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Subject: Polity

  • What is Governor’s immunity under Article 361, set to be reviewed by Supreme Court?

    Why in the News?

    • The Supreme Court has agreed to hear a plea seeking to redefine the constitutional immunity of state Governors.
      • Article 361 of the Constitution shields the President and Governors from criminal prosecution and judicial scrutiny.
      • The Supreme Court will interpret whether the immunity includes the registration of an FIR, initiation of a preliminary inquiry, or a magistrate taking cognisance of an offence.

    Origins of Governor’s Immunity

    • The concept of immunity is based on the Latin maximrex non potest peccare” (the king can do no wrong), rooted in English legal traditions.
    • During the Constituent Assembly debates in 1949, member H. V. Kamath questioned whether immunity meant no proceedings could be instituted against the President or Governor during their term or only while they were in office.
      • The article was adopted without further debate on criminal immunity.

    What are immunities under Article 361?

    • According to Article 361(1), the President or a Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise of their powers and duties.
    • Article 361(2) ensures that NO criminal proceedings can be initiated or continued against the President or Governor during their term.
    • Article 361(3) prohibits the arrest or imprisonment of the President or Governor while they are in office.
    • Article 361(4) states that civil lawsuits for personal acts against the President or Governor cannot be initiated during their term and can only proceed two months after a written notice is given post-term.

    Judicial Interpretations of Article 361:

    • Dr SC Barat and Anr vs. Hari Vinayak Pataskar Case (1961): Distinguished between the Governor’s official and personal actions. While official actions have complete immunity, civil proceedings for personal acts can proceed with prior notice.
    • Rameshwar Prasad vs. Union of India Case (2006): The Supreme Court recognized “complete immunity” for constitutional actions under Article 361(1), but allowed judicial review for actions taken with malicious intent.
    • Vyapam Scam Case (2015): The Madhya Pradesh High Court ruled that Governor Ram Naresh Yadav had absolute protection under Article 361(2), preventing his name from being included in the investigation to avoid undue legal harassment.
    • State of UP vs. Kalyan Singh Case (2017): The Supreme Court upheld that Kalyan Singh, while serving as Governor of Rajasthan, was immune under Article 361. Legal proceedings related to the Babri Masjid demolition were to resume after his term.
    • Telangana High Court Judgment (2024): Observed that the Constitution does not explicitly or implicitly bar judicial review of actions taken by a Governor, and stated that Article 361 immunity is personal and does not exclude judicial review.

    Case for Revisiting Immunity

    The debate on executive immunity is ongoing in other countries as well.

    • The US Supreme Court recently decided that former President Donald Trump is entitled to “absolute immunity” from criminal prosecution for official acts but not for unofficial or personal acts.
    • In India, the discussion is viewed within the larger context of the tension between Governors and opposition-ruled state governments.
    • The Supreme Court has noted instances where Governors acted with political motives.

    PYQ:

    [2018] Consider the following statements:

    1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
    2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    [2019] Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

    (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

    (b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

    (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

    (d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

  • Bombay HC quashes Exemption from RTE Quota for Private Schools  

    Why in the News?

    The Bombay High Court has cancelled the Maharashtra government’s new rule that allowed private schools within 1 kilometer of government or government-aided schools to avoid reserving 25% of their seats for students from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups.

    Right to Education (RTE) Act: Overview

    • The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 ensures free and compulsory education as fundamental right under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.
    • It mandates that every child has the right to full-time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school that meets certain essential norms and standards.
    • Key Provisions:
      • The RTE Act provides for free and compulsory education for all children between 6 and 14 years.
      • Schools must be available within a prescribed distance from the child’s residence to ensure accessibility.
      • The Act ensures the provision of adequate teachers and the establishment of standards for their training and quality.
    • Teacher Qualification: The teacher must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET), which is administered by the respective government authority. The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has established the minimum qualifications required for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher for classes I to VIII.
    • The RTE Act does NOT apply to Minority institutions.

    Section 12(1) (C) of the RTE Act:

    • Section 12(1) (C) requires private unaided and specified category schools to reserve at least 25% seats for children from economically weaker sections and disadvantaged groups.
    • This provision aims to promote social inclusion and ensure that children from all backgrounds have access to quality education.
    • The government reimburses schools for the expenses incurred for admitting these children, based on per-child expenditure incurred by the state.
    • Children from economically weaker sections and disadvantaged groups benefit from this Section as it provides them access to private schooling.
    • This section aims to contest education apartheid and bring parity and equality of opportunity for all children.

