💥Join UPSC 2027,2028 Mentorship (July Batch) + XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF
Talk to Mentor

Civilsdaily

Login

GS Paper: GS2-15.Transaparency and accountability (institutional and other measures); Citizens Charter, E-Governance (applications, models, successes, limitations, potential)

  • Nilekani to lead task force on exams: Modi

    Why in News?

    Prime Minister Modi constituted a six member high powered task force headed by Nandan Nilekani to recommend steps to secure India’s examination system, as the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 is set to be introduced in Parliament.

    Key Highlights

    • The task force is headed by Nandan Nilekani and includes S. Somanath, Tapan Deka, V. Kamakoti, Anita Karwal, and Amrit Lal Meena.
    • It has been tasked with recommending measures to make the public examination system leak proof, transparent, secure, and technology driven.
    • The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 is scheduled to be introduced during the Monsoon Session of Parliament.
    • The proposed reforms seek to strengthen exam security, digital monitoring, accountability, and integrity in recruitment and entrance examinations.
    • Pralhad Joshi has assumed additional charge as Union Education Minister following the resignation of Dharmendra Pradhan.

    Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024

    • Enacted to prevent unfair practices such as paper leaks, impersonation, and organised cheating in public examinations.
    • Covers examinations conducted by bodies such as: UPSC, SSC, RRBs, NTA, IBPS, and Other notified central recruitment agencies
    • Prescribes:
      • Imprisonment of 3 to 5 years and a fine up to ₹10 lakh for individuals involved in unfair means.
      • Imprisonment of 5 to 10 years and a fine of at least ₹1 crore for organised paper leak syndicates.
    • Offences are cognizable, non-bailable, and non-compoundable.

    [2024, GS2, 15 marks] What are the aims and objects of the recently passed and enforced, The Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024? Whether University/State Education Board examinations, too, are covered under the Act?”

    [2018] Consider the following statements:

    1. As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.
    2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines
    3. In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 and 2

    [B] 2 only

    [C] 1 and 3

    [D] 3 only

    1. Delhi High Court declines interim injunction against OpenAI in ANI copyright suit

      Why in News?

      The Delhi High Court refused to grant interim relief to ANI in its copyright infringement case against OpenAI, holding that AI training on copyrighted content is covered by the fair dealing exception under the Copyright Act.

      Key Highlights

      • Justice Amit Bansal held that using ANI’s content to train Large Language Models (LLMs) falls under Section 52(1)(a) of the Copyright Act, 1957.
      • The Court found that ANI failed to prove any loss to its news syndication business.
      • ANI had earlier offered OpenAI a content licence for $7.5 million, indicating any potential damages are quantifiable.
      • The Court rejected ANI’s request to delete training data, noting OpenAI’s legal obligations under US law.
      • It observed that requiring licences from every copyright holder would make AI development economically unviable and highlighted AI’s public benefits in sectors such as education, healthcare, agriculture, and finance.
      • The Federation of Indian Publishers, Digital News Publishers Association, and Indian Music Industry joined the suit.

      Fair Dealing (Section 52, Copyright Act, 1957)

      • A statutory exception permitting limited use of copyrighted works without the owner’s permission.
      • Applies to purposes such as:
        • Private or personal use (including research)
        • Criticism or review
        • Reporting current events

      Copyright vs Patent

      • Copyright: Protects original literary, artistic, musical, dramatic works, films, and software.
      • Patent: Protects new inventions, granting exclusive rights generally for 20 years.

      Copyright Act, 1957

      • Governs protection of literary, artistic, musical, dramatic works, films, sound recordings, and software.
      • Grants creators exclusive rights over reproduction, adaptation, distribution, and communication of their works.
      • Section 52 provides exceptions under the doctrine of fair dealing.

      PYQ (2014, GS3, 12.5 Marks) In a globalised world, intellectual property rights assume significance and are a source of litigation. Broadly distinguish between the terms copyrights, patents and trade secrets.

