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To the Late Runners – Do Another Manjhi!

MANJHI THE UPSC MAN


Hello Everyone,

There are two winter seasons in a UPSC candidate’s life. One caused by earth’s tilt and another caused by UPSC’s notification. The former lullabies you to sleep and the later jolts you out of the slumber.

Many of you might have started getting apprehensive about the level of preparation and the thought of skipping this attempt might have crossed several hundreds of minds already. Skip the attempt if you feel you shall have any different feeling in 2017. But depend on it, if you skip this attempt and feel that you shall be better prepared and confident next year then you must be living in some utopian world.

CSE is a cycle and this apprehension is a part of it. You cannot circumvent it. And you shall have to work with it and clear the exam.

Counting from tomorrow till 07.08.2016, you have 101 days with you. And for clearing prelims, it is more than enough. Yes, it is more than enough. But only if you use them judiciously. So, what can you do to make the best out of coming days? Here is the list:
1. Sit down, read the syllabus, pick the standard books prescribed and stick to them over the coming days.
2. Make a time table and work according to it.
3. Don’t read haphazardly and kangaroo-jump from one subject to another and from one topic to another. Finish what you have started before moving to the next.
4. While you study keep referring to the previous year questions to get an inkling about the areas that engender more questions.
5. When your mind is tired and the overbearing fear of failure clouds you, take a small break. Don’t force yourself into studying when you just cannot. Relaxing and rejuvenating is as important as studying itself.
6. Do not forget to read newspaper. Do not get into the fruitless debate whether you should read newspaper till June or July. You must read at least the headlines even on 07.08.2016.
7. Get in good discussions with friends and stay clear of the ones who come uninvited for “ek cup chai”. This “ek cup chai” sometimes takes hours.
8. Reading maps is a good way of killing boredom or so I feel.
9. Try the MCQs that are posted here or from any other source you refer to.

Remember you are vying for the Ambassador to which every Benz salutes. Thodi mushkil to hogi hi! Lastly, the only advice to the late runners is that, Do another Manjhi and Make the bridges where there exist none!

UW

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Prelims Daily

MCQ solutions for the maze 5 and 6 sessions

Get solutions pdf form the link below:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/0BxdqUlW1zhMsTU9XVm5tSWlJMk0/view

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MCQ Maze 7

Q1. In which one of the following states shall you find a unique geological feature commonly known as ‘karewas’ or ‘vudras’ ?

(a) Meghalaya
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Q2. In which of the following states do the Mangrove forests occur naturally?

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Gujarat
4. Odisha

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. With reference to the ‘Baiga’ community of India, consider the following statements:

1. They live mainly in the Sal forests of Maikal Hills.
2. They have won habitat rights under the Forests Rights Act of 2006.
3. They are kept in the category of particularly vulnerable tribal groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Q4. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
Region : Known for
1. Kodarma : Limestone deposits
2. Nagaur : Zinc deposits
3. Ankaleshwar : Oil fields

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q5. Steppes are dry lands principally because of

(a) presence of mountain barriers across the paths of the prevailing winds
(b) subsiding air masses of the sub-tropical anticyclones
(c) their location in the deep interior of the large land masses
(d) desiccating effect of cold oceanic currents

______

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Prelims Daily

MCQ Maze 6

Q1. With reference to Nilgiri Tahr, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is found along the entire length of Western Ghats from Maharashtra to Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
2. It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Nagoya Protocol for the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources shall be implemented at the national level through

(a) The Biodiversity Act, 2002
(b) The Environment Protection Act, 1986
(c) The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
(d) The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006

Q3. The ‘Paris Agreement’, which has recently been in news, is related to the affairs of

(a) WIPO
(b) FAO
(c) UNEP
(d) UNFCCC

Q4. Plastics used for packaging of fast foods contains a class of chemicals known as ‘phthalates’ which pose a considerable health risk. Which of the statements given below about them is/are correct?

1. They are used to add colours to the plastic used in packaging.
2. They can contaminate the food items contained therein.
3. They can cause learning and behavioural problems in children.

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q5. Consider the following statements about The Energy and Research Institute (TERI):

1. It is research institute head-quartered in Mumbai.
2. It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
3. GRIHA, the national rating system for green buildings, was conceived by TERI.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

_______

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Prelims Daily

MCQ Maze 5

Q1. Which of the following add sulphur to the sulphur cycle on earth?