    Details of the Exemption Rule in Maharashtra

    • The notification stated that private unaided schools within one kilometer of a government or government-aided school would not need to reserve 25% of seats for socio-economically backward students.
    • Students in these areas would first be considered for admission to nearby government or government-aided schools.
    • The exemption also applied to future private schools established within a one-kilometer radius of government or government-aided schools.
    • If no such schools existed in the vicinity, private schools would be identified for RTE admissions.

    Similar Exemptions in Other States

    • Maharashtra joined Karnataka and Kerala in implementing this regime to exempt private schools from RTE admissions.
    • Karnataka introduced the rule in December 2018, referencing Kerala’s rules introduced in 2011.
    • In Kerala, the fee concession is available to RTE quota students only if there are no government or aided schools within one kilometer for Class 1 students.

    Reasons for Introducing Exemptions

    • Karnataka’s Law Minister stated in 2018 that the primary intention of RTE is to provide education to all classes of students.
    • Allowing parents to admit children to private schools despite nearby government schools resulted in a drop in enrollment ratios in government schools.
    • Private schools and teachers’ organizations highlighted that state governments often failed to reimburse fees for students admitted through the RTE quota.
      • Section 12(2) of the RTE Act binds state governments to reimburse expenses incurred by schools per child or the fee amount, whichever is less.
      • In Maharashtra, the Maharashtra English School Trustees Association (MESTA) threatened to boycott RTE admissions last December due to pending reimbursements of Rs 1,800 crore.

    PYQ:

    [2022] The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 remains inadequate in promoting incentive-based systems for children’s education without generating awareness about the importance of schooling. Analyse.

    [2018] Consider the following statements:

    1. As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.
    2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
    3. In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3
    (d) 3 only

  • The problems with sub-caste reservations

    Why in the News?

    The Supreme Court has reserved its decision on sub-caste reservations for SC/STs. Any ruling on this matter must be substantiated not only legally but also academically.

    What is the Sub-categorization of castes?

    It refers to the practice of further dividing larger caste categories into smaller groups or sub-groups based on specific criteria such as socio-economic status, geographical location, historical background, or specific needs for policy implementation.

    Background of the Case:

    • The case involves the validity of sub-classification within the SC and ST categories for providing reservations in government jobs and education.
    • In 2004 Supreme Court strikes down Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Castes (Rationalisation of Reservations) Act, 2000, citing violation of the right to equality in the E.V. Chinnaiah v State of Andhra Pradesh case and emphasised that the SC list should be treated as a single, homogeneous group
      • Only Parliament has the power to sub-classify SCs and STs for reservations
      • The Supreme Court is now considering whether states have the power to create sub-classifications within these reserved categories.
    • The case stems from a 1975 Punjab government notification that divided its 25% reservation for SCs into two categories: half for Balmikis (Valmikis) and Mazhabi Sikhs, and the other half for the remaining groups within the SC category.

    Objectives behind the implementation of reservations and present SC scenario:

    • Objective of Reservations: The primary objective of reservations, as advocated by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, is to ensure equitable representation and opportunities for historically marginalized communities, particularly Scheduled Castes (SCs).
    • Present SC scenario: Despite reservations, certain sub-castes within SCs continue to face challenges in securing adequate representation in jobs and education. This under-representation is often attributed to factors such as inadequate educational opportunities, economic disparities, and historical discrimination.

    The policy of economic empowerment in India and its associated challenges:

    • Policies for Economic Empowerment: These policies complement reservations by focusing on enhancing the ownership of capital assets (like land and businesses) and improving educational attainment among SC individuals
      • For example, Self-Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS), National Scheduled Castes Finance & Development Corporation (NSFDC) and National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation (NSKFDC).
      • These policies are aimed at building capabilities and enabling greater participation in economic activities.
    • Challenges: There are challenges in implementing economic empowerment policies including inadequate access to credit and financial resources, lack of skill development initiatives, and persistent socio-economic barriers that hinder the upward mobility of SC communities.
      • Intersection with Reservations: Integrating economic empowerment with reservations is crucial to ensure that individuals from SC backgrounds not only secure reserved positions but also have the necessary skills and resources to thrive in competitive environments.

