. Disease diagnosis
    4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
    5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2, 4 and 5 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

  • RDI deep-tech fund: most beneficiaries linked to selection panel

    Why in the News

    An investigation found that 15 of the 22 companies receiving the first round of assistance from the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund had investment links with members of the fund’s selection committee. The panel approved Rs 2,192 crore in soft loans, raising concerns over conflict of interest and transparency.

    What is the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund?

    • Definition: A Rs 1 lakh crore fund to support private sector research in strategic and deep tech sectors.
    • Focus Areas: Artificial Intelligence, Quantum Technology, Space, Defence, Robotics, Clean Energy, Semiconductors and Digital Healthcare.
    • Financial Support: Collateral free loans up to 50% of project cost, at 2 to 4% interest for up to 15 years.
    • Custodian: Managed through a Special Purpose Fund under the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF).
    • Fund Managers: Loans are disbursed through Second Level Fund Managers (SLFMs), currently the Technology Development Board (TDB) and Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).

    How are companies selected?

    • Investment Committees: Each SLFM forms an independent investment committee to evaluate proposals.
    • Composition: The TDB committee had 12 members, largely from private equity and technology, with one non voting government representative.
    • Eligibility: Projects must have achieved at least Technology Readiness Level (TRL) 4, meaning laboratory validation is complete.
    • Selection Criteria: Scientific, technological, financial and commercial viability, with decisions taken by majority vote.

    What did the investigation reveal?

    • Conflict Links: 15 of 22 beneficiaries had investment ties with 7 committee members.
    • Funding Concentration: These firms received over Rs 1,377 crore of the total approved amount.
    • Chairman’s Role: Nine selected firms were linked to the committee chairman, who reportedly also held a personal stake in one beneficiary.
    • Committee’s Defence: Members stated that interests were disclosed and they recused themselves from related decisions.
    • Governance Concern: The episode has renewed demands for stronger safeguards in the use of public funds.

    Existing safeguards

    • Mandatory disclosure of financial interests by committee members.
    • Recusal from decisions involving associated companies.
    • Background verification of applicants by fund managers.
    • Expert driven selection to improve technical assessment.
    • However, only two SLFMs currently operate the scheme, concentrating decision making and highlighting the need for greater transparency.

    Back2Basics: Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund

    • Launched: 2025
    • Corpus: Rs 1 lakh crore
    • Nodal Framework: Operates under the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF)
    • Objective: Provide long term, low cost financing for private sector research in deep tech and strategic sectors.
    • Implementing Agencies: Technology Development Board (TDB) and Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) as Second Level Fund Managers.
    • Key Feature: Collateral free loans covering up to 50% of project cost through independent investment committees.
  • How ‘ghost particles’ can point the way to spent nuclear fuel

    Why in the News

    Scientists have achieved the first high precision measurement of the neutrino signature from spent nuclear fuel, enabling remote monitoring of nuclear material and strengthening global nuclear non proliferation efforts.

    What is a neutrino?

    • Ghost particle: A neutrino is a nearly massless, electrically neutral subatomic particle that interacts only through the weak nuclear force and gravity.
    • Produced in nuclear reactions: They are emitted in large numbers during nuclear fission, radioactive decay, and reactions inside stars.
    • Highly penetrating: Since neutrinos rarely interact with matter, they can pass through the Earth almost unaffected, making them extremely difficult to detect.

    What did the study achieve?

    • First precise measurement: Researchers in France made the first high precision measurement of the neutrino emissions from spent nuclear fuel.
    • Remote monitoring: The neutrino signal can be measured without physically opening or handling the spent fuel.
    • Scientific validation: The findings were published in a leading peer reviewed physics journal.

    Why is this important for nuclear non proliferation?

