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  • The scientist who made ‘mangroves’ a buzzword

    Why in the News?

    World Mangrove Day was observed on July 26. The occasion also recalled the pioneering role of M.S. Swaminathan in promoting mangrove conservation through initiatives like the International Society for Mangrove Ecosystems (ISME), GLOMIS, and the fishbone canal method of restoration.

    Role of M.S. Swaminathan in mangrove conservation

    • As early as 1989, he advocated using mangroves for climate resilience in coastal areas.
    • Proposed developing salinity-tolerant crops (e.g., rice) using mangrove genes.
    • Played a key role in founding the International Society for Mangrove Ecosystems (ISME) in 1990, promoting global knowledge exchange.
    • Co-authored the Charter for Mangroves, which was later included in the World Charter for Nature (1992) by the UN.
    • Led Community-Based Restoration in India through the M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF).

    What is the ‘fishbone canal’ method? What are its advantages?

    The method mimics the natural branching pattern of rivers. It allows tidal waters to penetrate deep into degraded mangrove areas. Eg: In Tamil Nadu’s Pichavaram, fishbone canals revived previously stagnant mangrove zones, promoting natural seed dispersal.

    Advantages of the method

    1. Facilitates Natural Regeneration: By improving hydrology, it creates conditions suitable for natural mangrove seedling establishment without extensive manual planting. Eg: In Odisha’s Bhitarkanika, the method led to spontaneous growth of native mangrove species.
    2. Cost-Effective: Compared to large-scale planting, this method is less resource-intensive 
    3. It preserves ecosystem integrity.

    How have global and national initiatives reshaped mangrove management?

    • Shift Towards Community-Based Conservation: Focus has moved from government-led to community-driven models, recognising local knowledge and stakeholder participation. Eg: Eg: Sundarbans’ Joint Forest Committees empower villagers in conservation.
    • Integration with Climate Resilience Strategies: Mangroves are now seen as vital for disaster risk reduction and carbon sequestration. Eg: Indonesia’s “Mangroves for Coastal Resilience” project links mangrove conservation with coastal protection and blue carbon goals.
    • Technological Interventions and Scientific Planning: Use of GIS mapping, remote sensing, and hydrological modelling has made restoration more precise and scalable. Eg: In Andhra Pradesh, the Integrated Coastal Zone Management Project used satellite data to identify degraded mangrove areas for targeted restoration.

    How did India’s mangrove policy evolve post-1980 ?

    • CRZ Inclusion (1991): Mangroves declared ecologically sensitive under CRZ Rules, restricting commercial activity.
    • Post-Tsunami Shift (2004): Indian Ocean Tsunami highlighted mangroves as bio-shields, leading to their inclusion in disaster risk and coastal zone policies.
    • Boost in Support (Post-2005): Initiatives like the National Coastal Mission and remote sensing-based mapping promoted monitoring and restoration.

    What are ISME and GLOMIS?

    • ISME (International Society for Mangrove Ecosystems) is a global non-profit organization founded in 1990 to promote the conservation, restoration, and sustainable use of mangrove ecosystems through research, training, and international cooperation. It also offers technical support and capacity building for sustainable mangrove management.
    • GLOMIS (Global Mangrove Database and Information System), developed by ISME, is a centralized database that provides scientific data, GIS mapping, and case studies to support effective mangrove management and policymaking worldwide. GLOMIS serves as a database for mangrove species, restoration efforts, and GIS data.

    Way forward: 

    • Strengthen Community-Based Restoration: Empower local communities through training, sustainable livelihood support, and participation in restoration using techniques like the ‘fishbone canal’ method for greater ecological success.
    • Leverage Technology and Global Networks: Use remote sensing, GIS, and platforms like GLOMIS for monitoring mangrove health, while collaborating with international bodies like ISME to adopt best global practices.

    Mains PYQ:

    [UPSC 2019] Discuss the causes of depletion of mangroves and explain their importance in maintaining coastal ecology.

    Linkage: This question is directly and explicitly about mangroves, focusing on two key aspects: their depletion and their importance in maintaining coastal ecology. The fact that such a detailed question appeared in the examination signifies the recognized environmental importance and public awareness surrounding mangroves. A scientist’s work to popularize mangroves would logically contribute to this level of public and academic interest.

