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GS Paper: Parliament & State Legislatures

  • Speaker Says MPs Can Speak Only as Per Parliamentary Rules

    Why in the News

    Om Birla stated that every Member of Parliament has the right to speak in the Lok Sabha, but only according to the Constitution, Rules of Procedure, and Standing Orders.
    His remarks came a day after a motion seeking his removal was defeated in the House.

    Constitutional Basis

    • Freedom of Speech in Parliament: Under Article 105 of the Constitution of India:  MPs have freedom of speech in Parliament. However, this freedom is subject to parliamentary rules and procedures.

    Key Parliamentary Rules Governing Speeches

    • Recognition by the Chair: An MP can speak only when recognized by the Speaker. Members cannot stand and speak without permission.
    • Time is allocated based on: Party strength, Business of the House and Decision of the Speaker.
    • Agenda-Based Discussions
      • Members can speak mainly during: Question Hour, Zero Hour, Debates on Bills, Motions and Resolutions, Budget discussions

    Rules of Conduct: 

    • Members must:
      • Address the Chair (Speaker) and not other members directly.
      • Avoid unparliamentary language.
      • Speak only on the subject under discussion.

    Special Procedures

    Certain issues can be raised through specific procedures such as:

    • Adjournment Motion
    • Calling Attention Motion
    • Short Duration Discussion
    • Points of Order

    Role of the Speaker

    The Speaker:

    • Maintains order and discipline in the House.
    • Decides who speaks and for how long.
    • Can expunge remarks or suspend members for disorderly conduct.
    [2025] With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

  • Lok Sabha Debates Motion to Remove Speaker

    Why in the News

    The Lok Sabha has taken up a resolution moved by Opposition MPs seeking the removal of Om Birla, leading to intense debate between the Treasury and Opposition benches.

    Key Developments

    • The motion was initiated by Congress leaders including Gaurav Gogoi, Mohammad Jawed, K. Suresh, and Mallu Ravi.
    • The Opposition alleged partisan behaviour and lack of neutrality by the Speaker.
    • The government defended the Speaker, with Kiren Rijiju calling the motion an “attack on democracy.”
    • The debate has been allotted 10 hours, after which the House will vote on the motion.
    • Amit Shah is expected to intervene in the debate.

    Procedure for Removal of Lok Sabha Speaker

    The removal of the Speaker is governed by Article 94 of the Constitution of India.

    • Notice of Motion: A written notice must be given at least 14 days in advance.
    • Support for Admission: At least 50 members must support the motion for it to be admitted in the House.
    • Presiding Officer
      • During the discussion, the Speaker does not preside over the House.
      • A member from the Panel of Chairpersons presides instead.
    • Debate and Voting: The motion is debated in the House.
      • It must be passed by a majority of the members present and voting.
    • Outcome: If the motion is passed, the Speaker ceases to hold office immediately.

    Constitutional Significance

    • The Speaker is expected to maintain neutrality and impartiality while conducting proceedings.
    • Removal motions are rare and politically sensitive, as they question the neutrality of the Chair and the functioning of parliamentary democracy.
    [2025] Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/ her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the (then) Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

  • SC Expands Judicial Team for West Bengal Special Intensive Revision

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court of India expanded the pool of judicial officers assisting the Election Commission of India in completing the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in West Bengal, invoking its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution.

    Background

    • Around 50 lakh claims and objections were pending.
    • Voters were excluded due to “logical discrepancies” or “unmapping” in draft rolls.
    • 294 district and additional district judges were initially deployed.
    • The Calcutta High Court Chief Justice flagged manpower shortage.
      • The Supreme Court earlier took the “extraordinary” step of involving the judiciary in the SIR process due to a perceived trust deficit between the State government and the EC.

    Key Directions by the Supreme Court

    1. Expansion of Judicial Officers

    • Permitted deployment of civil judges (senior and junior division) with at least three years’ experience.
    • Allowed the Calcutta High Court Chief Justice to request judges from:
      • Jharkhand High Court
      • Orissa High Court
    • Both neighbouring High Courts were asked to consider such requests sympathetically.

    2. Verification Process

    • Verification to follow EC’s October 27, 2025 SIR notification.
    • Accepted documents include:
      • Aadhaar
      • Class 10 admit card
      • Class 10 pass certificate

    3. Publication of Electoral Rolls

    • EC permitted to publish voter list on February 28, 2026.
    • Supplementary lists to be issued continuously till nomination filing.
    • Under Article 142, the Court declared that voters added in supplementary lists would be deemed part of the final roll.

