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Subject: Governance

Important aspects of Society

  • Census 2027 finalises Phase 2 questions with caste enumeration

    Why in the News

    Around 28 questions have been finalised for the Population Enumeration phase of Census 2027, which will record caste for all residents for the first time in decades. The enumeration begins on 17 August in Ladakh and snow bound areas ahead of the rest of the country.

    What is the Census in India?

    1. Constitutional and legal basis: The Census is conducted under the Census Act, 1948 by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, and Census is a Union subject in the Seventh Schedule.
    2. Decadal count: It is a decennial enumeration of the entire population covering demographic, social and economic characteristics.

    What are the two phases of Census 2027?

    1. Houselisting phase: The first phase records houses, household amenities and assets.
    2. Population Enumeration: The second phase counts every individual and records personal and household particulars, and is where caste will be captured.

    What is new in Census 2027?

    1. Caste for all: For the first time in decades, the caste of every resident is to be recorded, not only Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
    2. Questionnaire: The final questionnaire is likely to carry 28 questions for the Population Enumeration phase.
    3. Phased timing: Snow bound areas of Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand are counted from 17 August, and the rest of the country in February 2027.

    Why does caste enumeration matter?

    1. Evidence for policy: Caste data informs reservation, welfare targeting and assessment of backwardness beyond SC and ST groups.
    2. Filling a data gap: The last full caste count outside SC and ST dates to 1931, leaving current policy reliant on dated estimates.

    Challenges to caste enumeration in the Census

    1. Classification complexity: Caste names run into thousands with regional and spelling variations, complicating standardised recording.
    2. Self identification: Responses depend on self reporting, which can be inconsistent or strategically stated.
    3. Enumerator training: Accurate capture of caste needs trained enumerators and a controlled code list.
    4. Political sensitivity: Publication of caste numbers can intensify demands for revised reservation shares.
    5. Data privacy: Handling granular caste data raises confidentiality and misuse concerns.

    Conclusion

    Census 2027 is at the pre enumeration stage, with the Phase 2 questionnaire due to be notified before fieldwork begins. Population Enumeration starts on 17 August in Ladakh and snow bound areas, followed by the main count in February 2027, when caste data for all residents will be gathered for the first time in decades.

    Back2Basics: Census Act, 1948

    1. Central legislation empowering the government to conduct the decennial Census.
    2. Administered by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
    3. Makes public cooperation compulsory and guarantees confidentiality of individual records.
    4. Census information is not admissible as evidence in court, protecting respondent data.

    Matching Previous Year Question

    “[2009] Consider the following statements:
    1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.
    2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (d)”

  • Explainer on paper leaks and the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act

    Why in the News

    Repeated crises in NEET 2024, UGC NET 2024 and NEET 2026 have exposed a gap in how examination breaches are defined and prevented. Despite the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, closure reports found no prosecutable conventional paper leak, raising the deeper question of institutional accountability.

    What is the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024?

    1. Anti cheating law: The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 criminalises organised cheating, paper leaks and impersonation in public examinations conducted by central agencies.
    2. Penalties: It prescribes stringent imprisonment and fines and targets service providers and organised gangs, not candidates alone.

    What counts as a paper leak?

    1. Traditional meaning: A paper leak is the unauthorised disclosure of a printed question paper before the exam, during printing, storage or transport.
    2. Broader compromise: Confidential material can leak at question setting, moderation, translation or digitisation, disclosing selected questions without any printed paper being recovered.

    Why do repeated crises yield no prosecutable evidence?

    1. Investigation focus: Probes trace physical papers, so a compromise at the source may never produce recoverable evidence of a conventional leak.
    2. Closure reports: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) filed closure reports in the 2024 cases, reportedly finding no prosecutable leak under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 or this Act.
    3. Detection failure: In NEET 2026, official action followed a whistleblower’s complaint rather than the exam’s own security or intelligence systems.

    Where does primary accountability lie?

    1. Examination authority: Prevention rests with the examination body, here the National Testing Agency (NTA), not with the CBI, police or courts that act only after a crisis.
    2. Lifecycle safeguards: Accountability must run from selection of question setters and translators to centres, digital systems, evaluation and result processing.