    What must be our focus? (Way Forward)

    • Holistic Approach: There is a need for a holistic approach that combines reservations with targeted economic and educational interventions. This approach should address both systemic discrimination and socio-economic barriers faced by SC communities.
    • Capacity Building: There should be emphasis on enhancing the educational infrastructure and skill development programs tailored to the needs of SC individuals.
    • Data-Driven Policy: The policy decisions related to sub-caste reservations should be informed by empirical data that assesses the actual impact of discrimination versus socio-economic factors on under-representation.

    Mains PYQ: 

    Q Whether National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) can enforce the implementation of constitutional reservation for the Scheduled Castes in the religious minority institutions? Examine (UPSC IAS/2018)

  • ECI’s technical SOP for EVM verification is out: why verify and how? 

    Why in the News?

    The ECI released a technical Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) on July 16 for verifying burnt memory in EVMs and VVPATs, following an April Supreme Court verdict.

    What is the Burnt Memory of EVM?

    • “Burnt memory” in Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) refers to the firmware or software program permanently written onto the microcontroller’s memory during the manufacturing process.
    • This memory controls the EVM’s operations, and “burnt” implies it is fixed and cannot be altered or reprogrammed easily.

    What was the case before the Supreme Court, and what did it order?  

    Case Before the Supreme Court:

    • The Supreme Court was hearing a challenge to the reliability of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs). The judgment was delivered on April 26, 2024, during the Lok Sabha election.
    • The Supreme Court upheld the EVM-VVPAT system and rejected the plea for a return to paper ballots and for 100% counting of VVPAT slips.
    • The court directed the Election Commission of India (ECI) to allow second and third-placed candidates to seek verification of burnt memories of EVMs and VVPATs of up to 5% of machines in an Assembly constituency or an Assembly segment of a Lok Sabha constituency.

    Court’s Orders:

    • The burnt memory/microcontroller in 5% of the EVMs (control unit, ballot unit, and VVPAT) per assembly constituency/assembly segment of a parliamentary constituency shall be checked and verified for tampering or modification.
    • Candidates who are at Sl. No. 2 or Sl. No. 3 behind the highest polled candidate can request verification in writing.
    • Candidates or their representatives have the option to be present during the verification process. Requests for verification must be made within seven days of the declaration of the result.
    • The actual cost or expenses for the verification will be notified by the ECI, and the candidate requesting the verification will bear the expenses. These expenses will be refunded if tampering is found.

    What is the process to be followed for the verification of EVMs and VVPATs? 

    Technical SOP by ECI:

    • Mock Poll: A mock poll of up to 1,400 votes per machine will be conducted in the presence of candidates or their representatives.
    • Result Comparison: If the results of the machines and VVPAT slips match, it will be concluded that the burnt memory or microcontrollers have not been tampered with.
    • Selection of Machines: Candidates can select the polling stations, EVMs, BUs, CUs, and VVPATs they want checked.
    • Verification Team: Trained engineers from the EVM manufacturers, Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) and Electronics Corporation of India Ltd (ECIL) will perform the checks.
    • Technical Methods: Various technical methods will be used to verify the fidelity of firmware burnt into a microcontroller through a public process.

    When will this process of checking start?

    • Preliminary Step: Verification will commence after it is confirmed by the High Courts of the respective states that no Election Petitions have been filed regarding the constituencies in question.
    • Election Petitions: Petitions challenging the election outcome can be filed within 45 days of the results being declared. Since the results were announced on June 4, petitions can be filed until July 19.
    • Applications Received: Eleven applications cover 118 polling stations or sets of EVMs and VVPATs. Applications have been received from candidates from BJP, Congress, DMDK, and YSRCP.

    Way forward: 

    • Enhanced Transparency and Confidence: Conduct regular and public verification processes of EVMs and VVPATs with involvement from political parties and independent observers to build public trust and confidence in the electoral system.
    • Technological Upgradation and Training: Invest in upgrading EVM technology and provide comprehensive training for election officials and engineers to ensure efficient and accurate verification and operation of voting machines.
  • Karnataka State Employment of Local Candidates in the Industries, Factories and Other Establishments Bill, 2024

    Why in the News?

    The Karnataka Cabinet has approved a bill mandating that industries, factories, and other establishments appoint local candidates in 50% of management positions and 75% in non-management positions.

    • The bill was cleared in a Cabinet meeting chaired by the Chief Minister.