    Constitutional Provisions Involved

    • Article 324: Gives superintendence, direction and control of elections to the Election Commission.
    • Article 142: Empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice.
    [2019] With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law. 

    (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament. 

    (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet. 

    (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

  • Motion to Remove Lok Sabha Speaker: Constitutional & Procedural Aspects

    Why in the News?

    • Om Birla has decided not to preside over proceedings of the Lok Sabha until the Opposition’s notice seeking his removal is processed. The notice alleges partisan conduct during House proceedings.
    • Meanwhile, Parliamentary Affairs Minister Kiren Rijiju released footage alleging disorderly conduct by Opposition MPs near the Prime Minister’s seat.

    Constitutional Provisions

    • Article 93: Provides for election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
    • Under Article 94 of the Constitution of India, a Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (effective majority).
    • Article 95: When the office of the Speaker is vacant or the Speaker is absent, the Deputy Speaker performs the duties.

    Notice Requirement

    • A minimum of 14 days’ notice must be given.
    • The notice must be signed by at least 50 Members of Parliament.
      • This requirement comes from the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, not directly from the Constitution.

    Procedure for Removal

    1. Written notice signed by required number of MPs.
    2. Secretary General examines admissibility.
    3. After 14 days, motion may be taken up.
    4. Speaker does not preside during discussion of the motion.
    5. Requires effective majority of the House.
    [2024] With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration: 

    1. He/She shall not preside. 

    2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 

    3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

    (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • Disqualification of MLAs and Speaker’s Powers 

    Why in the news?

    The Supreme Court of India has given a final three week deadline to the Telangana Legislative Assembly Speaker to decide the remaining disqualification petitions against MLAs elected on BRS tickets who later joined the Congress. The Court warned that failure to comply would invite contempt proceedings.

    What is the issue?

    • Disqualification petitions were filed against 10 MLAs under the anti defection law
    • Allegation is defection from Bharat Rashtra Samiti to Congress after elections
    • Speaker rejected 7 petitions in December 2025
    • One more petition has since been decided
    • Remaining petitions are still pending

    Supreme Court directions so far

    • Matter pending before SC since December 2024
    • July 31, 2025 order directed Speaker to decide all petitions within three months
    • Non compliance led to contempt petitions
    • January 16, 2026 hearing granted two weeks extension
    • February 2026 order gives last chance of three weeks with contempt warning

    Legal and constitutional basis

    • Anti defection law is contained in the Tenth Schedule
    • Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is the adjudicating authority
    • Speaker’s decisions are subject to judicial review
    • Power of contempt flows from Articles 129 and 142 of the Constitution
    [2022] With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 

    2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Fake news, deepfakes, influencers-Elections 2026

    Why in the news

    India is approaching the 2026 election cycle amid unprecedented digital disruption of democratic processes. Electioneering has decisively shifted from rallies and manifestos to WhatsApp, influencers, and AI-generated content. This marks a sharp departure from earlier elections where television and print dominated political messaging. The scale is significant, with over 900 million internet users, 90 crore television viewers, and 65% of Indians relying on social media for news, creating fertile ground for misinformation, manipulation, and synthetic political content.

    How has electioneering fundamentally changed?

    1. Digital-first campaigning: Replaces ground mobilisation with podcasts, WhatsApp channels, and algorithm-driven platforms.
    2. WhatsApp-first political communication: BJP’s launch of India’s first “WhatsApp Elections” in 2024 institutionalised private messaging as a campaign tool.
    3. Attention-driven narratives: Rewards sensationalism over verification due to speed and virality.

    What exactly constitutes fake news in the Indian context?

    1. Undefined legal status: Lacks a formal definition under Indian law.
    2. Comparative clarity: Australia’s eSafety Commissioner defines fake news as “fictional news stories tailored to support certain agendas.”
    3. Sensational amplification: Algorithmic platforms magnify emotional and polarising content.

    Why is fake news proliferating at scale?

    1. Platform dependence: 65% of Indians view social media as a primary news source.
    2. High trust deficit: 40% believe fake news shapes political views.
    3. Electoral sensitivity: Fake news increasingly targets polarising political themes.
    4. Verification collapse: Speed of dissemination outpaces fact-checking mechanisms.

    Where does fake news spread most rapidly?

    1. Encrypted platforms: WhatsApp and Telegram enable rapid, untraceable circulation.
    2. Algorithmic ecosystems: X (Twitter), Instagram, and Facebook reward engagement over accuracy.
    3. Regional language media: Hindi and regional newspapers retain higher credibility, creating selective trust asymmetries.
    4. Television saturation: India hosts nearly 900 private TV channels, amplifying narrative competition.

    Who are the new political intermediaries?

