💥Mains Ready By December. Smash Mains & Smash PYQ Admissions Open
Talk to Mentor

Civilsdaily

Login

Type: Prelims Only

  • ISRO successfully conducts ‘Pushpak’ Reusable Landing Vehicle Landing

    What is the news?

    • The ISRO has conducted the Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV) LEX 02 landing experiment at the Aeronautical Test Range in Chitradurga. It was lifted by an Indian Air Force Chinook helicopter and released from an altitude of 4.5 km.
    • This experiment marks a significant milestone in ISRO’s pursuit of reusable space technology.

    About Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV)

    • The Pushpak RLV is a winged vehicle, equipped with aerodynamic surfaces that enable controlled flight during re-entry into the Earth’s atmosphere.
    • The RLV is designed to autonomously land on a designated runway after completing its mission in space, thereby demonstrating India’s capability in autonomous space vehicle landing.
    • It is equipped with sophisticated navigation, control, and landing gear systems that allow it to autonomously navigate and land on a predefined runway.

    Key Features

    1. The RLV is a space plane with a low lift-to-drag ratio, requiring an approach at high glide angles that necessitates landing at high velocities of 350 km/h.
    2. This design allows it to transport payloads to Low Earth orbits and return to Earth for future use.

    Future Prospects

    • Iterative Testing: ISRO conducts a series of experiments, such as the RLV LEX 02 landing experiment, to test and validate the performance of the RLV in various scenarios.
    • Orbital Re-entry Missions: The successful demonstration of the Pushpak RLV’s capabilities paves the way for future orbital re-entry missions, where reusable vehicles can be deployed for various scientific and commercial purposes.

    PYQ:

    2018: With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

    1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
    2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
    3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 3 only

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about the ‘Pushpak’ Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV):

    1. It is a winged vehicle.
    2. It can transport payloads to Low Earth orbits and return to Earth with the help of a parachute.

    Which of the given statements are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  • A turf war with the wild

    Why in the news?

    • Instances of human-animal conflict are on the rise in Kerala with the summer heat, scarcity of food, and loss of habitat forcing wild animals to stray into human habitations for sustenance.

    Context-

    • Vulnerability of tribal communities living in such areas. While they have intricate knowledge of the forest and its resources, they lack the protective measures and resources available to more urbanized populations, leaving them more susceptible to the dangers of wildlife encounters.

    Human-animal conflict in Kerala-

    • Surge in Incidents: Kerala has experienced a significant increase in human-animal conflict incidents across its districts, attributed to the state’s significant forest cover and densely populated settlements near wildlife habitats.
    • Human Casualties: Human-wildlife conflicts have resulted in a substantial loss of human lives, with 93 reported deaths in 2023-24. The previous year recorded 98 human casualties.
    • Hotspot District: Wayanad stands out as a hotspot for human-animal conflicts, with 69 reported deaths between 2011 and 2024. Incidents involve encounters with wild elephants and, in one case, a tiger attack.
    • Diverse Wildlife Involved: Human-animal conflicts in Kerala involve various species, including elephants, tigers, leopards, bears, wild gaurs, wild boars, and monkeys. This diversity underscores the complexity of managing conflicts across different ecosystems and habitats.
    • Impact on Livelihoods: The conflicts have severe repercussions on people’s livelihoods, particularly those dependent on agriculture and farming. Attacks by wild animals prevent farmers from cultivating their land, leading to economic hardship and food insecurity.
    • Vulnerable Communities: Vulnerable communities like tribal groups and small-scale farmers are disproportionately affected by human-animal conflicts. Limited resources and infrastructure exacerbate their vulnerability to wildlife attacks, as seen in the case of Abraham Palatt and his family.

    Steps taken by Government to deal these issues – 

    • State-Specific Disaster: The Kerala government declared human-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster in March, becoming the first state to do so. This decision signifies the severity and urgency of addressing the issue.
    • Responsibility Shift: Management of human-animal conflicts now falls under the purview of the Kerala State Disaster Management Authority (KSDMA), with a committee headed by the Chief Minister established for this purpose.
    • Community Involvement: The government plans to involve local communities through neighborhood groups to enhance surveillance on forest fringes. These groups will collaborate with government agencies and elected representatives to disseminate alerts about wildlife presence.
    • Recruitment and Equipment: The government aims to strengthen surveillance by recruiting more forest watchers and establishing rapid response teams equipped with firearms, surveillance devices, drones, tranquilizing guns, and advance warning systems.
    • Inter-State Collaboration: An inter-State coordination committee involving the Forest departments of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu has been formed to address human-wildlife conflicts collectively. This initiative aims to share intelligence and resources to mitigate conflicts, particularly along interstate borders.