  • [pib] Lokpal of India

    Why in the News?

    The Lokpal of India, India’s central anti-corruption ombudsman, is moving forward to fill 81 approved posts on a deputation basis.

    Historical Context of the Lokpal:

    • Initial Proposal (1966): First proposed by the First Administrative Reforms Commission to tackle high-level corruption.
    • Legislative Failures (1971–2008): Multiple Lokpal Bills introduced in Parliament but none were passed.
    • Jan Lokpal Movement (2011): Nationwide agitation led by Anna Hazare demanded a powerful and independent anti-corruption body, catalyzing public and political support.
    • Enactment of Law (2013): The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in 2013, providing for:
      • A Lokpal at the central level.
      • Lokayuktas in states.
    • Formal Establishment (2014): Lokpal of India was notified on January 16, 2014 under Section 3 of the Act.
    • Initial Functioning: Operated with encadred staff (mostly Central Secretariat Service); became functionally active only in 2019.
    • Organisational Restructuring (2024):
      • Due to rising complaints and staffing gaps, a new Organogram was approved in August–September 2024.
      • The Full Bench of Lokpal, using powers under Section 34, sanctioned 81 deputation posts.
      • These are stop-gap until regular recruitment begins under the upcoming Service Regulations, 2024.

    About Lokpal [vs. Lokayukta, A Comparative Overview]:

    Lokpal (Central) Lokayukta (State)
    Legal Basis Established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 Also mandated under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (Section 63); specifics vary by state
    Jurisdiction Covers central public servants, including the Prime Minister (with some exceptions), Ministers, MPs, and officials in Groups A–D Handles cases involving state public servants, such as Chief Ministers, Ministers, MLAs, and state officials
    Appointment Appointed by the President based on recommendations of a Selection Committee (PM, LoP, CJI, jurist) Appointed by the Governor; appointment process defined by state legislation
    Composition Chairperson (former CJI/SC judge/eminent person) + up to 8 members (50% from SC/ST/OBC/Women/Minorities) Composition varies by state; usually includes a Chairperson and members with similar qualifications
    Tenure 5 years or until the age of 70, whichever is earlier Defined by respective state laws
    Salary & Removal Chairperson = salary of CJI;

    Members = salary of SC Judges;

    Removal by President after SC inquiry

    Modelled on Lokpal Act; removal by Governor based on state-specific processes
    Powers
    • Investigates corruption under Prevention of Corruption Act
    • Can confiscate illegal assets
    • Can refer cases to CBI
    • Jurisdiction over NGOs receiving significant foreign or govt. funds
    • Submits reports to President, tabled in Parliament
    • Investigates under state anti-corruption laws
    • Can recommend prosecution/disciplinary actions
    • Handles complaints related to state schemes, contracts
    • Submits reports to Governor, tabled in State Legislature
    Recent Institutional Reform
    • In 2024, Lokpal approved a new Organogram and framed Service Regulations, 2024 for structured staffing.
    • As a stopgap, 81 posts are being filled via deputation.
    Varies across states; no uniform push for staff standardization as seen at the central level.

     

    [UPSC 2025] Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

    I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Options: (a) III only* (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) None of the above statements is correct

    [2013] ‘A national Lokpal, however strong it may be, cannot resolve the problems of immorality in public affairs’. Discuss.

     

  • [pib] PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY)

    Why in the News?

    The Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme has been officially launched as the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY), effective from 1st August 2025.

    About PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY):

    • Objective: Promote formal employment and inclusive job creation.
    • Outlay: ₹99,446 crore (Aug 2025 – July 2027).
    • Aim:  3.5 crore new jobs, including 1.92 crore first-time entrants into the workforce.
    • Focus: Expanding EPFO coverage and supporting Viksit Bharat vision.
    • Sectoral Coverage: Open to all sectors, with special focus on manufacturing for long-term growth.

    PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY)

    Key Features:

    1. Incentives for Employees
      • Eligible: First-time EPFO-registered workers earning ≤ ₹1 lakh/month.
      • Benefit: 1-month EPF wage (max ₹15,000) in two parts — after 6 and 12 months.
      • Condition: Completion of a financial literacy programme; Part of the amount is locked in a savings scheme.
    1. Incentives for Employers
      • Applies to: New hires with salary ≤ ₹1 lakh/month.
      • Minimum hires: 2 (if firm <50 employees), 5 (if ≥50).
    • Incentive per employee/month:
      • ₹1,000 (wages ≤ ₹10,000)
      • ₹2,000 (₹10,001–₹20,000)
      • ₹3,000 (₹20,001–₹1 lakh)
    • Manufacturing sector: Extended benefits for 3rd & 4th years.
    1. Payment Mechanism
    • To employees: Direct Benefit Transfer via Aadhaar-based system.
    • To employers: Paid to PAN-linked bank accounts.
    [UPSC 2024] With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

    1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years

    2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary

    3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years

    4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters

    Options: (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3* (c) 2 only (d) 1,2 and 4

     

  • Ramsar COP15 opens in Zimbabwe

    Why in the News?

    Delegates from 172 countries convened in Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe, for the 15th Meeting of the Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP15) to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.

    Highlights of Ramsar COP15

    • Theme: Protecting Wetlands for Our Common Future
    • Host Nation: Zimbabwe (holds presidency of the Ramsar Convention for 3 years)
    • Expected Outcome: Adoption of the Victoria Falls Declaration, a global framework to protect wetlands

    About the Ramsar Convention:

    • Adopted on: 2 February 1971, in Ramsar, Iran.
    • Objective: Conserve and ensure the wise use of wetlands globally.
    • Key Functions:
      • Identify wetlands of international importance.
      • Promote sustainable management practices.
      • Foster international cooperation in wetland conservation.
    • Governing Body:
      • Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP) meets every 3 years.
      • Reviews implementation, adopts site designations, budgets, and policy actions.
      • Includes member + non-member states, IGOs, and NGOs as observers.

    Criteria for Ramsar Site Designation:

    A wetland must meet at least one of the following 9 criteria:

    1. Unique or rare wetland type.
    2. Habitat for endangered, vulnerable, or endemic species.
    3. Crucial for migratory waterbirds.
    4. High ecological, hydrological, or biodiversity value.
    5. Supports ecosystem services (e.g., flood control, water purification).
    6. Provides cultural or spiritual value.
    7. Serves sustainable community livelihoods.
    8. Holds scientific or educational importance.
    9. Requires global cooperation due to threats.

    India and the Ramsar Convention:

    • Joined on: 1 February 1982.
    • First Ramsar Site: Chilika Lake (Odisha), 1981.
    • As of July 2025:
      • Total sites: 91
      • Total area: ~13.58 lakh hectares
      • % of India’s wetland area under Ramsar: ~10%
    • Top States: Tamil Nadu: 20 sites (highest); Uttar Pradesh: 10 sites
    • Note: India has never chaired a Ramsar COP session.

    Global Snapshot and Other Facts:

    • Total Members: 171 countries.
    • Leading Countries:
      • United Kingdom: 175 sites (most)
      • Mexico: 142 sites
      • Bolivia: Largest area (~1.48 lakh sq. km under protection)
    • World Wetlands Day: Celebrated on 2 February annually.
    • Montreux Record: Register for Ramsar sites under serious threat needing urgent conservation.
    [UPSC 2019] Consider the following statements:

    1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.

    2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.

    3. These Rules also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only* (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

  • 150 years of Jim Corbett

    Why in the News?

    As India marks Jim Corbett’s 150th birth anniversary (1875–2025), it reflects on his legacy as a hunter, naturalist, author, and conservationist—after whom Corbett National Park is named.

    https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/150-years-of-jim-corbett-will-the-real-carpet-sahib-please-stand-up 

    Who was Jim Corbett?

    • Full Name: Edward James Corbett (1875–1955), nicknamed Carpet Sahib in Kumaon.
    • Profession: British hunter, naturalist, author, and later a wildlife conservationist.
    • Famous Books: Man-Eaters of Kumaon, The Man-Eating Leopard of Rudraprayag, My India, Jungle Lore, Tree Tops.
    • Hunter Turned Hero:
      • Known for tracking and killing man-eating tigers and leopards in Kumaon and Garhwal.
      • Used patient observation and deep knowledge of terrain and animal behaviour.
    • Shift to Conservation:
      • Grew concerned about dwindling tiger numbers and deforestation.
      • Advocated for wildlife protection and ecological balance.
    • Commemoration: India’s first national park was renamed Jim Corbett National Park in 1957 in his honour.