    1. Influencers as opinion brokers: Gen Z reliance stands at 13% globally and over 8% for certain influencers.
    2. Algorithmic reach: Influencer visibility often exceeds that of traditional journalists.
    3. State engagement: Government engagement with influencers through events like “Mann Ki Baat.”
    4. Institutional penetration: Influencers empanelled in 2023 under a CEO-led initiative.

    What role do deepfakes play in electoral manipulation?

    1. Synthetic media proliferation: AI-generated audio and video increasingly mimic political leaders.
    2. Documented misuse: Deepfake videos surfaced during recent Lok Sabha elections.
    3. Low-cost production: Reduces barriers for political disinformation.
    4. Cross-party vulnerability: Affects ruling and opposition parties alike.

    How prepared is the regulatory system?

    1. Delayed response: Model Code of Conduct provisions activated late in election cycles.
    2. Enforcement deficit: Difficulty tracing encrypted or AI-generated content.
    3. Partial institutional awareness: Meta approved 14 AI-generated electoral ads, signalling scale but weak deterrence.
    4. Reactive governance: Regulation follows disruption rather than anticipating it.

    Conclusion

    India’s electoral democracy is entering a phase where technological speed, anonymity, and algorithmic incentives overpower institutional safeguards. The convergence of fake news, influencer politics, and deepfakes represents not a temporary challenge but a systemic risk. Without anticipatory regulation and voter literacy, elections risk becoming contests of manipulation rather than mandate.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2022] Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct.

    Linkage: The Model Code of Conduct expanded the Election Commission’s role beyond conducting elections to enforcing ethical political behaviour. Digital campaigns, misinformation, and deepfakes now test the ECI’s regulatory capacity under the MCC.

  • Mekedatu Balancing Reservoir Project

    Why in the news?

    • Karnataka has decided to submit a revised Detailed Project Report (DPR) for the Mekedatu balancing reservoir across the Cauvery River.
    • The Supreme Court termed Tamil Nadu’s challenge as “premature”, enabling the CWMA and CWC to examine the project.

    Location & River

    • Mekedatu is located in Ramanagara district, ~100 km from Bengaluru.
    • The project is proposed on the inter-State Cauvery river.
    • Karnataka = upper riparian; Tamil Nadu = lower riparian.

    Why Does Karnataka Want It?

    • Bengaluru water demand:
      • Present: 2,600 MLD
      • Supply: 2,100 MLD → shortage of 500 MLD
    • Population to reach 20 million in 6 years → demand may rise to 4,000 MLD.
    • Shivakumar argues Mekedatu will ensure regulated release to Tamil Nadu, even in poor rainfall years.

    Why Is Tamil Nadu Opposed?

    • Trust deficit due to the history of Cauvery disputes.
    • Concern: Karnataka may store more water and release it selectively.
    • TN argues the project violates the 2018 SC judgment and Cauvery Tribunal’s final award.

    Centre’s Position

    • 2019: Karnataka submitted DPR → CWC → CWMA.
    • MoEFCC (2019): Sought an “amicable solution” due to inter-State dispute.
    • 2024 (Feb): CWMA referred DPR back to CWC after deliberations.
    • Now: DPR to be examined afresh; CWMA/CWC can facilitate dialogue.

    Constitutional & Legal Angle

    • Inter-State Rivers: Union List Entry 56 – regulation and development of inter-State rivers.
    • River Boards Act, 1956 (not effectively implemented).
    • Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT): Award notified in February 2013.
    • Supreme Court Judgment (2018):
      • Reallocated shares;
      • Gave 4.75 TMC drinking water allocation to Bengaluru.

     

    Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken? (2016)

    (a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra 

    (b) Godavari and Krishna 

    (c) Mahanadi and Son 

    (d) Narmada and Tapti

  • Sessions of the Parliament

    Why in the News?

    The Winter Session of Parliament will be held from December 1 to 19, 2025.

    About Parliamentary Sessions:

    • Parliamentary Sessions are formal periods when the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha meet to legislate, deliberate, and hold the government accountable.
    • Each session has several sittings for debates, questions, and lawmaking. Under Article 85(1), the President must summon both Houses so that not more than six months elapse between two sessions.
    • Types of Sessions:
      1. Budget Session (Feb–Mar): Begins with the President’s Address; includes Union Budget presentation and debate.
      2. Monsoon Session (Jul–Aug): Focuses on legislative work and national issues.
      3. Winter Session (Nov–Dec): Reviews policies, finalises pending legislation.
      4. Special Session: Called for urgent or commemorative matters (e.g., emergencies or milestones).