    What is the proposed way forward?

    1. White Paper: A committee headed by the former Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) chairman is to document the full spectrum of breaches across the three examinations.
    2. Integrity framework: This should underpin a Public Examination Integrity Framework (PEIF) prescribing standardised end to end standard operating procedures, conflict of interest management and cybersecurity audits.

    Challenges to examination integrity

    1. Insider access: A small number of individuals with privileged access at setting and moderation are the hardest risk to police.
    2. Coaching ecosystems: Organised coaching networks create demand and channels for leaked or guided material.
    3. Cybersecurity: Digitised question banks and candidate data widen the attack surface beyond physical papers.
    4. Scale: Examinations covering millions of candidates across thousands of centres magnify any single point of failure.
    5. Attribution and prosecution: Source compromises leave little physical evidence, making conviction under penal law difficult.
    6. Conflict of interest: Repeated engagement of the same experts and vendors without rotation weakens independent oversight.

    Conclusion

    The central issue is not the absence of a law but the failure to detect and prevent breaches early. Public confidence will be restored by an examination system with lifecycle safeguards and clear institutional accountability, not by harsher penalties or more logistics after the fact.

    Back2Basics: Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024

    1. Central legislation to prevent unfair means in public examinations conducted by bodies like the NTA, UPSC, SSC, railways and banking recruitment.
    2. Defines offences including paper leaks, impersonation and tampering with computer systems.
    3. Provides for imprisonment of three to ten years and fines up to one crore rupees for organised crimes.
    4. Makes offences cognisable, non bailable and non compoundable.

    Matching Previous Year Question

    “[2024, GS2, 15 marks] What are the aims and objects of the recently passed and enforced, The Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024? Whether University/State Education Board examinations, too, are covered under the Act?”

  • Parliamentary panel flags that only 30% of urban households under AMRUT have sewerage

    Why in the News

    The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Housing and Urban Affairs reported that only about 30% of urban households under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) have a sewerage connection. It flagged slow progress and inter state gaps in sanitation infrastructure.

    What is AMRUT?

    1. Flagship civic scheme: AMRUT is the Union government’s flagship urban civic infrastructure mission, providing water supply, sewerage, septage, stormwater drains and green spaces.
    2. Two phases: AMRUT (2015 to 2021) covered 500 cities, and AMRUT 2.0 (from 2021) covers all statutory towns with a focus on universal water and sewerage coverage.

    What did the parliamentary panel find?

    1. Low sewerage coverage: Of 11.32 crore urban households, only 3.44 crore had sewerage connections and 2.84 crore relied on septage systems, per the City Water Balance Plans (2025).
    2. Inter state variation: Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Odisha, Jharkhand and Bihar depend more on septage than on sewer networks.
    3. Network gap: Of 59,261 km of approved sewer network, only 27,418 km has been laid so far.

    Why does the sewerage gap persist?

    1. Small share of projects: Of 8,743 projects approved under AMRUT 2.0, only 594 (about 6.79%) relate to sewerage and septage management.
    2. Slow completion: Only 104 of those 594 sewerage projects (17.51%) are complete, while 398 (67%) remain under implementation.
    3. Funds pending: Only Rs 22,762 crore of the Rs 66,059 crore committed as central assistance has been released.

    What did the committee recommend?

    1. Database and audit: The Ministry should build a database of existing sewer networks, functional status and household connectivity gaps and carry out periodic assessments.
    2. End manual cleaning: Manual cleaning of sewers and septic tanks should be eliminated.

    Challenges to urban sanitation delivery

    1. Weak urban local bodies: Municipal bodies often lack the finances and technical staff to build and operate sewage treatment plants.
    2. Trunk versus last mile: Laying trunk sewer lines without household connections leaves treatment capacity underused.
    3. Cost recovery: User charges for sewerage are politically difficult, so operation and maintenance is chronically underfunded.
    4. Land and legacy: Retrofitting sewer networks into dense, unplanned settlements is slow and expensive.
    5. Faecal sludge gap: Cities dependent on septic tanks lack faecal sludge treatment plants, so untreated waste re enters water bodies.