    Back2Basics: Jim Corbett National Park

    • Established: 1936 as Hailey National Park; later renamed in 1957.
    • Location: Nainital district, Uttarakhand; core of Corbett Tiger Reserve.
    • Historical Importance:
      • Launch site of Project Tiger in 1973, India’s flagship tiger conservation programme.
    • Geography:
      • Lies in Shivalik and Outer Himalayan foothills.
      • Rivers: Ramganga, Sonanadi, Mandal, Palain, and Kosi.
      • Area: Over 500 sq km (includes Sonanadi Wildlife Sanctuary as buffer).
    • Biodiversity:
      • Flora: Moist deciduous forest with Sal, Khair, and Sissoo; 600+ plant species.
      • Fauna: Over 230 tigers (highest density in the world), elephants, leopards, deer (sambar, chital, barking), sloth bears, wild boars, birds, and reptiles.

     

    [UPSC 2013] Consider the following pairs : National Park River flowing through the Park

    1. Corbett National Park : Ganga

    2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas

    3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) None*

     

  • UAV Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM)-V3

    Why in the News?

    DRDO has successfully test-fired the UAV-Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM)-V3.

    UAV Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM)-V3

    About ULPGM-V3:

    • Overview: It is a fire-and-forget air-to-surface missile developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
    • Variants: It is an upgraded version of V1 and V2, with improved range, autonomy, and targeting precision.
    • Development: Collaboration by Adani Defence, Bharat Dynamics, Newspace Research Technologies, and over 30 Indian MSMEs/startups.

    Key Features:

    • Weight: 12.5 kg
    • Range: 10 km (day), 2.5 km (night)
    • Accuracy: Passive homing infrared with HD dual-channel accuracy (~10 cm)
    • Warhead Options: Anti-armour, penetration-cum-blast, pre-fragmentation
    • Guidance: Fully autonomous with two-way datalink for mid-course updates
    • Environment: Operates in plains and high-altitude regions, day and night
    [UPSC 2025] With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

    I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None *

     

  • [25th July 2025] The Hindu Op-ed: The India-U.K. FTA spells a poor deal for public health

    PYQ Relevance:

    [UPSC 2024] In a crucial domain like the public healthcare system, the Indian State should play a vital role to contain the adverse impact of marketisation of the system. Suggest some measures through which the State can enhance the reach of public health care at the grassroots level.

    Linkage: The article highlights how tariff-free entry of HFSS products leads to “lower prices” and “aggressive marketing,” posing “grave long-term health risks”. The question’s call for the Indian State to play a “vital role to contain the adverse impact” and suggest measures aligns perfectly in the article’s advocacy for “strong measures to regulate the advertising of HFSS” and “mandatory FOPNL” to protect public health.

     

    Mentor’s Comment:  India and the United Kingdom signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) on July 24, 2025, during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to the UK. While the deal promises economic benefits, it has triggered serious public health concerns due to the likely surge of tariff-free imports of unhealthy, ultra-processed food products from the UK into India.

    Today’s editorial analyses the recently signed Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between India and the United Kingdom. This topic is important for GS Paper II (International Relations) in the UPSC mains exam.

    _

    Let’s learn!

    Why in the News?

    India and the United Kingdom recently signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) to boost bilateral trade, reduce tariffs, enhance market access, and strengthen economic and strategic ties between both nations.

    What are the key provisions of the India–UK FTA?

    • Tariff Reductions on Goods: Reduction or elimination of customs duties on products like textiles, leather, and machinery from India and premium liquor, automobiles, and pharma from the UK.
    • Services Sector Access: Easier market access for Indian professionals (e.g., IT experts, nurses, yoga instructors) and UK financial, legal, and education services.
    • Investment and Regulatory Cooperation: Investor protection clauses and liberalised FDI norms to encourage bilateral investments with predictable regulatory environments.
    • Digital Trade and Intellectual Property Rights: Provisions for secure cross-border data flows, IPR enforcement, and e-commerce facilitation, supporting startups and tech trade.
    • Labour Mobility and Social Security Coordination: Allows short-term professionals to avoid double social security payments, benefiting workers on temporary assignments.