    Key features of the Bill:

    • Definition of a Local Candidate:
      • Born in Karnataka
      • Domiciled in Karnataka for 15 years
      • Proficient in speaking, reading, and writing Kannada
      • Passed a required test by the nodal agency
    • Educational Requirements:
      • Must have a secondary school certificate with Kannada as a language, or
      • Pass a Kannada proficiency test specified by the nodal agency
    • Training and Relaxation Provisions:
      • Industries and establishments must train local candidates within three years if qualified locals are unavailable
      • Establishments can apply for relaxation if local candidates are insufficient
      • The government’s decision on relaxation applications is final
      • Local candidates must constitute at least 25% in management and 50% in non-management positions
      • Non-compliance penalties range from ₹10,000 to ₹25,000

    Do you know?

    • The Punjab and Haryana High Court earlier quashed the Haryana State Employment of Local Candidates Act, 2020, which mandated 75% reservation for state domiciles in the private sector jobs.
    • This decision was made because the State had overstepped its legislative authority and imposed undue restrictions on private employers.

    Background and Rationale:

    • Long-pending Demand:
      • The bill has been passed in response to longstanding demands for 100% job reservation for Kannadigas.
      • Earlier in July, Kannada organizations organized rallies in parts of the State, demanding immediate implementation of the Sarojini Mahishi Report.
    • Sarojini Mahishi Report:
      • The Sarojini Mahishi report, submitted in 1984 by Mahishi, former Union Minister and the first woman MP from Karnataka, included 58 recommendations.
      • The report recommended 100% reservation for locals in group C and D jobs in Central government departments and public sector undertakings (PSUs) in Karnataka.

    Reservation for Locals in Jobs: Constitutionality Check 

    Provision Potential Violation
    Article 14 Guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Reservation for locals could create unequal opportunities for non-locals, violating the principle of equality.
    Article 15 Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Reserving jobs for locals based on place of birth or domicile status may constitute discrimination against non-locals.
    Article 16 Ensures equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Though it allows reservation for backward classes, it does not explicitly extend this provision to private employment, making mandatory quotas for locals potentially unconstitutional.
    Article 19 Guarantees the freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India. Imposing local reservations could restrict the free movement of people seeking employment opportunities across states, infringing upon their freedom of movement and residence.

     

    PYQ:

    [2017] One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of:

    (a) Privileges

    (b) Restraints

    (c) Competition

    (d) Ideology

  • SC to look into the use of ‘Money Bills’ to pass laws   

    Why in the News? 

    CJI D.Y. Chandrachud has accepted the plea to list petitions challenging the passage of contentious legislation in Parliament as Money Bills.

    • This has given rise to the expectation that the matter could be heard and decided before Chandrachud demits office in November this year.

    Presently, the three key issues are referred to the 7-judge bench in the Supreme Court:

    • Amendments made post-2015, like the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) through Money Bills, giving the Enforcement Directorate wide powers, were valid or not.
    • Whether the passage of the Finance Act of 2017 as a Money Bill to alter appointments to 19 key judicial tribunals was valid or not
    • In the Aadhaar case, the Supreme Court had in 2018 upheld the Aadhaar Act as a valid Money Bill.
      • However, in 2021, Justice D.Y. Chandrachud (who was then a part of the bench) had dissented, saying the larger questions on Money Bills should be decided first before reviewing the Aadhaar judgment.
    • Now, the current Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud has agreed to list the petitions challenging the use of the Money Bill route by the Centre to pass contentious amendments, indicating he will constitute a 7-judge Constitution Bench to hear this matter.

    What is a Money Bill?

    • A Money Bill is a specific type of financial legislation that exclusively deals with matters related to taxes, government revenues, or expenditures.
      • It is defined under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution.
    • Every Money Bill is a Finance Bill but every Financial Bill is not a Money Bill: A Financial Bill can cover a broader range of financial issues, whereas a Money Bill is specifically limited to the matters mentioned in Article 110 of the Constitution. Therefore, while every Money Bill is a Financial Bill, not every Financial Bill is a Money Bill.

    Key provisions of the Money Bill: 

    • Article 110(1)(a): Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax
    • Article 110(1)(b): The regulation of borrowing by the government or giving of any guarantee by the government or the amendment of the law for any financial obligations undertaken by the government
    • Article 110(1)(c): Custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such Fund. 
    • Article 110(1)(d): Appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
    • Article 110(1)(e): Declaration of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increase of the amount of any such expenditure
    • Article 110(1)(f): Receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State
    • Article 110(1)(g): Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f).

    What are the present challenges associated with the Parliament?