    Key Terms Related to Sessions:

    • Summoning (Art. 85(1)): President summons Parliament on Cabinet Committee advice; at least two sessions yearly, with ≤ six-month gap.
    • Adjournment: Temporary suspension of a sitting; business resumes when House reassembles.
    • Adjournment Sine Die: Ends a sitting without fixing a date for the next meeting; followed by presidential prorogation.
    • Prorogation (Art. 85(2)(a)): Formal end of a session by the President; pending bills do not lapse.
    • Dissolution (Art. 85(2)(b)): Ends the Lok Sabha’s tenure; triggers new elections; pending bills in Lok Sabha lapse.
    • Recess: Period between the prorogation of one session and the start of the next.
    • Lame Duck Session: Last session of an outgoing Lok Sabha before the new one forms.
    • Quorum (Art. 100): Minimum attendance for business—55 in Lok Sabha, 25 in Rajya Sabha.
    • Voting (Art. 100):
      • Voice Vote: Members respond “Aye”/“No.”
      • Division Vote: Contested results recorded electronically.
      • Casting Vote: Presiding officer’s tie-breaking vote.
    [UPSC 2024] With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

    1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

    2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session.

    3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Options: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3* (d) 3 only

     

  • About 30% of MPs and MLAs face serious criminal cases

    Introduction

    The intertwining of crime and politics is not new in India, but the recent figures are deeply concerning. An analysis of elected representatives reveals that 31% of MPs and 29% of MLAs across India have declared serious criminal charges against them. More strikingly, in the Lok Sabha, this share has more than doubled from 14% in 2009 to 31% in 2024. Such data points underscore a disturbing trend where democratic institutions are increasingly being captured by individuals with questionable integrity.

    About 30% of MPs and MLAs face serious criminal cases

    The Scale of Criminalisation in Indian Politics

    • MPs with serious charges: 31% in 2024, compared to 14% in 2009.
    • MLAs with serious charges: 29% nationwide, amounting to more than 1,200 legislators.
    • Definition of serious crimes: Offences with punishments of 5+ years, or non-bailable in nature.

    State-wise Picture of the Crisis

    • Telangana: Highest share of MPs with serious cases (71%).
    • Bihar: Second-highest share of MPs (48%).
    • Uttar Pradesh: Highest absolute number of MPs (34) and MLAs (154 or 38%).
    • Andhra Pradesh: Highest share of MLAs with serious cases (56%), followed by Telangana (50%).

    Political Party-Wise Trends

    • BJP: Largest absolute number—63 MPs (26%) and 436 MLAs (26%).
    • Congress: 32 MPs (32%) and 194 MLAs (30%).
    • RJD: 100% of its 4 MPs, and 62% of MLAs face serious cases.
    • TDP: 61% of MLAs facing serious charges.

    Criminalisation of politics as a Democratic Crisis

    1. Undermines Rule of Law: Representatives sworn to make laws are themselves accused of violating them.
    2. Erodes Public Trust: Citizens lose faith in democratic institutions.
    3. Policy Capture Risk: Legislators with criminal backgrounds may promote laws benefiting vested interests.
    4. Vicious Cycle: Money, muscle power, and electoral compulsions perpetuate the entry of tainted candidates.

    Constitutional and Legal Context

    • Representation of People’s Act, 1951: Currently disqualifies convicted representatives but not those with pending cases.

    Judicial Interventions:

    1. Lily Thomas vs Union of India (2013): Immediate disqualification upon conviction.
    2. Public Interest Foundation vs Union of India (2018): Urged political parties to disclose candidate criminal records widely.

    Conclusion

    The latest data underscores that criminalisation in politics is not just persisting but worsening, with more than one in four lawmakers facing serious charges. Unless systemic reforms, ranging from fast-track courts to stricter disqualification laws, are implemented, India risks democratic backsliding. For a healthy democracy, the moral legitimacy of legislatures must be restored.

    Value Addition

    Issues with Criminalisation in Politics

    • Erosion of Democratic Legitimacy: Lawmakers accused of breaking the law undermine the moral authority of Parliament/Assemblies.
    • Weakening of Rule of Law: Offenders often manipulate investigations, delay trials, and escape accountability.
    • Policy Capture & Corruption: Legislators may pass laws or influence contracts to protect vested interests.
    • Distortion of Electoral Choices: Voters are forced to choose between tainted candidates, limiting free and fair choice.
    • Loss of Public Trust: Citizens lose faith in governance when crime and politics merge.
    • Security Threats: Nexus of politics and crime leads to rise in muscle power, intimidation, and weakens internal security.

    Why do Parties Field Candidates With Criminal Background?