      [2026] Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?
      1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
      2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
      3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.
      Select the answer using the code given below :

      [A] 1 only

      [B] 1 and 2 only

      [C] 2 and 3 only

      [D] 1, 2 and 3

    2. Telecom infra data can’t be shared outside India, says Govt

      Why in News?

      The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has mandated that telecom infrastructure providers store and process telecom network data only within India.

      Key Highlights

      • DoT barred telecom infrastructure providers from sharing telecom network data outside India.
      • Covers cloud-based telecom networks, mobile tower operators, and satellite gateway providers.
      • Mandates that all telecom network systems, data, logs, and related information be stored within India.
      • No copies of such data can be routed, shared, or made available outside the country.
      • Issued under the authorisation framework of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, replacing the earlier licensing regime.

      Data Localisation

      • Refers to storing and processing data within the country’s borders.
      • Benefits:
        • Strengthens national security and cyber resilience.
        • Improves regulatory oversight and law enforcement access.
        • Enhances protection of critical digital infrastructure.
      • Challenges:
        • Higher compliance costs for companies.
        • Concerns over cross-border data flows and global cloud operations.

      Telecommunications Act, 2023

      • Replaced the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
      • Introduces an authorisation-based regime instead of licensing.
      • Aims to strengthen telecom security, spectrum management, user protection, and digital infrastructure governance.

      PYQ (2018, GS3, 15 Marks) Data security has assumed significant importance in the digitized world due to rising cyber crimes. The Justice B. N. Srikrishna Committee Report addresses issues related to data security. What, in your view, are the strengths and weaknesses of the Report relating to protection of personal data in cyberspace?

    3. Zomato’s platform fee, delivery levy no abuse of dominance: CCI

      Why in News?

      The Competition Commission of India (CCI) ruled that Zomato’s platform fee, delivery charges, and commissions do not amount to abuse of dominant position or anti-competitive conduct.

      Key Highlights

      • CCI dismissed a consumer complaint against Zomato/Eternal over platform fees and price differences.
      • The higher online price was attributed to delivery charges, platform fee, and GST.
      • Restaurants stated that Zomato charges around 33% commission, leading some to increase online menu prices.
      • CCI held that online food delivery and in-person dining are distinct markets, making price differences commercially justifiable.
      • Mere price variation does not constitute an abuse of dominant position under competition law.

      Abuse of Dominant Position (Competition Act, 2002)

      • Dominance itself is not prohibited; only its abuse is.
      • Examples include:
        • Imposing unfair or discriminatory prices.
        • Limiting production or technical development.
        • Denying market access.
        • Leveraging dominance in one market to enter another.

      Competition Commission of India (CCI)

      • Statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002.
      • Came into effect in 2009.
      • Objective: Prevent anti-competitive practices, prohibit abuse of dominant position, regulate combinations (mergers and acquisitions), and promote fair competition.

      PYQ (2023, GS2, 10 Marks) Discuss the role of the Competition Commission of India in containing the abuse of dominant position by the Multi-National Corporations in India. Refer to the recent decisions.

      [2022] With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
      1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
      2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below:

      [A] 1 only

      [B] 2 only

      [C] Both 1 and 2

      [D] Neither 1 nor 2

      [D] 1, 2, 3 and 4

    4. Is corruption the biggest threat to India’s future?

      Why in the News?

      Thousands of students have been protesting since the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) paper leak earlier this year, reviving memories of the India Against Corruption (IAC) movement. The question arises whether the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 has delivered on its promise of accountability or whether institutions meant to enforce it have been weakened.

      Has digitalisation reduced petty corruption?

      1. No reduction on the ground: Digitalisation has been pushed as a “magic wand” but has not prevented corruption; bribery remains an “open secret” in government offices.
      2. A new barrier for the marginalised: Digitalisation has added a layer excluding the poor, the marginalised, and the unlettered, who cannot fill forms online and must pay private cafes “obnoxious amounts” for government services.
      3. No grievance redressal law: Parliament discussed a grievance redressal law in detail in 2014, but it has still not been enacted.

      How has the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 weakened the RTI Act?