    Measures to address human-wildlife conflict-

    • Forest Quality Improvement: Improving the quality of forests through measures such as reducing fragmentation and patchiness can help create healthier ecosystems that support a more balanced coexistence between humans and wildlife.
    • Conservation Mission with Tribal Communities: Involving tribal communities in conservation efforts ensures their participation and traditional knowledge is valued. Collaborative conservation initiatives can promote sustainable practices and protect both biodiversity and livelihoods.
    • Rejuvenation of Natural Forest Streams: Restoring natural water sources in forests is crucial for wildlife habitat and can help mitigate conflicts by providing essential resources within their natural environment.
    • Removal of Invasive Plants and Replanting Indigenous Species: Removing invasive plant species and replanting indigenous ones can restore ecological balance and support native wildlife populations, reducing their reliance on human-impacted areas.
    • Utilization of MGNREGS: Leveraging government schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) to support conservation efforts can provide employment opportunities while simultaneously contributing to environmental restoration projects.
    • Awareness Programs on Responsible Tourism: Educating tourists about responsible behavior around wildlife can minimize human-wildlife conflicts caused by human disturbance. This includes emphasizing the importance of maintaining a safe distance and respecting wildlife habitats.
    • Effective Institutional Framework: Establishing a robust institutional framework at various levels of governance, from local to inter-state, is essential for coordinated action in managing human-wildlife conflicts. This involves collaboration between different government departments, wildlife authorities, and local communities.

    Conclusion-

    Human-wildlife conflicts surge in Kerala, endangering lives and livelihoods. Government initiatives, community involvement, and conservation efforts are crucial for mitigating conflicts and fostering coexistence, ensuring a sustainable future for both humans and wildlife.

  • Subduction Zone discovered beneath Gibraltar Strait

    What is the news?

    • Scientists in Portugal have uncovered a concerning revelation about the fate of the Atlantic Ocean, highlighting a potential ‘Ring of Fire’ (a Subduction Zone).
    • Researchers caution that the Atlantic may be on the brink of closure due to subduction activity.

    Why discuss this?

     

    • Closure of Gibraltar Strait: Computer simulations project the subduction zone’s expansion over the next 20 million years, forming the ‘Ring of Fire’ in the Atlantic leading to the closure of Gibraltar Strait.
    • Geological Parallel: This process mirrors the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, reshaping the ocean basin through gradual subduction of the ocean floor beneath continents.

     

    About Gibraltar Strait

    Details
    Location
    • Connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea;
    • Separating the southern tip of the Iberian Peninsula of Europe from the northern coast of Africa.
    Width Approximately 13 km (8.1 miles) at its narrowest point.
    Depth Varies, with the deepest point reaching around 300 meters (984 feet).
    Formation
    • Convergence point for the Eurasian Plate and the African Plate.
    • Formed around 5.33 million years ago during the Messinian salinity crisis when the Atlantic Ocean breached the barrier separating it from the Mediterranean Sea, resulting in a catastrophic flood known as the Zanclean flood.
    • The strait’s current shape and depth were further influenced by tectonic movements and erosional processes over geological time.
    Historical Significance Serves as a key maritime passage for trade and military purposes.
    Disputes
    • Subject of contention between Spain and the United Kingdom;
    • Gibraltar Overseas Territory under British control.

     

    What are Subduction Zones?

    • Subduction zones occur at convergent plate boundaries, where two tectonic plates move toward each other.
    • This convergence is often between an oceanic plate and a continental plate or between two oceanic plates.
    • Subduction Process:
    1. Collision of Tectonic Plates: When two tectonic plates collide, the denser oceanic plate is forced beneath the less dense continental plate or another oceanic plate.
    2. Partial Melting: As the oceanic plate descends into the mantle, it generates intense heat and pressure, causing partial melting of the mantle material.
    3. Volcanic Activity: The molten material formed by the subduction process rises through the Earth’s crust, leading to volcanic eruptions at the surface.
    4. Formation of Volcanic Arcs: These eruptions often occur in chains known as volcanic arcs, which parallel the subduction zone. Ex. Andes in S. America; Cascade Range in North America.