    Why has the FTA triggered health concerns in India?

    • Stricter Intellectual Property (IP) Provisions: The UK is pushing for TRIPS-plus measures such as patent term extensions and data exclusivity, which could delay the entry of generic medicines in India. Eg: Cancer or HIV patients in India may face delayed access to affordable generics if extended patents block local production.
    • Threat to Domestic Pharma Industry: Indian generic manufacturers fear reduced competitiveness due to stricter IP norms, which may raise medicine costs and affect public health schemes. Eg: India’s role as the “pharmacy of the Global South” may weaken, affecting exports to Africa and Latin America.
    • Limited Access to Government Procurement: If the FTA includes government procurement commitments, it may restrict India’s ability to prioritise domestic firmsfor health supplies under public schemes. Eg: Public procurement for schemes like Jan Aushadhi may face restrictions, impacting affordable medicine distribution.

    How does Mexico’s NAFTA experience inform India’s approach to FTAs?

    • Uneven Gains Across Sectors: NAFTA boosted Mexico’s manufacturing exports, especially to the US, but agriculture suffered due to competition from heavily subsidised US farms, displacing small farmers. Eg: India should protect its small-scale agriculture and MSMEs in FTAs to avoid rural distress and job losses.
    • Job Creation Without Security: While NAFTA generated employment in export-driven industries, these jobs were often low-paid, lacked labour rights, and offered poor working conditions. Eg: India must ensure FTAs include labour safeguards and social protection for workers, especially in textiles and electronics.
    • Weak Domestic Supply Chains: Mexico became heavily dependent on foreign inputs and technologies, undermining local value chains and domestic innovation. Eg: India should strengthen its Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat efforts by ensuring technology transfer and local sourcing mandates in FTAs.

    What are the regulatory differences between India and the UK on unhealthy food products?

    Aspect India United Kingdom (UK)
    Front-of-Pack Labelling Voluntary system; no mandatory warning labels for high fat/sugar/salt Mandatory traffic light system highlighting fat, sugar, and salt levels
    Advertising to Children Limited restrictions; junk food often advertised during kids’ content Strict regulations on TV and online adstargeting children for junk food
    Nutritional Standards in Schools No uniform enforcement across states; junk food in/near schools persists Banned sale of sugary drinks and high-fat snacks in school premises

    Why is Front-of-Pack Nutrition Labelling (FOPNL) important post-FTA?

    • Protects Public Health from Imported Junk Food: With the FTA, imports of ultra-processed and unhealthy foods may rise. FOPNL provides clear warnings (e.g., high in sugar, fat, salt) to help consumers make healthier choices. Eg: Chile introduced warning labels, leading to a drop in sugary drink sales by 25%.
    • Empowers Consumers with Informed Choices: Indian consumers often lack nutritional awareness. FOPNL enables them to understand the health risks of packaged foods at a glance, regardless of foreign branding or marketing. Eg: In Brazil, FOPNL helped rural consumers avoid misleading “natural” claims on unhealthy imported snacks.
    • Counters Aggressive Marketing by Foreign Brands: Post-FTA, multinational food companies may flood the Indian market with aggressive marketing. FOPNL acts as a visual deterrent, discouraging overconsumption, especially among children. Eg: In Mexico, FOPNL helped reduce the purchase of snacks targeted at children despite flashy packaging.

    Way forward: 

    • Implement Mandatory Front-of-Pack Labelling (FOPNL): The Indian government should finalize and enforce strong, interpretive FOPNL regulations (like warning labels) based on WHO guidelines to help consumers easily identify foods high in salt, sugar, and fat.
    • Strengthen Domestic Food Standards and Surveillance: Ensure alignment between imported and domestic food safety regulations, backed by robust monitoring by FSSAI. This will prevent imported unhealthy products from bypassing scrutiny and harming public health.
  • Clean house: On India’s septic tank desludging

    Why in the News?