1. Volcanic Eruptions
2. Combustion of fossil fuels
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Metallurgical processes

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q2. You home loan may become dearer if

1. RBI raises the cash reserve ratio
2. RBI slashes the repo rate
3. RBI follows tight money policy

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Western Ghats in Karnataka receive more monsoon rainfall then Western Ghats in Kerala. What could be the possible reasons for this?

1. Western Ghats in Karnataka have gentler slopes compared to Western Ghats in Kerala.
2. The mountain topography is broader in Karnataka compared to that in Kerala.
3. Western Ghats are more continuous in Karnataka compared to Kerala.

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which of the following provisions of Indian Constitution cannot be amended?

(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) All the provisions listed in (a), (b) and (c) can be amended

Q5. Foreign Investment Promotion Board works under the aegis of

(a) Prime Minister’s Office
(b) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
(c) Department of Commerce
(d) Department of Economic Affairs

_________

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Prelims Daily

MCQ solutions for the last 4 maze sessions

Download the pdf from this link – https://www.civilsdaily.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/04/Solutions-1.pdf

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Prelims Daily

MCQ Maze 4

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. A Money bill can be introduced in either house of the Parliament.
2. The President cannot withhold his/her accent to the Money bill.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Which of the following writs can be issued by the Supreme Court to restrain a person from holding a public office to which she/he is not entitled?

(a) Prohibition
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Mandamus

Q3. The Model Code of Conduct comes into force

(a) forty eight hours before the polling commences
(b) when the Election Commission so declares
(c) after the parties declare the list of their candidates
(d) immediately after the election schedule is announced

Q4. Apart from the nominated members, other members of the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by

(a) the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies
(b) the elected as well as nominated members of the State Legislative Assemblies
(c) the elected members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies
(d) the elected members of the Lok Sabha

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike Lok Sabha, there are no nominated members in a State Legislative Assembly.
2. The Constitutional bench of Supreme Court is always headed by the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

_______

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MCQ Maze 3

Q1. Consider the two statements given below followed by two conclusions:

Statements: 1. All men are biased. 2. Some teachers are men.

Conclusion I: Some teachers are biased.
Conclusion II: Some teachers are not biased.

Which of the above conclusions follows if the given statements are assumed to be true?

(a) Conclusion I
(b) Conclusion II
(c) Both Conclusion I and II
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II

Q2. Which of the following is sometimes referred to as ‘forgotten greenhouse gas’?

(a) Water Vapour
(b) Methane
(c) Nitrous Oxide
(d) Sulphur Hexafluoride

Q3. If ABA × BAB = BCDCB, where A, B, C and D are different digits, what are the values of C and D?

(a) C = 6, D = 7
(b) C = 7, D = 6
(c) C = 6, D = 5
(d) C = 5, D = 6

Q4. A man’s present age is equal to the sum of the present ages of his six children. After 10 years his age shall be half of the sum of ages of his children at that time. What is the present age of the man?

(a) 30 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 45 years
(d) Insufficient data

Q5. If the length of a rectangle is reduced by 10% and its breadth increased by 20% then its area

(a) increases by 8%
(b) increases by 12%
(c) decreases by 12%
(d) decreases by 8%

____

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MCQ Maze 2

Q1. Who were ‘uparikas’ under the Gupta administration?
(a) Military Commanders
(b) Provincial Governors
(c) Revenue Collectors
(d) Chief spies

Q2. What is ‘Brasilia Declaration’, which has recently been in news?

(a) a IMF backed initiative to curb black money menace.
(b) a WHO co-sponsored agenda on road safety
(c) a WTO initiative to bring down trade barriers
(d) a WIPO authored declaration on intellectual property rights

Q3. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Religious Centre : Geographical feature
1. Trimbakeshwar : Tungabhadra River
2. Ujjain : Satmala Hills
3. Shingnapur : Malwa Plateau

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None

Q4. In which one of the following states locals are known to construct their dwellings over floating vegetative masses called ‘phumdis’ for fishing and other livelihood uses?