    Conclusion

    The report shows the sewerage problem is one of execution, since approved networks and committed funds far outrun what has actually been laid and connected. The AMRUT 2.0 mission period has been extended to 31 March 2027, and closing the household connection gap will depend on faster project completion and stronger urban local bodies.

    Back2Basics: AMRUT

    1. Launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
    2. Aims at universal household water supply and sewerage or septage coverage in urban areas.
    3. AMRUT 2.0, launched in 2021, targets all statutory towns and water body rejuvenation.
    4. Beneficiaries are urban households, with a stated focus on the urban poor.

    Matching Previous Year Question

    “No direct PYQ traced in the provided files. Closest microtheme: urban local bodies and flagship urban schemes.”

  • Rajya Sabha clears the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026

    Why in the News

    The Rajya Sabha passed the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026, after the Lok Sabha cleared it earlier. The amendment requires an order from a Judicial Magistrate First Class for any birth or death registered more than two years after the event, tightening the civil registration system toward universal registration.

    What is the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969?

    1. Legal basis: The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 makes recording of every birth and death compulsory and lays down the machinery of registrars for the Civil Registration System.
    2. Vital statistics: Registration data feeds official birth and death rates and underpins the issue of legal identity documents.

    What does the amendment change?

    1. Stricter delayed registration: It amends sub section (3) of Section 13 so that registrations delayed beyond two years need an order from a Judicial Magistrate First Class.
    2. Existing tier retained: Delays of up to two years will continue to require an order from a district, sub divisional or authorised executive magistrate.

    Why tighten delayed registration?

    1. Curbing misuse: The government stated that late registration beyond two years was being misused to create fraudulent records.
    2. Guarding the rolls: Ministers argued the change stops fictitious entries from becoming voters and prevents registration of persons born elsewhere.
    3. Universal registration: The stated aim is that every child born is registered and every death recorded, encouraging timely reporting.

    What concerns were raised?

    1. Overburdened magistrates: Members warned that judicial magistrates are already overburdened, so the requirement could delay genuine registrations.
    2. Uneven capacity: The number of judicial magistrates varies sharply across states, creating disparity in access.
    3. Ease of registration: Some urged easier registration through camps and door to door drives and removal of penalties rather than added judicial steps.

    Challenges to universal civil registration

    1. Rural and remote reach: Home births and deaths in remote areas often go unreported because families lack awareness of the reporting window.
    2. Migrant populations: Mobile and migrant families struggle to register events at their place of residence, producing gaps and duplicate records.
    3. Institutional coordination: Registration depends on hospitals, panchayats and municipal registrars whose reporting discipline varies widely.
    4. Cause of death recording: Medical certification of cause of death remains weak outside large hospitals, limiting the quality of vital statistics.
    5. Added judicial load: Routing older registrations through magistrates can create backlogs where courts are already understaffed.

    Conclusion

    The amendment tightens the civil registration system by making very late registration a judicial act rather than an administrative one. It now proceeds to receive the President’s assent, after which state rules and registrar capacity will determine whether it improves accuracy without excluding the genuinely late.

    Back2Basics: Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969

    1. Central legislation administered through the Registrar General of India and state Chief Registrars.
    2. Makes registration of births, deaths and stillbirths compulsory across the country.
    3. Provides for the Civil Registration System that generates continuous vital statistics.
    4. Amended in 2023 to enable a national database and use of birth certificates as a single document for various services.

  • Supreme Court extends mandatory third party motor insurance and floats a no-insurance, no fuel pilot

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court extended mandatory Third-Party Motor Insurance to 4 years for new cars and 6 years for new two-wheelers. It also proposed a “No Insurance, No Fuel” pilot to improve compliance.

    What is Third-Party Motor Insurance?

    • Mandatory under Section 146 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
    • Covers compensation for injury, death, or property damage caused to a third party.
    • Does not cover damage to the insured vehicle or owner.

    Supreme Court Directions

    • Mandatory third-party cover:
      • 4 years for new cars.
      • 6 years for new two-wheelers.
    • Link Automatic Number Plate Recognition (ANPR) cameras with:
      • Insurance Information Bureau of India (IIB)
      • VAHAN portal.
    • Enable police to verify insurance in real time through mobile applications.
    • Explore a “No Insurance, No Fuel” pilot.