      1. Original balance in the RTI Act: The Act’s original 87-word definition of personal information allowed such information to be denied to citizens, but not to Parliament or state legislatures.
      2. Judicial reinterpretation: The Girish Ramchandra Deshpande Supreme Court judgment was misread to mean all personal information could be exempted from disclosure.
      3. Privacy without balance: The K.S. Puttaswamy judgment recognised a fundamental right to privacy without a balancing test against the right to information.
      4. Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988: The Prevention of Corruption Act’s Section 19, which required sanction for prosecution, was joined in 2018 by Section 17A, which requires government permission even to investigate corruption charges against a public servant. (Section 17A bars police from conducting any inquiry or investigation into corruption allegations against a public servant without prior government approval. This applies specifically to decisions or recommendations made in their official capacity)

      Why does corruption remain low-risk despite these laws?

      1. Historical conviction data: A 2008 study of the CBI’s anti-corruption branch performance from 1980 to 1984 found 280 people accused in courts, of whom 144 were convicted, with investigations averaging 13.4 months but the first trial averaging 88 months.
      2. Near-zero incarceration: The same 2008 study found only four people had been in prison for more than 20 days.
      3. Heavy Right To Information (RTI) use, weak enforcement: About six million RTI requests are filed annually in India, the highest of any country, and the Act has played a role in exposing the Vyapam scam, the Adarsh Housing Society scam and the electoral bond scheme.
      4. Captured agencies: Certain analysts distate that the CBI, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) and the Lokpal have been “compromised” and are not tackling big-ticket corruption cases.
      5. Lokpal’s cost without output: Public evaluations point out that while the anti-corruption body has historically consumed ₹50-60 crore annually (with a revised budget allocation of ₹30 crore for the fiscal year 2026-27), it has struggled to deliver major, high-profile convictions.

      Is institutional weakness a cause or consequence of corruption?

      1. Vacant appointments: The government delayed filling key posts, leaving the transparency watchdog short-staffed or non-functional for long periods.
      2. Non-transparent appointments even after court orders: Courts repeatedly directed the administration to make timely appointments to prevent the Right to Information (RTI) framework from becoming ineffective. Post-intervention selections often proceeded without fully disclosing applicant vetting details or selection criteria to the public.
      3. India’s rule of law ranking: India’s 79th rank in the World Justice Project Rule of Law Index highlights foundational weaknesses in fundamental rights, civil justice, and institutional checks on executive power. ( According to the World Justice Project (WJP) Rule of Law Index 2025 report,India has slipped to 86th position out of 143 countries globally. India has slipped six places compared to last year (79th rank).)

      Conclusion

      Corruption remains India’s biggest governance risk not for lack of transparency law. But this is because the institutions meant to enforce it, Information Commissions, the Lokpal, the CBI and the ED, have been weakened through non-transparent appointments, the DPDP Act’s rollback of RTI disclosures, and Section 17A’s added layer of protection for public servants. The remedy lies in enforcement: judicial delays cut to under a year, transparent Information Commissioner appointments, and withdrawal of the DPDP Act’s amendments to the RTI Act, 2005.

      PYQ Relevance

      [UPSC 2020] Recent amendments to the Right to Information Act will have profound impact on the autonomy and independence of the Information Commission”. Discuss.

      Linkage: Examines the impact of legal and institutional changes on the effectiveness of the RTI framework and transparency in governance. The article directly analyses how the DPDP Act, 2023 has diluted the RTI Act, weakened Information Commissions, and reduced transparency, thereby increasing the accountability deficit in combating corruption.

    5. Public Institutions Must Be Spaces of Constructive Dialogue

      Why in the News:

      Nationwide student protests following the NEET paper leak, including the Jantar Mantar sit in and its police crackdown, prompted a call for youth to route dissent through constitutional institutions rather than disruptive street protest. The intervention sets up a direct tension between the legitimacy of institutional channels and the legitimacy of extra institutional mass mobilisation as tools of democratic change.