    • Circumvention of the Rajya Sabha:  The government is accused of misusing the Money Bill provision to evade scrutiny of the Bill by the Rajya Sabha where it was numerically weaker as compared to the Lok Sabha where it enjoyed pre-eminence.
    • Contentious Amendments passed as the Money Bill: Aadhaar Act, 2016; amendments to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002; amendments to the Foreign Contributions Regulations Act, 2010; Finance Act, 2017 which brought about changes in the mode of appointment of judicial tribunals; electoral bonds scheme brought through Finance Act, 2017.
      • For example, the Finance Act of 2017, passed as a Money Bill, altered the appointment processes for judicial tribunals, which was seen as an attempt to extend executive control over these institutions.
      • The Supreme Court has been involved in multiple such cases questioning the classification of certain bills as Money Bills. For instance, the Rojer Mathew case and the Aadhaar case (K. Puttaswamy case)
    • Finality of the Speaker’s Decision: The Lok Sabha Speaker’s decision to certify a bill as a Money Bill has been contested. The judiciary has debated whether this decision is final or subject to judicial review.

    Way forward: 

    • Need for strengthening Judicial Oversight: Establish clear guidelines and criteria for the classification of bills as Money Bills, ensuring they strictly adhere to the provisions outlined in Article 110 of the Constitution.
    • Requires the Reinforcement of Legislative Procedures: Enhance the role of the Rajya Sabha in the legislative process by ensuring that all significant amendments, especially those affecting governance structures or individual rights, undergo thorough scrutiny in both houses of Parliament.

    Mains PYQ: 

    Q The Indian Constitution has provisions for holding joint session of the two houses of the Parliament. Enumerate the occasions when this would normally happen and also the occasions when it cannot, with reasons thereof. (UPSC IAS/2017)

  • On the Jurisdiction of the CBI         

    Why in the News? 

    The Supreme Court upheld the West Bengal government’s suit, which accuses the Union government of “Constitutional overreach” by using the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to register and investigate cases in the state, despite the state’s withdrawal of general consent on November 16, 2018.

    Background

    • In November 2018, the West Bengal government withdrew its “general consent” that allowed the CBI to conduct investigations within the state.
    • However, the CBI continued to register FIRs and conduct investigations in West Bengal, leading the state government to file an original suit in the Supreme Court under Article 131 of the Constitution.
    • The suit accused the Union government of “constitutional overreach” by allowing the CBI to operate in West Bengal despite the withdrawal of general consent.

    Key highlights of the verdict: 

    • Solicitor-General Tushar Mehta argued the CBI’s independence from the Union government, but the Supreme Court pointed to the DSPE Act’s provisions.
    • It highlighted the Act’s requirement for Central government control over CBI’s establishment and administration, except for cases under the Prevention of Corruption Act, which the CVC oversees.

    Is the CBI an Independent Agency or Under Union Government Control?

    • The Supreme Court ruled that the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is not entirely independent. 
      • The CBI is constituted, administered, and has its powers extended under the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946.
    • The central government exercises superintendence over the CBI, particularly for offenses other than those under the Prevention of Corruption Act, where the Central Vigilance Commission has superintendence.
      • Therefore, the Union government is vitally concerned with the CBI’s functions and operations.

    Does the CBI Need the State’s Permission to Carry Out Investigations in Its Territory?

    • The CBI derives its powers from the DSPE Act, of 1946.
      • According to Section 6 of this Act, the CBI requires the state government’s consent to extend its investigation beyond the Union Territories.
    • The Supreme Court has ruled that although the CBI is under the administrative control and superintendence of the Union government, this does not negate the requirement of state consent for investigations as per the DSPE Act.
    • There are two types of consent – General consent and Specific consent.
      • When a state gives general consent, the CBI does not need to seek permission for every case.
      • However, if the general consent is withdrawn, the CBI needs to seek specific case-by-case consent from the state.
    • Several opposition-ruled states have withdrawn their general consent for CBI investigations, which has hampered the CBI’s ability to freely investigate cases of corruption involving central government employees in those states.
      • The states that have withdrawn are- Mizoram, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and then states of Punjab, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Kerala, and Jharkhand (2020).
      • Telangana, Tamil Nadu, and Meghalaya withdrew general consent in 2022.
    • However, the withdrawal of general consent does not affect pending CBI investigations or cases where a court has ordered a CBI probe. The CBI can also approach a local court to obtain a search warrant to conduct investigations in states that have withdrawn consent.

    Note: In total, 10 states have withdrawn general consent to the CBI as of 2022. This has significantly limited the CBI’s ability to freely investigate cases in these states without seeking prior permission.