    Why is Enforcement Needed?

    • Around 56% of vehicles reportedly operate without valid third-party insurance.
    • Victims face delays in compensation.
    • Insurance often lapses after the initial mandatory period.

    Challenges

    • Lack of integration among IIB, VAHAN, and police databases.
    • Low renewal rates, especially for two-wheelers.
    • Concerns over denying fuel as an essential service.
    • Weak penalties and limited rural enforcement.

    Comprehensive vs Third-Party Insurance

    • Third-Party Insurance: Mandatory; covers third-party losses only.
    • Comprehensive Insurance: Optional; covers both third-party liability and damage to the insured vehicle.

    Key Platforms

    • VAHAN: National vehicle registration database managed by Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH).
    • ANPR: Automatic Number Plate Recognition technology for vehicle identification.
    • IIB: Insurance Information Bureau of India, maintains insurance-related databases.

    Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

    • Established under: Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999.
    • Headquarters: Hyderabad.
    • Functions: Regulates insurance companies and intermediaries. Protects policyholders’ interests. Prescribes solvency, pricing, and disclosure norms.

  • The dilemma over PM SHRI in Kerala

    Why in the News?

    Kerala’s Congress-led United Democratic Front (UDF) government is caught between the need for withheld central education funds and its declared opposition to the National Education Policy, 2020 (NEP 2020). The funds are tied to the PM SHRI scheme, whose memorandum of understanding the earlier Left government had signed. The bind exposes the conflict between fiscal dependence and ideological consistency in India’s education federalism.

    What is the PM SHRI scheme?

    1. Core design: PM SHRI (Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India) upgrades selected government schools into model schools that showcase the NEP 2020. It is a centrally sponsored scheme of the Ministry of Education.
    2. Access condition: A State must sign a memorandum of understanding to receive funds. The framework requires the school curriculum to follow the National Curriculum Framework aligned with the NEP.
    3. Funding link: Kerala has around Rs 1,158.13 crore in education funds held up by the Centre. Access depends on continuing with the PM SHRI commitment.

    What is the National Education Policy, 2020?

    1. Definition: The NEP 2020 is the Union government’s framework for restructuring school and higher education, replacing the 1986 policy. It covers curriculum, pedagogy, and school structure.
    2. Curriculum clause: The NEP allows States to prepare their own curricula and textbooks. It also states that the NCERT curriculum is to be treated as the nationally acceptable criterion.

    Why is the UDF government in a bind?

    1. Reversed roles: The UDF had attacked the previous Left Democratic Front (LDF) government for signing the PM SHRI memorandum. The current government now argues it is bound because Kerala became a party once the deal was signed.
    2. Coalition fault lines: The Indian Union Muslim League and other allied organisations oppose implementation and want the Cabinet sub-committee’s report first. The internal split has produced repeated flip-flops on the government’s stance.
    3. Fiscal pressure: The Union Minister of State for Education said in the Rajya Sabha that States that do not sign or withdraw miss out on PM SHRI benefits. Punjab opted out in 2023 and reversed course after the Centre froze its funds.

    What is the deeper federalism concern?

    1. Curriculum autonomy: The memorandum asks States to implement all NEP provisions in their entirety. Kerala fears this narrows its freedom to design its own curriculum.
    2. Funding leverage: The Union government declared in 2022 that the Samagra Shiksha scheme’s objective was to help implement the NEP. Regular school funding is thereby tied to policy acceptance.
    3. Creeping intervention: Even without direct curriculum control now, the State fears future prescription of teaching materials and assessment patterns. Curriculum-based programme implementation could later be imposed.

    What are the challenges before the UDF government?

    1. Legal route risk: Following Tamil Nadu’s litigation path is available but slow. It offers no guarantee of releasing the frozen funds in time.
    2. Reputational cost: Writing to the Centre to demand curricular freedom exposes the government to the charge of letting the NEP enter Kerala by the back door. Its earlier opposition sharpens this criticism.
    3. Loss of funds: Refusing PM SHRI forfeits crucial federal education funding. A cash-strained State cannot easily absorb the shortfall.
    4. Precedent of coercion: The Punjab episode shows the Centre freezes funds to force compliance. The leverage limits how far any State can resist.