      Why does the argument treat institutional participation as constitutive of democratic freedom, not a constraint on it?

      1. Rousseau’s social contract: The argument draws on Jean Jacques Rousseau’s claim that true political liberty lies in binding agreement to institutional structures, not unbridled individual impulse.
        • Term: Social Contract: The theory that political authority and civic freedom arise from individuals binding themselves to shared rules and institutions.
      2. Institutions as microcosm: Public institutions and administration are described as a microcosm of the social contract, requiring participants to listen, follow process, and respect the forum.
      3. Role of educators: Teachers who allow students to treat institutions as permanently broken or as adversaries are described as misinforming students and alienating them from the tools of civic governance.

      Where does legitimate questioning end and delegitimising disruption begin?

      1. The stated dividing line: A distinction is drawn between questioning a system and attempting to publicly dismantle its legitimacy.
      2. Effect of confrontation: Continuous pushing of students toward confrontation is said to shrink public faith in institutions and shift focus to physical clashes rather than administrative reform.
      3. Gandhian benchmark invoked: Mahatma Gandhi’s Satyagraha is cited as a model where means were held to the same standard as ends. The disruption witnessed in Delhi is described as violating that standard on the part of all stakeholders, including the state.

      What institutional channels does the state already provide as alternatives to street protest?

      1. Existing tools cited: Online RTI portals, local grievance cells, and elected academic councils are identified as existing mechanisms for handling student grievances.
      2. Adequacy left unaddressed: The argument does not examine whether these mechanisms can address grievances at the scale or speed required during a crisis involving lakhs of examination candidates, leaving their effectiveness an open question.

      Conclusion:

      The article argues that democratic legitimacy is strengthened through sustained engagement with constitutional institutions rather than street confrontation, viewing disruption as a challenge to civic trust rather than a preferred democratic instrument. While it highlights existing grievance redressal mechanisms, it does not establish whether they are capable of handling large scale systemic failures such as the NEET paper leak. The central unresolved issue is how citizens should seek accountability when the institutions themselves are perceived to have failed.

    6. CCPA Penalises SpiceJet for Use of Dark Patterns

      Why in News?

      The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) imposed a ₹1 lakh penalty on SpiceJet for using dark patterns on its flight booking platform, violating consumer protection laws.

      Key Highlights

      • Violation: Use of dark patterns that manipulated consumer choices.
      • Dark Patterns Identified:
        • Forced Action: Automatic enrolment into SpiceClub via pre-ticked checkbox.
        • Interface Interference: Default selection of the company’s preferred options.
        • Trick Question: Confusing and negatively worded consent language.
      • Legal Violations:
        • Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
        • Rule 4(9) of the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020.
        • Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023.
      • CCPA’s Observation: Consumer consent must be explicit, informed, and voluntary; consent obtained through pre-ticked checkboxes or deceptive interfaces is invalid.

      Prelims Facts

      • Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):
        • Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
        • Functions under the Department of Consumer Affairs.
        • Protects consumer rights and regulates unfair trade practices, misleading advertisements, and unfair contracts.
      • Dark Patterns: User interface designs that deceive or manipulate consumers into making unintended choices.

    7. National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER)

      Why in News?

      The Vice President of India recently addressed the 15th Graduation Ceremony of the National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER), Bhubaneswar.

      About NISER

      • Established in 2006.
      • An Autonomous Institute under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India.
      • Located about 20 km south of Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
      • Equipped with advanced laboratories, computational facilities, library, and residential hostels.
      • Affiliated with the Homi Bhabha National Institute (HBNI), Mumbai, a deemed-to-be university under the DAE.

      Objectives

      • Develop high quality human resources in basic sciences.
      • Promote excellence in scientific research and innovation.
      • Contribute to India’s knowledge economy through education and research.

      Major Activities

      • Science Education: Centre of excellence for undergraduate and postgraduate education in basic sciences.
        • Offers: Five year Integrated M.Sc. Ph.D. programmes in pure and applied sciences.
      • Scientific Research: Conducts theoretical and experimental research in frontier areas of science. Has seven Schools specializing in different scientific disciplines.
      • Science Outreach and Policy: Promotes scientific temper through outreach programmes for students and the public. Faculty members contribute to national science policy formulation through various government committees.