    • Money Power: Candidates with criminal networks bring enormous funds to finance expensive elections.
    • Muscle Power: They help in mobilising voters, intimidating opponents, and managing booths in certain constituencies.
    • Winnability Factor: Studies show voters often overlook criminal charges if the candidate is influential, caste-backed, or delivers local patronage.
    • Weak Legal Framework: Only convicted representatives are barred; those with pending cases can contest. With trials dragging on for years, many continue to fight elections.
    • Vote-Bank Politics: Parties use “strongmen” with community backing to secure caste/religion-based votes.

    Way Forward with Committee Reports, Judgments & Reforms

    Committee Recommendations

    • Vohra Committee (1993): Flagged deep nexus between crime, politics, and bureaucracy.
    • Law Commission 170th Report (1999): Recommended disqualification of candidates once charges are framed in heinous offences.
    • Law Commission 244th Report (2014): Suggested immediate disqualification in cases with charges punishable by 5 years or more, and where charges are framed by a court.
    • Election Commission of India (ECI) Recommendations: Ban on candidates facing heinous charges; fast-track courts to decide political cases within a year.

    Judicial Interventions

    • Lily Thomas vs Union of India (2013): MPs/MLAs disqualified immediately upon conviction (earlier they could continue for 3 months pending appeal).
    • Public Interest Foundation vs Union of India (2018): Directed political parties to publicise candidate criminal records widely (website, media, papers).

    Suggested Reforms

    • Fast-track Courts: To ensure cases against politicians are resolved within strict timelines.
    • Stricter Disqualification Norms: Disqualify candidates at the stage of framing of charges (with safeguards against false cases).
    • Political Party Accountability: Legal provisions to penalise parties giving tickets to tainted candidates.
    • State Funding of Elections: Reduce dependence on money/muscle power.
    • Voter Awareness: Encourage citizens to reject candidates with serious charges through awareness campaigns.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC GS II] There is a need for simplification of procedure for disqualification of persons found guilty of corrupt practices under the Representation of Peoples Act.” Comment

    Linkage: The issue of disqualification under the Representation of People’s Act (RPA), 1951 is central to tackling criminalisation of politics. Recent data showing over 30% MPs/MLAs facing serious criminal charges highlights the inadequacy of current provisions that act only after conviction. Simplifying and strengthening disqualification procedures, as urged by committees and the Supreme Court, is vital to restore public trust in democracy.

  • Nominations to J&K Assembly

    Why in the News?

    The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) informed the J&K High Court that the Lieutenant-Governor (L-G) can nominate five members to the J&K Legislative Assembly without the aid and advice of the elected government.

    About Nominations in State Assemblies:

    • Election Mode: Members are mainly directly elected from single-member constituencies.
    • Assembly Size: Ranges from 60–500 members; smaller States/UTs like Sikkim, Goa, Mizoram, and Puducherry have fewer by parliamentary approval.
    • Anglo-Indian Nomination (Abolished): Governors earlier nominated 1 Anglo-Indian member if under-represented; abolished by 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 (effective Jan 2020).
    • Rights of Nominated Members: Same rights/duties as elected members, except in matters needing a direct electoral mandate.
    • Prevalence: Most States have no nominated members; allowed only under special constitutional/legal provisions.
    • Parliamentary Nomination Abolition: Anglo-Indian nomination in Lok Sabha (2) and State Assemblies (1) also removed by the 104th Amendment.
    • Legislative Council Difference: In Vidhan Parishads, Governors nominate 1/6th members from literature, science, art, co-operatives, and social service.

    Exceptions for Jammu & Kashmir:

    • Special Provision: Under J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 (amended 2023), the Lieutenant-Governor can nominate:
      • Women: 2 women if under-represented.
      • Migrants: 2 Kashmiri migrants (including 1 woman).
      • PoJK Community: 1 member from Pakistan-occupied J&K community.
    • Seat Structure: Nominated members are in addition to elected members; Assembly = 114 elected + nominated (24 PoJK seats vacant).

    Legal Basis in J&K:

    • Statutory Provision: Sections 15, 15A, 15B of J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 (amended 2023) grant L-G nomination powers.
    • MHA Clarification:
      • Nature of Power: Statutory function at L-G’s discretion, without elected government’s aid/advice.
      • Precedent: Similar powers under Union Territories Act, 1963 (e.g., Puducherry).
      • Counting Rule: Nominated members are part of sanctioned Assembly strength.
    • Purpose: To ensure representation for displaced communities, marginalized groups, and women.
    [UPSC 2023] Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

    1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

    2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.

    3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.

    4. The value of of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Options: (a) Only one* (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four