    Recently, a social audit tabled in Parliament revealed 150 hazardous cleaning deaths in 2022–23, exposing unsafe outsourcing, poor implementation of safety laws, and inadequate funding under schemes like NAMASTE. Despite Supreme Court orders and successful models in states like Odisha and Tamil Nadu, enforcement and mechanisation remain critically lacking nationwide.

    Why has manual scavenging persisted despite laws and schemes like NAMASTE?

    • Weak Enforcement of Legal Provisions and Court Orders: Despite the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 and Supreme Court directions to cancel offending contracts and penalise principal employers, enforcement remains minimal. Eg: In 2024, Parliament revealed that 150 workers died in 2022–23 due to hazardous cleaning.
    • Poor Implementation and Underfunding of Schemes: Schemes like NAMASTE are hindered by insufficient financial support, poor outreach, and lack of protective equipment or training. Eg: Of the 57,758 workers involved in hazardous cleaning, only 16,791 received PPE kits, and a mere ₹14 crore had been released under NAMASTE—inadequate for mechanisation in even one major city.
    • Obscured Employer Liability through Subcontracting: The use of contractual and ‘loaned’ labour allows government and private employers to avoid responsibility for worker safety. Eg: A social audit tabled in Parliament found that out of 54 hazardous cleaning deaths, only five workers were on government payroll, while others were ‘loaned’ to private contractors, making accountability unclear.

    How have Odisha and Tamil Nadu offered viable alternatives to manual scavenging?

    • Odisha has ensured identified sanitation workers are equipped with PPE kits and have access to mechanised desludging vehicles, reducing the need for manual entry.
      Eg: Workers now use vacuum trucks for sewer cleaning instead of entering toxic manholes, improving safety and dignity.
    • Tamil Nadu has piloted robotic interventions to eliminate manual scavenging in urban areas.
      Eg: In Chennai, sewer robots have been deployed to clean over 5,000 manholes, showcasing how technology and political will can prevent hazardous practices.

    How does the lack of rural data hinder sanitation worker reforms?

    • Exclusion from Mechanisation Schemes: Without reliable data on rural sanitation workers, schemes like NAMASTE do not extend their benefits (e.g. robotic cleaning or desludging machines) to villages. Eg: In many gram panchayats of Bihar, manual pit cleaning is still done without equipment as workers remain unregistered and thus unaccounted for in policy rollouts.
    • No Health or Safety Monitoring: The lack of worker enumeration means occupational health risks go unnoticed, and safety training or PPE kitsare not distributed in rural regions. Eg: In Chhattisgarh’s rural blocks, no health cards or protective equipment have been distributed to sanitation workers, exposing them to toxic gases and infections.
    • Obstructs Legal Accountability and Compensation: If workers are not documented, accidental deaths are often unreported or misclassified, preventing compensation to families and accountability for employers. Eg: In a 2023 case in Madhya Pradesh, a worker died while cleaning a septic tank, but due to lack of registration, the case was recorded as a general accident, not as a violation of the Manual Scavenging Act.

    What are the steps taken by the Indian Government?

    • Legislation and Legal Ban: The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 bans manual scavenging and mandates identification and rehabilitation of affected workers.
    • NAMASTE Scheme (2023): The National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) scheme promotes mechanised cleaning, provides training, PPE kits, and financial support to sanitation workers.
    • Welfare and Skill Development Initiatives: The government has launched surveys, provided one-time cash assistance, health insurance under Ayushman Bharat, and livelihood loans to support entrepreneurship among workers.

    What reforms can ensure safety and rehabilitation for workers?

    • Mandatory Mechanisation and Licensing: Urban local bodies should mandate mechanised sewer cleaning, make it a licensed profession, and classify manual cleaning without valid certification as a cognisable offence. This will ensure accountability and eliminate unsafe practices.
    • Rehabilitation Through Financial and Social Support: Provide sanitation workers with housing, education scholarships, health cards, and loans to operate mechanised equipment. These should be linked to guaranteed municipal contracts, enabling long-term economic and social upliftment.

    Mains PYQ:

    [UPSC 2024] Poverty and malnutrition create a vicious cycle, adversely affecting human capital formation. What steps can be taken to break the cycle?

