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  • MCQ Maze 15

    Q1. Consider the following statements about the River Information System (RIS) launched by the Union government:

    1. RIS shall be implemented by Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change.
    2. Its first phase shall cover a stretch along the Brahmaputra River.
    3. The main aim of the system is to provide the flood forecast.

    Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) None

    Q2. Which of the following is/are not among the member countries of the Trans-Pacific Partnership Agreement?

    1. Mexico
    2. Chile
    3. Argentina
    4. China
    5. Japan
    6. Singapore

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below:

    (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6
    (b) 3 and 4
    (c) 3, 4, 5 and 6
    (d) 1, 3 and 4

    Q3. Scientists from National University of Singapore have succeeded in converting paper waste into green cellulose aerogels. What are the possible applications of these ‘green aerogels’?

    1. They can be used in cleaning oil spills.
    2. They can serve as heat insulation materials for buildings.
    3. They can be used for making biodegradable packaging material.

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 2 and 3 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Q4. Which of the following are among the pollutants whose concentration is monitored under National Air Quality Index?

    1. Carbon Dioxide
    2. Nitrogen Dioxide
    3. Surface Ozone
    4. Carbon Monoxide
    5. Sulphur Dioxide

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below:

    (a) 1 and 3
    (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
    (c) 2, 4 and 5
    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Q5. Consider the following statements:
    1. ARIES is the Asia’s largest optical telescope developed through a collaboration of India and Russia.
    2. It is located in Ladakh.

    Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    _____

  • Query

    Can’t read news on sunday? any problem?

  • Solutions to Maze 11 to 14

    Find the solution pdf below:

    https://drive.google.com/file/d/0BxdqUlW1zhMsMzBkbE4xQzVHNUE/view

    Maze 15 tomorrow.

  • MCQ Maze 14

    Q1. Consider the following statements about ‘Bank Mitras’:

    1. They are Self Help groups which act as agents of banks in ‘un-banked’ areas.
    2. They identify the potential customers and help them open their bank accounts.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q2. Nitrogen fixation is an important method by which atmospheric nitrogen enters into the terrestrial environment. Which of the following is/are among the processes that lead to fixation of atmospheric nitrogen?

    1. Volcanic explosions
    2. Lightning
    3. Microbial action

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Q3. Who of the following is credited with popularising the slogan of “Satyameva Jayate’ which was later adopted as the national motto?

    (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

    (b) Lal Bahadur Shashtri

    (c) Sardar Ballabhbhai Patel

    (d) Madan Mohan Malaviya

    Q4. With reference to the global climate change, what is ‘carbon budget’?

    (a) It is sum of all exchanges (inflow and outflows) of carbon compounds by a country

    (b) It is the estimated amount of carbon dioxide the world can emit still having a likely chance of limiting global temperature rise to 2°C above pre-industrial levels.

    (c) It is the amount of carbon dioxide that an individual country can still emit as per the quota agreed at CoP-21

    (d) It is the amount of carbon dioxide that the world has emitted into the atmosphere since the beginning of industrial revolution.

    Q5. Consider the following statements about the Advanced Air Defence (AAD) missile:

    1. AAD is an indigenously developed interceptor missile.
    2. It has been developed by DRDO in collaboration with ISRO.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q6. Consider the following statements:

    1. Biodiversity decreases from Eastern Himalayas towards the Western Himalayas.
    2. Biodiversity increases from poles towards the equator.

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 only
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q7. Which of the following activities is/are completely prohibited in the Eco Sensitive Zones?

    1. Felling of trees
    2. Establishment of Hotels and Resorts
    3. Rain water harvesting

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 3 only

    (c) 2 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Q8. Consider the following statements:

    1. No bill restricting inter-state trade can be introduced in a state legislature without previous sanction of the Governor.
    2. The Governor may reserve any bill, except a money bill, for the consideration of the President.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q9. The Plate Tectonic Theory is based on the concept of

    1. Sea Floor Spreading

    2. Continental Drift

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2 only

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q10. ‘Aditya-1’ is the proposed

    (a) supercomputer built completely using the indigenous technology

    (b) mission to the sun to study the solar storms

    (c) weather forecasting satellite in collaboration with France

    (d) fleet of indigenously built war ships

    ____

  • [E&B Bodies #3] Central Zoo Authority


     