    Conclusion

    The dispute reflects how conditional central funding narrows a State’s room to hold an independent education stance. The UDF loses either way: implementing PM SHRI concedes its NEP opposition, while refusing forfeits over Rs 1,158 crore. The resolution rests on whether cooperative federalism can separate routine school funding from acceptance of a contested national policy.

    Back2Basics

    PM Shri

    1. Full form: Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India, a centrally sponsored scheme to develop model schools aligned with the NEP 2020.
    2. Ministry: Ministry of Education, launched in 2022.
    3. Objective: Upgrade and strengthen selected existing schools run by Central, State, and local bodies into exemplar schools.
    4. Funding pattern: Shared between the Centre and States, contingent on a signed memorandum of understanding.
    5. Linked scheme: Samagra Shiksha is the umbrella school-education programme through which much of this funding is routed.

    The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:

    It replaces the 34-year-old 1986 policy with a focus on a 5+3+3+4 school structure, mother tongue instruction, and flexible higher education. You can read the official document on the Ministry of Education portal.

    School Education Changes

    1. 5+3+3+4 Design: Covers ages 3 to 18, broken into foundational (5 years), preparatory (3 years), middle (3 years), and secondary (4 years) stages.
    2. Language: Mother tongue or local language used as the medium of instruction until at least Grade 5, and ideally Grade 8.
    3. No Hard Separations: Mixing of science, arts, vocational crafts, and sports streams.
    4. Assessments: Focus on regular, competency-based testing instead of rote memory, with school exams in grades 3, 5, and 8.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2020] ‘Education is not an injunction, it is an effective and pervasive tool for all-round development of an individual and social transformation’. Examine the New Education Policy, 2020 (NEP, 2020) in light of the above statement.

    Linkage: UPSC has examined NEP 2020 as a tool for educational and social transformation. The article highlights the federal and implementation challenges of NEP 2020, especially when central funding is linked to policy adoption.

  • Parliamentary panel questions Meta and threatens Section 79 safe harbour

    Why in the News?

    The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Communications and Information Technology questioned Meta over the temporary removal of the Prime Minister’s Facebook post and warned of withdrawing safe harbour protection under Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.

    What is Section 79?

    • Grants safe harbour protection to intermediaries, shielding them from liability for third-party content.
    • Applies only if intermediaries:
      • Follow due diligence requirements.
      • Do not create or modify user content.
      • Comply with lawful government or court directions.

    Who is an Intermediary?

    • An entity that stores or transmits third-party content, such as Social media platforms, Internet Service Providers (ISPs), and Search engines
    • Hosts user-generated content without being its author.

    Key Findings

    • A Prime Ministerial Facebook post was temporarily restricted.
    • The Parliamentary Committee sought:
      • An explanation and audit trail from Meta.
      • Assurance against future recurrence.
    • The issue revived the debate on intermediary liability and platform accountability.

    Challenges

    • Withdrawal of safe harbour may encourage excessive content removal.
    • Risks chilling free speech and legitimate dissent.
    • Platforms cannot realistically pre-screen billions of posts.
    • Balancing accountability with freedom of expression remains difficult.

    Back2Basics

    • Information Technology Act, 2000: Governs cyber laws and intermediary liability in India.
    • IT Rules, 2021: Prescribe due diligence obligations for intermediaries.
    • Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015): Supreme Court held that content takedown under Section 79 generally requires a court order or government notification.

    [2017] In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?

    1. Service providers

    2. Data Centres

    3. Body corporate.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3.

  • New real-time national portal for organ transplants

    Why in the News?

    The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) has launched a real-time national portal and mobile application to streamline organ transplantation by creating a unified waiting list, enabling national swap donations, and improving transparency.