      About Homi Bhabha National Institute (HBNI)

      • Established in 2005.
      • A Deemed to be University under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
      • Headquartered in Mumbai.
      • Integrates academic programmes of premier DAE institutions to promote advanced education and research in science, engineering, and technology.

      [2015] Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which of the following?

      [A] Bhabha Atomic Research Centre

      [B] Indian Institute of Science

      [C] Indian Space Research Organization

      [D] Tata Institute of Fundamental Research

    8. Government Tightens Regulation of High Alcohol Containing Drug Formulations

      Why in News?

      The Central Government has amended the Drugs Rules, 1945 to tighten regulation of high alcohol containing medicinal formulations, removing their exemption under Schedule K and bringing them under Schedule H1.

      Key Highlights

      • Schedule K exemption removed for medicinal formulations containing:
        • More than 12% v/v ethyl alcohol, and
        • Pack size exceeding 30 mL.
      • Such products must now obtain manufacturing and sale licenses under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
      • Shifted to Schedule H1, making them:
        • Available only on the prescription of a Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP).
        • Subject to strict sale records and monitoring.
      • Targets misuse of formulations such as cardamom tincture, ginger tincture, and other aromatic preparations, some containing 80 to 90% v/v ethyl alcohol.
      • Ensures availability for genuine therapeutic use while preventing diversion for intoxication.

      Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940

      • Regulates the import, manufacture, distribution and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India.
      • Administered by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
      • Implemented through the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) and State Drug Controllers.
      • Supported by the Drugs Rules, 1945, which prescribe standards, licensing, labeling and schedules.

      Schedule K

      • Lists specified drugs exempted from certain licensing provisions under defined conditions.
      • Intended mainly for low risk preparations or specified categories of sale.
      • The amendment removes exemption for high alcohol formulations exceeding the prescribed threshold.

      Schedule H1

      • Introduced to regulate drugs prone to misuse and antimicrobial resistance.
      • Drugs can be sold only on a registered medical practitioner’s prescription.
      • Pharmacists must:
        • Maintain a separate register recording patient and prescriber details.
        • Preserve records for at least three years.
      • Originally covered certain antibiotics, anti TB medicines and other critical drugs; now also includes specified high alcohol medicinal formulations.

      [2018] Consider the following statements:

      1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
      2. The Food Safety and Standard Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      (a) 1 only

      (b) 2 only

      (c) Both 1 and 2

      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    9. On the method of caste enumeration

      Why in the News?

      The pre-test for the second phase of Census 2027 began on July 6, 2026, in 16 States and Union Territories, using an “open column” for respondents to record their caste. The outcome of this pre-test will decide the final methodology for India’s first statutory caste enumeration since 1931.

      What has changed in this pre-test, and why does its outcome carry more weight than the 2011 exercise?

      1. Pre-test scope: The rehearsal for the second phase of Census ran in 16 States and Union Territories from July 6 to July 20, 2026, and included an open column for respondents to record their caste.
      2. Statutory shift: Unlike the 2011 Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC), which was conducted outside the purview of the Census Act, caste in 2027 will be enumerated within the second and final phase of the Census itself, giving the count statutory backing.
      3. Methodology still open: Census officials stated that the final caste enumeration methodology will be prepared based on feedback from this pre-test, not fixed in advance.
      4. Historical gap: Caste-wise population, other than Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, has not been enumerated in independent India since the 1931 Census.
      5. Limited rehearsal access: Self-enumeration was permitted, with the portal accessible only from July 1 to 5, and only in the specific area undergoing the rehearsal.

      Why did the government finally agree to caste enumeration after years of resistance?