    Implications of this Activity

    • Earthquakes: Subduction zone earthquakes can be particularly destructive and may trigger tsunamis due to the displacement of large volumes of water.
    • Trench Formation: The surface expression of a subduction zone is often a deep oceanic trench, where the descending plate bends and plunges into the mantle.
    • Mountain Building: Over time, the continuous subduction of oceanic crust can lead to the uplift and deformation of the overriding plate, resulting in the formation of mountain ranges adjacent to the subduction zone. These mountains may exhibit complex geological structures, including folds and faults.
    • Recycling of Oceanic Crust: As oceanic plates are subducted, they are gradually consumed by the mantle, releasing minerals and elements that are eventually returned to the surface through volcanic activity.

    PYQ:

    2010: Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca?

    1. Bali
    2. Brunei
    3. Java
    4. Singapore

     

    2011: Between India and East Asia, the navigation time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?

    1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
    2. Opening a new canal across the Kra Isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman sea.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Which of the given statement about the Gibraltar Strait is NOT correct?

    1. It connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
    2. It is approximately 13 kilometers wide at its narrowest point.
    3. The deepest point of the Gibraltar Strait reaches around 300 meters.
    4. It was formed around 5.33 million years ago during the Holocene Epoch due to tectonic movements.

  • What are Critical Minerals?

    Why in the news?

    • India is looking for cobalt and other critical minerals in Zambia, Namibia, Congo, Ghana and Mozambique. It is still engaging with Australia for lithium blocks.
    • Critical minerals, including lithium and cobalt, are crucial for technology, manufacturing and other industries.

    What are Critical Minerals?

    • Critical minerals are elements that are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions.
    • These minerals are mostly used in making electronic equipment such as mobile phones, computers, batteries, electric vehicles, and green technologies like solar panels and wind turbines.
    • Many of these are required to meet the manufacturing needs of green technologies, high-tech equipment, aviation, and national defence.

    List of critical minerals includes:

    The centre has released a list of 30 critical minerals for India in 2023:

    1. Identified Minerals: Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, Platinum Group elements (PGE), Phosphorous, Potash, Rare Earth Elements (REE), Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
    2. Fertilizer Minerals: Two minerals critical for fertilizer production, phosphorous and potash, are also included in the above list.

    Critical Mineral Blocks in India

    • Distribution: There are 20 blocks spread across eight states, including Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Jammu & Kashmir.
    • Types of Licenses: Four blocks are for a Mining License (ML), allowing immediate mining post-clearance. The remaining 16 blocks are for a Composite License (CL), permitting further exploration before potentially converting to an ML.
    • Approvals Required: Licensees must obtain various approvals, including forest clearance and environmental clearance.
    • Forest Land: Approximately 17% of the total concession area, or 1,234 hectares, is forest land.

    India’s Critical Mineral Imports

    • Lithium Imports: In FY23, India imported 2,145 tonnes of lithium carbonate and lithium oxide, costing Rs 732 crore.
    • Nickel and Copper Imports: The country imported 32,000 tonnes of unwrought nickel and 1.2 million tonnes of copper ore, costing Rs 6,549 crore and Rs 27,374 crore, respectively.
    • Import Dependence: India relies entirely on imports for lithium and nickel, and 93% for copper.

    Country-wise dependence:

    1. China: India heavily relies on China for the import of critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, and graphite.
    2. Australia: India is actively engaged with Australia for acquiring mineral assets, particularly lithium and cobalt, to secure its supply chain for critical minerals.
    3. Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile: India is engaging with these countries, known for their reserves of battery metals like lithium and cobalt, to diversify its sources for critical minerals.

     

    PYQ:

    2019: With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

    1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
    2. State governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
    3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Critical minerals are those elements which are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions.
    2. India has notified 30 elements in the Critical Minerals List.
    3. Fertilizer minerals Phosphorous and potash are also included in the Critical Minerals List.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

  • Hate Speech: Interpreting Section 153A IPC

    What is the news?

    • The Supreme Court reiterated that to constitute an offence under Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the essential ingredient is to create a sense of enmity and disharmony amongst two or more groups or communities.
    • Quite often, politicians are arrested under section 153 A of IPC for alleged hate speech.

    Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)

    • Section 153A of the IPC deals with the offence of promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc.
    • The primary is to prevent the promotion of disharmony or feelings of enmity, hatred, or ill-will between different groups in society.
    • It was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code.

    Prohibited Acts:

    The section prohibits several acts:

    1. Engaging in activities that promote or attempt to promote feelings of enmity or hatred between different religious, racial, linguistic, or regional groups.
    2. Committing acts prejudicial to the maintenance of harmony between different groups or communities.
    3. Doing anything that disturbs or disrupts public tranquillity or creates unrest among various groups.