    Way Forward: 

    • Strengthening Federal Cooperation: Establish a clear institutional framework that promotes cooperation and coordination between the central and state governments regarding CBI investigations.
    • Legal and Administrative Reforms: Consider amending the DSPE Act to provide more clarity on the roles and powers of the CBI and the requirements for state consent.

    Jurisdictional Overview and Federal Character:

    The CBI operates within the context of India’s federal structure, which grants states certain powers and autonomy. The need for state consent limits the CBI’s jurisdiction, as it cannot conduct investigations in states without their general consent.

    Powers and Jurisdiction of CBI

    • Offenses against Central Government Employees: The CBI has jurisdiction to investigate crimes committed against employees of the central government, such as bribery, corruption, or misconduct cases involving central government officials.
    • Interstate and International Cases: The CBI can investigate cases that have inter-state or international ramifications, including organized crime, terrorism, human trafficking, money laundering, and other offenses that require a nationwide or global perspective.
    • Specific Offences Listed in the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act: The CBI can investigate offenses specified in the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, including offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, crimes related to the violation of certain central laws, and cases referred to the CBI by the courts or the central government.

    Mains PYQ: 

    Q The jurisdiction of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) regarding lodging an FIR and conducting probe within a particular State is being questioned by various States. However, the power of the States to withhold consent to the CBI is not absolute. Explain with special reference to the federal character of India. (UPSC IAS/2021)

  • The SC ruling on the portrayal of disability in films 

    Why in the News?

    On July 8, the Supreme Court issued guidelines against stereotyping and discriminating persons with disabilities in visual media, prompted by a plea to ban Aaankh Micholi.

    Background:

    • The Supreme Court’s guidelines came in response to a plea filed by activist Nipun Malhotra challenging the alleged insensitive portrayal of differently-abled individuals in the Film ‘Aaankh Micholi’.
    • The petitioner argued that the film contained derogatory references and stereotyping of persons with disabilities.

    Key Highlights of the Supreme Court Ruling:

    • Avoiding Derogatory Language: The court asked creators to avoid words like “cripple”, “spastic”, “afflicted”, “suffering”, and “victim” as they contribute to negative self-image and perpetuate discriminatory attitudes.
    • Accurate Representation: The court said stereotyping differently-abled persons in visual media and films must end, and creators should provide an accurate representation of disabilities rather than mocking or mythifying them.
    • Involvement of Persons with Disabilities: The court asked creators to practice the principle of “nothing about us, without us” and involve persons with disabilities in the creation and assessment of visual media content.
    • Training and Collaboration: The court emphasized the need for training programs for writers, directors, producers, and actors to sensitize them on the impact of portrayals on public perceptions.

    What are the laws which grant disability rights?   

    • Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (RPwD Act), 2016: This is the primary legislation that comprehensively addresses the rights and entitlements of persons with disabilities in India. It replaced the earlier Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, of 1995.
    • The National Trust Act, 1999: It provides legal support to persons with autism, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, and multiple disabilities. It focuses on enabling guardianship and providing support to those who may not have guardians.
    • Rehabilitation Council of India Act, 1992: Regulates the training of rehabilitation professionals and promotes research in rehabilitation and special education.
    • Mental Healthcare Act, 2017: While primarily focusing on mental health issues, this Act also includes provisions related to the rights and treatment of persons with mental disabilities.

    Are the laws governing the ‘Rights of Differently-abled’ persons being implemented properly?  

    • Implementation Gaps: There are significant gaps between the provisions laid out in laws like the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, and their actual implementation on the ground. Many disabled persons continue to face barriers to accessing their entitlements and rights.
    • Awareness and Sensitization: There is a lack of awareness among the general public, as well as within government bodies and institutions, about the rights and needs of persons with disabilities.
    • Infrastructure and Accessibility: Despite legal mandates for accessibility in public places, transportation, and buildings, implementation remains uneven.
    • Employment Opportunities: While laws mandate employment quotas for persons with disabilities in government and private sectors, these quotas are often not met.

    What is the way forward?

    • Enhanced Monitoring and Accountability: Implement regular audits and monitoring mechanisms to ensure compliance with disability rights laws at all levels of governance and across sectors.
    • Need to Increase Awareness and Sensitization: Launch nationwide awareness campaigns targeting both the general public and stakeholders within government and private sectors to promote understanding of disability rights.

    Mains PYQ: 

    Q The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 remains only a legal document without intense sensitisation of government functionaries and citizens regarding disability. Comment. (UPSC IAS/2022)

  • [pib] Samvidhaan Hatya Diwas’ on 25th June Every Year

    Why in the News?