    Linkage: Manual scavenging represents an extreme form of poverty and human capital degradation. This article mentions that “Two-thirds of validated workers are also Dalits, yet rehabilitation packages rarely include housing or scholarships that might help families exit contemptible occupations”. This question allows for a discussion of how ending such hazardous labor and providing meaningful rehabilitation can break this vicious cycle.

  • Decoding ECI’s counter affidavit on SIR

    Why in the News?

    Recently, the Election Commission of India (ECI) filed a counter-affidavit in the Supreme Court defending the constitutionality of the citizenship verification process being carried out as part of the voter list revision in the Bihar Special Intensive Revision (SIR) exercise.

    What is the legal basis for the SIR exercise in Bihar?

    • Article 326 of the Constitution: It states that every citizen of India shall be entitled to be registered as a voter. The ECI invokes this to justify verifying citizenship before including names in the electoral rolls.
    • Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950: This section empowers the Election Commission to prepare and revise electoral rolls under its “superintendence, direction and control.”
    • Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950: It allows the ECI to order a “special revision” of electoral rolls for specific constituencies. However, the term “intensive” is not mentioned in the Act, making the legal foundation of SIR somewhat vague.
    • Registration of Electors Rules, 1960: The 1987 amendment introduced the concept of “intensive” and “summary” revisions, but did not define or elaborate the legal modality for intensive revisions, including SIR.

    Why is the demand for citizenship proof for existing voters controversial?

    • Burden shifts to already registered voters: The SIR process forces existing electors—who were added through due process—to resubmit proof of citizenship, treating them with suspicion. Eg: A voter registered in 2010 using valid documents must now provide fresh documents, despite no change in their status.
    • Lack of evidence for illegal migrants in voter rolls: The ECI affidavit does not provide data on the presence of foreign nationals or illegal migrants in electoral rolls, especially in Bihar, weakening the justification for a blanket citizenship test. Eg: Over 600 pages of complaints attached to ECI’s affidavit did not cite any case of foreigner inclusion in Bihar’s voter list.
    • No legal rule for asking voters to prove citizenship: The Representation of the People Act, 1950 does not require voters to give proof of citizenship. There are already legal ways to remove non-citizens from the voter list if someone complains with proof. So, asking all voters to show documents again is unnecessary and legally doubtful.

    How is SIR similar to or different from the Assam NRC?

    • Similarities:
      • Both involve citizenship verification based on documentary evidence.
      • Both processes have significant exclusion risks and logistical challenges.
      • The CAA 2003-based criteria used in NRC Assam are being replicated in Bihar SIR (e.g., birth dates of voters and parents).
    • Differences:
      • The NRC in Assam was conducted under the supervision of the Supreme Court, based on a specific clause in the Assam Accord.
      • The SIR in Bihar is being conducted by the ECI independently, without a similar legal precedent or court mandate.
      • NRC was formally initiated by the Registrar General of India, which has not happened for a nationwide NRC; SIR lacks such authority.

    What is the 2003 electoral roll?

    • The 2003 electoral roll as a baseline refers to the Election Commission of India’s (ECI) decision during the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) 2025 to treat the voter list prepared in 2003 as a reference point for proving citizenship and voter eligibility.
    • In simple terms: If a person’s name was already included in the 2003 electoral roll, or if they are a child of someone listed in that roll, they are not required to submit additional documents to prove their citizenship during the current revision process.

    What are the implications of using the 2003 electoral roll as a baseline?

    • Creates legal inconsistency: Prioritising the 2003 electoral roll over rolls from the last two decades undermines the validity of later voter lists, creating legal confusion and questions of equal treatment for all voters.
    • Lacks evidence of reliability: The ECI affidavit does not provide proof that the 2003 SIR involved thorough citizenship verification. Without such evidence, treating the 2003 roll as more authentic is unjustified.
    • Grants unequal advantage: Voters listed in 2003 and their children are exempted from submitting documents, while others must provide multiple proofs, leading to discrimination and inequity in the revision process.

    Why are documents like Aadhaar and ration cards being rejected in the SIR process?