    • Supports IAEA safeguards: Enables the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) to verify spent nuclear fuel remotely.
    • Detects diversion: Changes in the neutrino signal can indicate diversion of plutonium or other fissile material for weapons.
    • Strengthens nuclear safeguards: Provides a non intrusive and tamper resistant method to improve verification of nuclear material.
    • Enhances transparency: Builds confidence in peaceful civilian nuclear programmes.

    Prelims Pointers

    • The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is the UN agency responsible for promoting peaceful uses of nuclear energy and implementing nuclear safeguards.
    • Neutrinos are electrically neutral, nearly massless particles that interact via the weak nuclear force.
    • Nuclear reactors and spent nuclear fuel continuously emit neutrinos.
    • Spent nuclear fuel contains plutonium that can potentially be separated for nuclear weapons, making its monitoring important.

    “[2020] In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept ‘IAEA Safeguards’ while others are not?
    (a) Some use uranium and others use thorium
    (b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies
    (c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic
    (d) Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned

  • Government summons Meta as Parliament flags limits of intermediary immunity

    Why in the News

    A parliamentary panel warned a large social media company that its legal immunity could be withdrawn after a content takedown and content safety failures. The tension is between platform safe harbour and the state’s demand for accountability.

    What is intermediary immunity under Section 79 of the IT Act, 2000?

    1. Definition of intermediary: An intermediary is any person or entity that receives, stores, or transmits an electronic record on behalf of another person, or provides any service with respect to that record. It includes, Internet and telecom providers, Web-hosting and cloud service providers, Search engines, Online marketplaces and e-commerce websites, Social media and messaging platforms, Online payment and auction sites and Cyber cafes.
    2. Safe harbour: Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 shields an intermediary from liability for third party content it hosts.
    3. Conditions: This protection applies only if their function is limited to providing access to communication, and they do not initiate, select, or modify the content, and they comply with due diligence requirements (such as removing unlawful content upon receiving actual knowledge or a court order).
    4. Intermediary test: The immunity depends on the platform qualifying as an intermediary rather than a content publisher.

    What triggered the summons?

    1. Video takedown: The platform briefly removed a video of the Prime Minister and later apologised.
    2. Harmful content: The government flagged child sexual abuse material and deepfake content on its platforms.
    3. Panel ultimatum: The Standing Committee on Information Technology sought testimony from the platform’s global head.

    Why is the immunity in question?

    1. Compliance failures: Officials argue the platform did not act on directives and grievances.
    2. Definition dispute: Officials contended it may not fall within the intermediary definition.
    3. Withdrawal threat: Loss of Section 79 cover would expose it to liability for user content.

    Conclusion

    The episode tests how far platform immunity survives repeated compliance failures. The next milestone is the platform’s response to the committee’s summons.

    Back2Basics

    Standing Committee on Communications and Information Technology

    It is a department-related parliamentary committee in India tasked with overseeing specific ministries, examining legislation, reviewing budget demands, and ensuring executive accountability. It was renamed from the Standing Committee on Information Technology in November 2021.

    Structure and Composition

    1. Total Members: 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha nominated by the Speaker and 10 from Rajya Sabha nominated by the Chairperson).
    2. Leadership: The Chairperson is appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker.
    3. Tenure: The term of office for members does not exceed one year.
    4. Ministers: Sitting ministers are barred from holding membership on this committee

    Ministries under its Jurisdiction

    1. Ministry of Communications (including the Department of Telecommunications and Department of Posts)
    2. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
    3. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB)

    Core Functions

    1. Scrutinizing the annual Demands for Grants of the designated ministries.
    2. Examining Bills referred to it by the Lok Sabha Speaker or Rajya Sabha Chairperson.
    3. Considering national policy documents, performance reports, and long-term trends related to digital infrastructure, telecommunications, media regulations, and cyber security.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2024] Social media and encrypting messaging services pose a serious security challenge. What measures have been adopted at various levels to address the security implications of social media? Also suggest any other remedies to address the problem.