    The Government of India has decided to observe 25th June every year as ‘Samvidhaan Hatya Diwas.’ 

    National Emergency imposition in India

    • June 25, 2025, will mark fifty years since the imposition of the Emergency.
    • The Emergency lasted from June 25, 1975, to March 21, 1977.
    • It was characterized by the suspension of civil liberties, press freedom, mass arrests, the cancellation of elections, and rule by decree.

    What was the Emergency?

    • PM Indira Gandhi’s government used constitutional provisions to impose sweeping executive and legislative control.
    • Opposition leaders were jailed, and fundamental rights, including freedom of speech and expression, were curtailed, leading to press censorship.
    • The federal structure was effectively converted into a unitary one, with the Union controlling state governments.
    • Parliament extended its term, made laws on state subjects, and extended the Union’s executive powers to the states.

    Legal and Constitutional Sanction

    • Article 352 allowed the President to proclaim an emergency if India’s security was threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
    • In 1975, “internal disturbancewas used as grounds for the Emergency, citing incitements against the police and armed forces.
    • This was the only instance of emergency due to “internal disturbance,” later removed by the 44th Amendment in 1978.
      • Article 358 suspended limitations on Article 19 (“Right to freedom”).
      • Article 359 allowed the President to suspend the right to court enforcement of rights during an emergency.

    Political and Social Circumstances: A Timeline 

    • In 1974, the Navnirman movement against corruption in Gujarat led to President’s Rule.
    • Inspired by Navnirman, a student movement in Bihar, led by Jayaprakash Narayan (JP), aimed to cleanse the country of corruption and misgovernance.
    • In May 1974, George Fernandes led a massive railway workers’ strike.
    • On June 5, 1974, JP called for “Sampoorna Kranti” (total revolution).
    • On June 12, 1975, Justice Jagmohanlal Sinha of the Allahabad High Court convicted Indira Gandhi of electoral malpractice.
    • On June 25, 1975, President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed signed the Proclamation of Emergency, cutting power to major newspapers and informing the Cabinet the next morning.

    Impact on Opposition Leaders, Media, and Political Dissenters

    • Almost all opposition leaders, including JP, were detained under the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA).
    • Newspapers faced pre-censorship, with UNI and PTI merged into a state-controlled agency, Samachar.
    • More than 250 journalists were jailed, and The Indian Express resisted by printing blank spaces when stories were censored.
    • Sanjay Gandhi’s “five-point programme” included forced family planning and slum clearance, leading to forced sterilizations and violent clashes.

    Sanjay Gandhi’s “Five-Point Programme”

    Sanjay Gandhi, the younger son of then PM, Mrs. Indira Gandhi had come forward with a programme to ‘improve’ the condition of the poor people.

    His programme can be divided under five Headings, i.e.

    1. Adult Education.
    2. To abolish Dowry.
    3. To Grow more trees.
    4. Family planning – only two children.
    5. Eradication of caste system.

    Legal Changes during the Emergency

    • With opposition leaders in jail, Parliament passed amendments barring judicial review of the Emergency and securing the Prime Minister’s election.
    • The 42nd Amendment expanded Union authority over states and gave Parliament unbridled power to amend the Constitution.
    • In ADM Jabalpur vs. Shivkant Shukla (1976), the Supreme Court ruled that detention without trial was legal during an emergency, with Justice H.R. Khanna dissenting.

    Lifting the Emergency and Aftermath

    • Indira Gandhi lifted the Emergency in early 1977, leading to her defeat in the elections.
    • The Janata Party emerged victorious, with Morarji Desai becoming India’s first non-Congress Prime Minister.
    • The Janata government reversed many constitutional changes from the 42nd Amendment, made judicial review of emergency proclamations possible, and removed “internal disturbance” as grounds for emergency imposition.

    PYQ:

    [2022] Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

    1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
    2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
    3. To impeach the President of India

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 and 2

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3

    (d) 3 only

  • Muslim Women entitled to seek Alimony, says SC

    PC: Hindustan Times

    Why in the News?

    • The Supreme Court has ruled that a divorced Muslim woman is entitled to seek maintenance from her husband under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC).
      • The court asserted that any discrimination against Muslim women in matters of alimony under the secular laws of the country would be regressive and against gender justice, equality.

    Story so far:

    • The Supreme Court bench rejected the argument that Section 125 of the CrPC does not apply to Muslims because they have their own personal law.
    • The court ruled that the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, does not override the secular law.