    • Aadhaar not considered proof of citizenship: The ECI argues that while Aadhaar can confirm identity and residence, it does not prove Indian citizenship.
    • Ration cards seen as forgery-prone: The ECI claims that many fake ration cards exist and hence rejects them as valid proof.

    Way forward: 

    • Adopt a targeted verification approach: Instead of a blanket citizenship test for all voters, the ECI should focus on specific complaints supported by evidence, using existing legal mechanisms to identify and remove ineligible voters. This ensures efficiency, legal compliance, and avoids harassment of genuine voters.
    • Accept a broader range of documents with safeguards: The ECI should allow widely held documents like Aadhaar and ration cards as supporting evidence, along with robust verification procedures to detect forgeries. This promotes inclusivity, especially for marginalised groups, while maintaining the integrity of the electoral rolls.

    Mains PYQ:

    [UPSC 2024] Examine the need for electoral reforms as suggested by various committees with particular reference to “one nation-one election” principle.

    Linkage: The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) exercise, which is the subject of the ECI’s counter affidavit, is presented as an effort to refine electoral rolls, inherently linking it to the broader discourse on electoral reforms in India. The article critically evaluates the ECI’s rationale and legal arguments for undertaking such an intensive revision, which the ECI seems to position as a measure to address typical defects like duplication and non-deletion, and implicitly, to ensure the integrity of the voter list.

     

  • Extension of President’s Rule in Manipur

    Why in the News?

    Home Minister is set to move a statutory resolution in the Rajya Sabha to extend President’s Rule in Manipur by another 6 months.

    What is President’s Rule?

    • Overview: It refers to the suspension of a state’s constitutional machinery, placing the state under direct control of the Union Government.
    • It is also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency.
    • Constitutional Basis:
      • Article 355: Obligates the Union to ensure that governance in every state is in accordance with the Constitution.
      • Article 356(1): Allows the President to assume control of a state’s executive if the Governor reports a constitutional breakdown or the President independently concludes so.
      • Article 365: Deems a state’s failure to comply with Union directions as a failure of constitutional machinery.

    Duration and Extension of President’s Rule:

    • Initial duration: Valid for 6 months from the date of proclamation.
    • Extensions: Can be extended every six months, subject to parliamentary approval, for a maximum of 3 years.
    • Parliamentary Approval (Article 356(3)):
      • Must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months.
      • Requires a simple majority (members present and voting).
    • Beyond 1 Year: Allowed only if:
      • A National Emergency (Article 352) is in operation in the whole or part of the state.
      • The Election Commission of India certifies that elections to the Legislative Assembly cannot be held.
    • Beyond 3 Years: Requires a constitutional amendment (e.g., 67th and 68th Amendments extended President’s Rule in Punjab).

    Implications of President’s Rule on a State:

    • Executive Powers (Article 356(1)(a)):
      • The President assumes functions of the state government via the Governor.
      • Administration is carried out by the Governor, with support from the Chief Secretary and advisors.
    • Legislative Powers (Article 356(1)(b)):
      • The Legislative Assembly is either suspended or dissolved.
      • Legislative powers are exercised by Parliament or delegated to the President.
    • Financial Powers (Article 356(1)(c)):
      • The President may authorize expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State pending Parliament’s approval (under Article 206 and Article 357).

    Revocation:

    • President’s Rule can be revoked at any time by the President under Article 356(2).
    • No parliamentary approval is required for revocation.

    Supreme Court Judgments related to it:

    • S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994):
      • President’s Rule is subject to judicial review.
      • A floor test is the proper method to prove majority.
      • The Governor’s report alone is not sufficient for justification.
    • Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005): Widened the scope of Article 355 for preventive action by the Union.
    • Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006):
      • Dissolution of Bihar Assembly was declared unconstitutional.
      • Use of Article 356 to prevent political defections was struck down.

    Key Reforms/Recommendations:

    • Sarkaria Commission (1987): President’s Rule should be used only as a last resort after exploring all other options.
    • Punchhi Commission (2010): Proposed localized emergency provisions for specific districts or regions instead of the entire state.
    • National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000):
      • Article 356 should remain but be used sparingly.
      • Suggested amendments to allow its use without National Emergency if elections cannot be held.
    [UPSC 2018] If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

    Options: (a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

    (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

    (c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.

    (d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

     

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