    • Central Zoo Authority is an autonomous statutory body
    • It regulates the functioning of zoos
    • It has been constituted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act
    • Organisation: The Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary
    • Main objective: To complement the national effort in conservation of wild life

    Recognition of Zoo Rules, 1992:

    • Standards and norms for housing, upkeep, health care and overall management of animals in zoos
    • Every zoo in the country is required to obtain recognition from the Authority for its operation
    • The Authority evaluates the zoos with reference to the parameters prescribed under the Rules and grants recognition accordingly
    • Zoos which have no potential to come up to the prescribed standards and norms may be refused recognition and asked to close down

    Roles & Functions:

    • The Authority’s role is more of a facilitator than a regulator
    • It, therefore, provides technical and financial assistance to such zoos which have the potential to attain the desired standard in animal management
    • Primary function– grant of recognition and release of financial assistance
    • It also regulates the exchange of animals of endangered category Listed under Schedule-I and II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act among zoos
    • Exchange of animals between Indian and foreign zoos is also approved by the Authority before the requisite clearances under EXIM Policy and the CITES permits are issued by the competent authority
    • The Authority also coordinates and implements programmes on capacity building of zoo personnel, planned breeding programmes and ex-situ research including biotechnological intervention for conservation of species for complementing in-situ conservation efforts in the country

    Some major initiatives:

    • Establishment of Laboratory for Conservation of Endangered Species at Hyderabad for carrying out research in biotechnology, planned breeding of Red Panda and its restocking into the wild
    • Upgradation of diagnostic facilities for disease diagnosis at selected veterinary institutions and their networking with zoos on regional basis for better health care of animals

    Published with inputs from Swapnil
  • [E&B Bodies #2] Animal Welfare Board of India


     

    • The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country
    • It is the first of its kind to be established by any Government in the world
    • Established: 1962
    • Under: Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
    • Headquarter: Chennai
    • It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, a well-known humanitarian. <Can you tell us more about Rukmini Devi Arundale? Especially about her contribution to Art & Culture. Answer in comments>
    • It has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years- From ensuring diligent following of animal welfare laws to providing grants to such organisation & advising Govt on such issues
    • Organisation: The Board consists of 28 Members. The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years

    Roles & Functions:

    • To keep the law in force in India for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals under constant study and to advise the government on the amendments to be undertaken in any such law from time to time
    • To advise the Central Government on the making of rules under the Act with a view to preventing unnecessary pain or suffering to animals generally, and more particularly when they are being transported from one place to another or when they are used as performing animals or when they are kept in captivity or confinment
    • To advise the Government or any local authority or other person on improvements in the design of vehicles so as to lessen the burden on draught animals
    • To take all such steps as the Board may think fit for amelioration of animals by encouraging, or providing for the construction of sheds, water troughs and the like and by providing for veterinary assistance to animals
    • To advise the Government or any local authority or other person in the design of slaughter houses or the maintenance of slaughter houses or in connection with slaughter of animals so that unnecessary pain or suffering, whether physicrd or mental, is eliminated in the pre- slaughter stages as far as possible, and animals are killed, wherever necessary, in as humane a manner as possible
    • To take all such steps as the Board may think fit to ensure that unwanted animals are destroyed by local authorities, whenever it is necessary to do so, either instantaneously or after being rendered insensible to pain or suffering
    • To encourage by the grant of financial assistance or otherwise, the formation or establishment of Pinjarapoles, rescue homes, animals shelters, sanctuaries and the like, where animals and birds may find a shelter when they have become old and useless or when they need protection
    • To co-operate with, and co-ordinate the work of associations or bodies established for the purpose of preventing unnecessary pain or suffering to animals or for the protection of animals and birds
    • To give financial assistance and other assistance to Animal Welfare Organisations functioping in any local area or to encourage the formation of Animal Welfare Organisations in any local area which shall work under the general supervision and guidance of the Board
    • To advise the Government on matters relating to the medical care and attention which may be provided in animal hospitals, and to give financial and other assistance to animal hospitals whenever the Board think it is necessary to do so
    • To impart education in relation to the humane treatment of animals and to encourage the formation of public opinion against the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering to animals and for the promotion of animal welfare by means of lectures books, posters, cinematographic exhibitions and the like
    • To advise the Government on any matter connected with animal welfare or the Prevention of infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals

    Published with inputs from Swapnil
  • MCQ Maze 13

    Q1. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana has been launched to

    (a) to provide basic insurance cover to the women
    (b) to extend financial help to the female students in rural areas
    (c) to provide maternity benefit to rural women to contain female foeticide
    (d) to provide free LPG connection to poor women

    Q2. Consider the following statements:

    1. World Heritage Outlook is the first global assessment of the conservation prospectus for natural World Heritage.
    2. It is implemented by the UNESCO’s World Heritage Programme.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q3. The power to disqualify the members of a Legislative Assembly under the anti-defection law is vested in the

    (a) State Election Commission
    (b) Chief Minister
    (c) Speaker of the Assembly
    (d) High Court of the concerned State

    Q4. Which of the following statements is correct?

    (a) A constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in only in the Lok Sabha.
    (b) A constitutional amendment bill cannot be introduced in a State Legislature.
    (c) The President cannot withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill but can return it for reconsideration of the Parliament.
    (d) Every bill that seeks to amend the constitution must be ratified by the legislature of at least half of the states.

    Q5. Which of the following committee of the Parliament has no representation from the Rajya
    Sabha?

    (a) The Committee on Estimates
    (b) The Committee on Public Undertakings
    (c) The Committee on Public Accounts
    (d) The Committee on Home Affairs

    Q6. Consider the following statements:

    1. Rajya Sabha cannot move an amendment to a money bill.
    2. Unlike Lok Sabha, there are no nominated members in a State Legislative Assembly.
    3. Speaker is the ex-officio chairman of the Business Advisory Committee of the Lok Sabha.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 3 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1 and 3 only

    Q7. In the context of the Indian Freedom Struggle, what were Sandhya, Yugantar and Kal ?

    (a) Local ‘samitis’ that enrolled the masses for participation in the freedom struggle
    (b) England based organisations that aimed to influence public opinion to promote
    Indian welfare
    (c) Newspapers and journals that advocated revolutionary terrorism
    (d) None of the statements (a), (b) or (c) is correct

    Q8. Recent times have witnessed a rise in man-animal conflict with wild animals venturing into
    cities and villages. Which of the following is/are among the main reasons for an increase in the
    number of such conflicts?

    1. Loss and fragmentation of their natural habitat
    2. Reduction in the availability of natural prey
    3. Increase in the population of wild animals

    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Q9. With reference to the evolutionary history of the planet, which of the following events might
    have led to instances of mass extinction of species?

    1. Volcanic Activities
    2. Sea level changes
    3. Meteoritic impacts

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below:

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Q10. Which of the following wild life species are naturally found in India?

    1. Flying Squirrel
    2. White-Cheeked Macaque
    3. Clouded Leopard
    4. Sloth Bear

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below:

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    _____

  • Review Needed: MCQ Maze Series

    Hello,

    At the behest of the organiser of the 12 part MCQ Maze series, we have some questions to ask. We have been running this series on the FORUM section of the website for quite sometime now.

    It’s a bit disheartening to see a lack of participation among the users despite the efforts and pains taken to structure the questions for your IAS Prelims preparation.

    It would help us to know the reasons for such low participation and help us decide the fate of this endeavour. Of, course we cannot force you to do something which you find little/ no value in but we see no point in continuing with a series which is not exciting enough for our aspirants’ community either.

    Please take out 3 minutes and fill up this (very short) survey. Just 3 questions.

    Click to fill the survey. As always, we value your feedback.

  • Review Needed: MCQ Maze Series

    Hello,

    At the behest of the organiser of the 12 part MCQ Maze series, we have some questions to ask. We have been running this series on the FORUM section of the website for quite sometime now.

    FLASHNEWS:

    To those who do not know where MCQ Maze are being held, please go on the homepage and scroll down to see the FORUM. You will find a string of threads and posts relevant to MCQs for Prelims Prep.

    It’s a bit disheartening to see a lack of participation among the users despite the efforts and pains taken to structure the questions for your IAS Prelims preparation.

    It would help us to know the reasons for such low participation and help us decide the fate of this endeavour. Of, course we cannot force you to do something which you find little/ no value in but we see no point in continuing with a series which is not exciting enough for our aspirants’ community either.

    Please take out 3 minutes and fill up this (very short) survey. Just 3 questions.

    Click to fill the survey. As always, we value your feedback.