    Key Points of the Judgment

    • Legal Standing: “There cannot be the disparity in receiving maintenance on the basis of the law under which a woman is married or divorced.”
    • Application of Section 125: Justice Nagarathna emphasized, “Section 125 of the CrPC cannot be excluded from its application to a divorced Muslim woman irrespective of the law under which she is divorced.”
    • Role of the 1986 Act: The judgment underscored that rights granted under the 1986 Act to receive maintenance during ‘iddat’ are in addition to, not in derogation of, those under Section 125 of the CrPC.

    Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986:

    Purpose:

    • To protect the rights of Muslim women who have been divorced by, or have obtained a divorce from, their husbands.
    • To provide for matters connected with or incidental to their divorce.

    Key Provisions:

    • Maintenance:
      • During Iddat Period: A Muslim woman is entitled to a reasonable and fair provision and maintenance from her husband during the iddat period (a waiting period after divorce).
      • Post-Iddat Maintenance: If she cannot maintain herself after the iddat period, she can claim maintenance from her relatives who would inherit her property on her death. If no relatives are available, the State Wakf Board is responsible for her maintenance.
    • Mehr (Dower): The woman is entitled to the payment of mehr (dower) that was agreed upon at the time of marriage.
    • Return of Property: The woman is entitled to all the properties given to her before or at the time of marriage or after the marriage by her relatives, friends, husband, or any other person.
    • Rights of Children: The Act also provides for the maintenance of children born out of the marriage until they reach the age of two years.
    • Application to Magistrate:
      • A divorced woman, or someone acting on her behalf, can apply to a Magistrate for an order under the Act.
      • The Magistrate has the authority to make orders for payment of maintenance, mehr, and return of property.

    Criticisms and Issues:

    • Limited Scope: Critics argue that the Act’s provisions are limited to the iddat period and do not ensure long-term maintenance.
    • Dependence on Relatives: Post-iddat maintenance depends on relatives, which might not always be practical or feasible.
    • Role of Wakf Board: The effectiveness of the Wakf Board in providing maintenance has been questioned due to administrative and financial constraints.
    • Violation of Right to Equality: The MWPRD Act has been criticized for creating discriminatory practices by limiting the maintenance period for Muslim women compared to women of other communities, thus violating the Right to Equality under Article 14 of the Constitution.

    Context and Historical Perspective:

    • Shah Bano Case (1985): The court referenced the landmark Shah Bano case, which affirmed Muslim women’s right to maintenance under Section 125 of the CrPC.
    • Danial Latifi Case (2001): It highlighted subsequent interpretations ensuring that the 1986 Act does not deprive Muslim women of rights under Section 125.
    • Rejection of Restrictions: The court rejected restrictive interpretations that could hinder gender justice and emphasized the importance of providing adequate maintenance, not minimal amounts, to destitute Muslim women.
    • Continuation of Section 144: The judgment noted that the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which has replaced the CrPC, retains the older provision on alimony under Section 144.

    Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC)

    Purpose:

    • Maintenance Orders: Section 125 of the CrPC provides for the maintenance of wives, children, and parents who are unable to maintain themselves.

    Key Provisions:

    • Eligible Persons:
      • Wife: Includes a divorced wife who has not remarried.
      • Legitimate and illegitimate minor children.
      • Adult children are unable to maintain themselves due to physical or mental abnormalities.
      • Parents: Includes both father and mother who are unable to maintain themselves.
    • Conditions:
      • The person liable to pay maintenance has sufficient means.
      • The person liable has neglected or refused to maintain the eligible person.
    • Order: The Magistrate can order a monthly allowance for the maintenance of the eligible person.
    • Maximum Amount: There is no fixed maximum amount; it is determined by the Magistrate based on the circumstances.

    Significance:

    • Social Justice: It aims to prevent vagrancy and destitution by ensuring that dependents are provided for.
    • Secular Applicability: It applies to all religions and is not specific to any particular religion.

    Implications and Legal Precedent

    • Equality under Law: The judgment reinforces the principle that Muslim women have the same legal recourse as women of other faiths under Section 125 of the CrPC.
    • Additional Remedies: It affirmed that provisions like the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, do not exclude rights under Section 125.

     

    PYQ:

    [2020] Customs and traditions suppress reason leading to obscurantism. Do you agree?

    [2019] Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

    (a) Article 19
    (b) Article 21
    (c) Article 25
    (d) Article 29