      1. Reversal in position: The BJP-led NDA government, after repeatedly opposing caste enumeration, announced on April 30, 2025, that caste would be counted during Population Census 2027.
      2. Opposition pressure: The Congress had consistently demanded a full caste count prior to this announcement.
      3. Coalition pressure: Some NDA allies also pushed for caste enumeration, adding pressure from within the ruling coalition.
      4. State-level precedent: Bihar’s 2022-23 caste-based survey demonstrated a working alternative model and added political momentum for a national exercise.

      Does repeating the open-column method risk reproducing the same unreliable outcome the government itself rejected?

      1. Scale of past failure: The 2011 SECC’s open-column method returned over 46 lakh distinct “caste names,” compared to only 4,147 recorded in the 1931 Census.
      2. Cause of inflation: Respondents recorded surnames or sub-castes as separate categories. For example, “Gupta” and “Agarwal” were recorded separately instead of under the common Baniya caste.
      3. Government’s own admission: In a 2021 Supreme Court affidavit, the Union government stated that the caste count “cannot be exponentially high” through genuine sub-caste bifurcation alone, and that SECC data cannot be relied on for reservation in education, employment, or local body elections.
      4. Method repeated despite the admission: The 2026 pre-test uses the identical open-ended caste column. Officials describe the method as “not final.”
      5. Structured alternative already exists: Current government data lists about 2,650 OBCs on the Central List, 1,170 Scheduled Castes, and 890 Scheduled Tribes — a far smaller, curated framework similar to the list-based model Bihar used, but not yet adopted for the national pre-test.

      What concerns have been raised about the process, and how has the government responded?

      1. Demand for consultation: Opposition parties have sought wider stakeholder consultation before the caste Census is finalised.
      2. Parliamentary question: On December 2, 2025, a Member of Parliament asked in the Lok Sabha whether the government would publish the draft Census questions for public and representative input, and whether it would consider best practices from state-level caste surveys.
      3. Government’s stated process: Minister of State for Home responded that draft questionnaires are field pre-tested before finalisation, consistent with over 150 years of Census practice that incorporates past learnings and stakeholder input.
      4. Repeated deferral through 2025: The government stated multiple times through 2025 that the final caste questionnaire had not been settled.
      5. Notification timeline unresolved: Parliament was informed in February 2026 that caste-related questions would be notified only before the commencement of the second Census phase, leaving the methodology undecided even as the pre-test proceeds.

      5. Why has the Census itself not just the caste count been delayed for over a decade?

      1. Two-phase structure: The Population Census is conducted in two phases, Houselisting and Housing Operations (HLO), and Population Enumeration, spanning over 11 months.
      2. Overdue cycle: The last Census was completed in 2011; the next was constitutionally due in 2021.
      3. Pandemic disruption: The first phase, due to begin April 1, 2020, was delayed by the COVID-19 pandemic that surfaced in India around March 2020.
      4. Unexplained continued delay: Pandemic-related restrictions had ended by 2022, but the government did not specify reasons for the delay beyond that point.
      5. Announced timeline: On June 4, 2025, the government announced that the Population Census, combined with caste enumeration, would be conducted in two phases by February 28, 2027, with the reference date and time of the headcount fixed at 12 a.m., March 1, 2027.

      Conclusion

      The 2027 Census will give caste enumeration statutory backing for the first time, closing the ambiguity that surrounded the unreleased 2011 SECC. The ongoing pre-test’s use of the same open-ended, self-declared caste column risks reproducing the unreliable, exponentially inflated caste count the government itself flagged before the Supreme Court in 2021. Whether the final methodology adopts a curated caste list, as Bihar’s survey did, or persists with the open column, will determine whether the resulting data is usable for its stated purpose of informing reservation, education, and employment policy. The government’s promise to notify questions only before the second phase begins leaves this central design choice unresolved even as the exercise proceeds.

      PYQ Relevance

      [UPSC 2020] Has caste lost its relevance in understanding the multicultural Indian Society? Elaborate your answer with illustrations.

      Linkage: The PYQ directly evaluates the contemporary relevance of caste. The decision to include caste in the 2027 Census itself reflects the continued administrative, political and socio-economic significance of caste in policymaking and governance.