(a) Assam
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Manipur

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon dioxide and methane are the two most prominent gases that emanate from
land-fill sites.
2. These are produced by the fungal disintegration of the organic waste.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

____–

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Prelims Daily

Economics MCQs from an Intl. ECO Newspaper

I am posting these ones from some good newspapers sources. Donno how you will all appreciate but …

1. Gold tranche referes to…?
a.) A loan system of the World Bank
b.) One of the operations of a Central Bank
c.) A credit system granted by WTO to its members
d.) Quota holding norm under the IMF

2. The highest form of economic integration is
a.) European Economic Community
b.) European Union
c.) European Monetary Union
d.) ASEAN

3. Refugee capital is?
a.) Investment made by refugees in the US
b.) Investment made by the UNCTAD in developing countries to empower the refugees
c.) Aid given y the World Bank to promote the welfare of refugees in war tone countries
d.) Investment made by developed country investors in developing countries

4. What is international development association?
a.) A voluntary association of developing countries
b.) A federation of International lending agencies
c.) An affiliate of World Bank
d.) An organization of donor countries of European Union

5. The REER is calculated with?
a.) Pound Sterling
b.) Dollar
c.) SDR
d.) A basket of selected currencies

6. The infant industry argument is often advocated wth?
a.) Price discrimination
b.) Product diversification
c.) Protection
d.) Resource mobilisation

7. Dumping aims at flooding a foreign country with…
a.) High-priced commodities
b.) Low-priced commodities
c.) Commodities with similar prices
d.) Commodities with fluctuating prices

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MCQs : Few Random Ones

1. Which of the following are the pollutant that enter the atmosphere due to large scale burning of the biomass?
1. Formaldehyde
2. Potassium
3. Benzene
4. Carbon Monoxide
Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below:
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2. Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Curzon was the Viceroy when the first session of the Indian National Congress was held.
2. Formation of Indian National Congress was preceded by a number of political organizations including Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Which of the following factors influence the spatial distribution of the salinity of the oceans?
1. Ocean currents
2. Atmospheric Pressure
3. Evaporation
4. Wind Direction
Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below:
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

4.The Western Indian Ocean has witnessed a sharp decline in phytoplankton population due to increased sea surface temperatures largely because increased sea surface temperatures
(a) suppress the mixing of surface and sub-surface waters
(b) make the oceanic water acidic
(c) constrict reproduction among the phytoplankton
(d) limit the process of photosynthesis

5.Nairobi Package’, in news recently, is related to the affairs of
(a) FAO
(b) UNFCCC
(c) WTO
(d) IMF

6. Which of the following enshrine the goal of promotion of sense of brotherhood among the citizens?
(a) Preamble only
(b) Preamble and Fundamental Duties
(c) Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Preamble, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy

7. Consider the following statements:
1. In Indian Parliamentary system , the office of the ‘Leader of the House’ is not mentioned in the Constitution.
2. In Indian Parliamentary system , the office of the ‘Leader of the Opposition’ is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8.Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Parliamentary System:
1. The power to adjourn a session of any House lies with the Presiding officer of that House.
2. The power to adjourn a session of any House sine die lies with the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Consider the following statements:
1. No ground has been mentioned in the Indian Constitution for the removal of the Vice- President.
2. The resolution to remove the Vice-President cannot be introduce in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. India is planning to notify Euro V and Euro VI norms soon. The norms are related to
(a) international banking standards
(b) vehicular emission standards
(c) mergers and acquisition standards
(d) effluents from industrial units

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MCQs from previous B2Bs

1. Which of the following states were formerly Union Territories?
1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Goa
3. Arunachal Pradesh
Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements:
At the time of independence
1. Indian Union was classified into three distinct constituent units.
2. Part A states were administered by the President through a Chief Commissioner.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Which of the following was the only Union Territory at the time of independence and continues to enjoy the same status to date?
(a) Daman and Diu
(b) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
(c) Puducherry
(d) Andaman & Nicobal Islands

4. Through which of the following acts, the Governor General of Bengal was made the Governor Bengal of India?
(a) Charter Act of 1833
(b) Charter Act of 1853
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(d) Regulating Act of 1773

5. What is the correct order of the following satyagrahas undertaken by Gandhiji?
(a) Kheda – Champaran – Ahmedabad
(b) Kheda – Ahmedabad – Champaran
(c) Champaran – Ahmedabad – Kheda
(d) Champaran – Kheda – Ahmedabad