    Key Features

    • National Waiting List: Creates hospital, State, regional and national waiting lists.
    • Real-time Allocation: Enables transparent organ allocation across India.
    • National Swap Donor Pool: Matches incompatible donor-recipient pairs across the country.
    • Aadhaar-linked Organ Pledge: Links donor pledges with Aadhaar for better verification.
    • Outcome Tracking: Hospitals upload follow-up data to monitor transplant outcomes.

    How does the Portal Work?

    • Patients are registered by authorised transplant hospitals.
    • Allocation follows the sequence: Hospital → State → Regional → National pool.
    • Kidney Allocation: Donor hospital retains one kidney and sends the other to the nearest matching government hospital.
    • Supports super-urgent transplant requests through the portal.

    Significance

    • Improves transparency and equity in organ allocation.
    • Expands the pool for compatible donor matching.
    • Reduces dependence on manual coordination.
    • Creates a national transplant database for better monitoring.

    Challenges

    • Different States follow different organ allocation policies.
    • NOTTO cannot mandate uniform allocation rules.
    • Low deceased organ donation rates remain a major constraint.
    • Portal effectiveness depends on accurate hospital data entry.

    Back2Basics

    • NOTTO: National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation.
    • Parent Body: Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
    • Legal Basis: Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994 (THOTA).
    • Network: Works with Regional Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisations (ROTTOs) and State Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisations (SOTTOs).

    [2023] Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
    Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    [A] Both Statement-I and Statement-l are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

    [B] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-is not the correct explanation for Statement-l.

    [C] Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

    [D] Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-Il is correct.

  • Proof of life: reworking the law on delayed birth and death registration

    Why in the News?

    The Lok Sabha passed the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amending the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969. It requires a Judicial Magistrate’s order for registration of births or deaths delayed by more than two years.

    Key Provisions

    • Judicial Approval: Delayed registration beyond 2 years requires approval from a Judicial Magistrate.
    • Existing Process Retained: Delays up to 2 years continue to require approval from an Executive Magistrate.
    • Objective: Strengthen verification and prevent fraudulent birth or death registrations.

    Why was the Amendment Needed?

    • The 2023 amendment made the birth certificate the primary proof of date and place of birth for: School admissions, Passports, Aadhaar, Voter rolls, Driving licences, and Government jobs
    • Higher importance of birth certificates increased the risk of fraudulent registrations.

    Significance

    • Enhances authenticity of delayed registrations.
    • Supports reliable digital civil registration records.
    • Reduces misuse of birth certificates for identity fraud.

    Challenges

    • Judicial process may increase costs and delays for genuine applicants.
    • Remote and vulnerable populations may face greater difficulty.
    • Adds workload to the lower judiciary.
    • No clear evidence supporting the two-year threshold.

    Back2Basics

    • Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969: Makes registration of every birth and death compulsory.
    • Registrar General of India (RGI): Nodal authority under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
    • Concurrent List: Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on registration.
    • 2023 Amendment: Birth certificate became the primary document for proving date and place of birth.

    [2018] Consider the following statements:
    1.Aadhaar can be used as proof of citizenship and domicile.
    2.Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the issuing authority.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • The legal patchwork facing doxxing victims in India

    Why in the News?

    The online targeting of women protesters has highlighted the absence of a dedicated law against doxxing in India, forcing victims to rely on scattered legal provisions.

    What is Doxxing?

    • Doxxing is the unauthorised public disclosure of a person’s private or personal information online to harass, intimidate or threaten them.
    • It can lead to stalking, identity theft, threats and physical harm.

    Existing Legal Framework

    • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023: Provisions relating to stalking, criminal intimidation and harassment.
    • Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000: Covers privacy violations and unauthorised disclosure of personal information.
    • Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021: Prescribe due diligence obligations for online platforms and provide safe harbour protection.

    Challenges

    • No specific offence for doxxing under Indian law.
    • Delays in content removal and prosecution.
    • Difficulty in fixing platform liability due to safe harbour provisions.
    • Rising digital threats to privacy and safety.

    Prelims Facts

    • The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 governs the processing of personal digital data but does not specifically criminalise doxxing.
    • Safe Harbour under Section 79 of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 protects intermediaries from liability if they comply with due diligence requirements.

    [2024] Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

    (a) Article 15

    (b) Article 16

    (c) Article 19

    (d) Article 21