    Linkage: The PYQ examines the regulatory and legal measures to address the security and accountability challenges posed by social media platforms. The article highlights the limits of intermediary immunity under Section 79 and the need for greater platform accountability for harmful content.

  • SpaceX Falcon 9 upper stage set to strike the Moon, exposing gaps in space law

    Why in the News

    A spent SpaceX Falcon 9 upper stage is expected to impact the Einstein Crater on the Moon on 5 August 2026. The event provides a rare scientific opportunity while highlighting gaps in international laws governing lunar activities and space debris.

    What is the Outer Space Treaty?

    • The Outer Space Treaty (1967) is the foundation of international space law.
    • Governs activities in outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies.
    • Prohibits national sovereignty claims over outer space (Article II).
    • Requires exploration for the benefit of all countries and peaceful purposes.

    What is a Controlled Source Impact?

    • An impact where the mass, speed, and trajectory of the object are known beforehand.
    • Helps scientists accurately study:
      • Crater formation.
      • Lunar dust (ejecta) behaviour.
      • Surface composition.

    What is ATLAC?

    • Action Team on Lunar Activity Consultation (ATLAC) is a United Nations (UN) working group.
    • Works on developing norms for: Lunar landing coordination, Lunar dust mitigation, and Space debris management.

    Why is the Impact Significant?

    • Rare opportunity to study the Moon through a known artificial impact.
    • Improves understanding of lunar dust, crucial for future lunar missions and habitats.
    • Similar to NASA’s Lunar Crater Observation and Sensing Satellite (LCROSS) Mission (2009), which confirmed the presence of water ice.

    Challenges

    • No treaty specifically regulates lunar debris or spent rocket stages.
    • No legal protection for lunar heritage sites (e.g., Shiv Shakti Point).
    • Increasing commercial and national missions raise collision risks.
    • Slow consensus-based UN rule-making.

    Chandrayaan-3

    • Launched by: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in 2023.
    • Achievement: First soft landing near the Moon’s south pole; India became the 4th country to achieve a soft landing on the Moon.
    • Shiv Shakti Point: Name of the Vikram lander’s landing site.
    • Components: Vikram Lander and Pragyan Rover.

    [2009] India has recently landed its Moon Impact Probe (MIP) on the Moon. Among the following countries, which one landed such probe on the Moon earlier?

    (a) Australia

    (b) Canada

    (c) China

    (d) Japan.

  • The fast-growing Ebola outbreak in the Democratic Republic of Congo

    Why in the News?

    The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is facing its largest Ebola outbreak, with 3,605 cases and 1,587 deaths, caused by the Bundibugyo strain, for which no approved vaccine exists.

    What is a PHEIC?

    • A Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) is the World Health Organization’s (WHO) highest level of global health alert.
    • Declared when an outbreak poses a cross-border public health risk and requires international coordination.

    Why is the Outbreak Difficult to Control?

    • Caused by the Bundibugyo ebolavirus (BDBV) strain, with no approved vaccine or treatment.
    • Ongoing conflict hampers movement of health workers and supplies.
    • Weak healthcare infrastructure and community distrust delay detection and isolation.

    Response Measures

    • Oxford ChAdOx1 BDBV vaccine is undergoing clinical trials.
    • India has supplied emergency medicines to support relief efforts.
    • Surveillance, contact tracing and isolation remain the primary control measures.

    Prelims Facts

    • Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) is a severe viral haemorrhagic fever caused by Ebolaviruses.
    • It spreads through direct contact with infected body fluids of humans or animals.
    • The Bundibugyo virus (BDBV) is one of the six known Ebola virus species.
    • The World Health Organization (WHO) declared the outbreak a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC).

    [2025] With reference to monoclonal antibodies, consider the following:

    I. They are man-made proteins.

    II. They stimulate the patient’s immune system to fight the specific disease.

    III. They are produced using animal cells only.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    (a) I and II only

    (b) II and III only

    (c) I and III only

    (d) All the three