    Essential Elements:

    To constitute an offence under Section 153A, the following essential elements must be established:

    1. Promotion of enmity or hatred between different groups.
    2. Such promotion must be based on religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc.
    3. The intention behind the act must be to disrupt public tranquillity or to create disharmony among groups.

    Punishment:

    • Jail Term: Any individual found guilty of committing an offence under Section 153A may be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 years, or with a fine, or with both.
    • Cognizable and Non-Bailable: The offence is a cognizable offence and the punishment for the same may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both. Further, the offence is non-bailable in nature, wherein the accused is tried by the magistrate of the first class.
    • Burden of Proof: It lies with the prosecution to demonstrate that the accused’s words, actions, or conduct were aimed at promoting enmity or hatred between different groups based on the specified grounds.

    PYQ:

    2014: What do understand by the concept “freedom of speech and expression”? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss.

     

    2022: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

    1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
    2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Q.The Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) essentially deals with:

    1. Fake News
    2. Hate Speech
    3. Protest without permission
    4. Encroachment

  • Story of Usha Mehta and the Secret Congress Radio

    Why in the news?

    Who was Usha Mehta (1920-2000)?

    • Usha Mehta was born on March 25, 1920, in Mumbai, India.
    • Inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s principles of nonviolent resistance and civil disobedience, Usha Mehta became actively involved in the Indian independence movement from a young age.
    • One of Usha Mehta’s most notable contributions to the freedom struggle was her involvement in the radio broadcasting network known as the “Secret Congress Radio.”
    • She was conferred the Padma Vibhushan, one of India’s highest civilian honours in 1998.

    The Secret ‘Congress Radio’

    • On August 8, 1942, the historic Quit India Resolution was passed during the All India Congress Committee meeting in Bombay.
    • In this response, the idea of an underground radio station, known by various names such as the Freedom Radio, the Ghost Radio, or the Congress Radio, was conceived to counter the British-controlled AIR.
    • Usha Mehta, a 22 YO master’s student at Wilson College, became the voice of the Congress Radio.
    • The radio was an expensive endeavour, but funds were procured through various means, including contributions from Mehta’s colleague, Babubhai Khakhar.
    • Radio engineering expert Nariman Abarbad Printer constructed the Congress Radio transmission set.
    • Their first broadcast was on 14 August 1942.
    • Welcome line in her voice: “This is the Congress Radio calling on 42.34 from somewhere in India.”
    • In the beginning, they were broadcasting twice a day, in Hindi and English. But they reduced it to just once in the evening between 30 and 8.30 pm.
    • On 12th November 1942, the police raided the radio while Vande Mataram was being played and arrested Mehta and others.

    PYQ:

    2011: With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for-

    1. Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
    2. Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
    3. Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
    4. Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

     

    2021: With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
    2. The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
    3. The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
    4. Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over

    Practice MCQ:

    In context to the Secret ‘Congress Radio’ in modern Indian history, consider the following statements:

    1. It was established to supplement the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930s.
    2. Usha Mehta was the voice of Congress Radio.
    3. It was broadcasted twice a day, in Hindi and English

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

  • Supreme Court forms panel for Great Indian Bustard Conservation

    bustard

    What is the news?

    • The Supreme Court has taken a decisive step by forming an expert committee to address the pressing issue of conserving the endangered Great Indian Bustard.

    About Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

    • GIBs are the largest among the four bustard species found in India, the other three being MacQueen’s bustard, lesser florican, and the Bengal florican.
    • It is state bird of Rajasthan.
    • It is considered the flagship bird species of grassland.
    • Protection Status:
    1. Birdlife International: Uplisted from Endangered to Critically Endangered (2011)
    2. Protection under CITES: Appendix I
    3. IUCN status: Critically Endangered
    4. Protection under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I

    Threats to GIBs

    • Overhead power transmission: Due to their poor frontal vision, can’t detect powerlines in time and their weight makes in-flight quick maneuvers difficult.
    • Windmills: Coincidentally, Kutch and Thar desert are the places that have witnessed the creation of huge renewable energy infrastructure.
    • Noise pollution: Noise affects the mating and courtship practices of the GIB.
    • Changes in the landscape: by way of farmers cultivating their land, which otherwise used to remain fallow due to frequent droughts in Kutch.
    • Cultivation changes: Cultivation of cotton and wheat instead of pulses and fodder are also cited as reasons for falling GIB numbers.

    PYQ:

    2014: Consider the following pairs:

    Protected Area: Well-known for

    1. Bhitarkanika, Odisha — Salt Water Crocodile
    2. Desert National Park, Rajasthan — Great Indian Bustard
    3. Eravikulam, Kerala — Hoolock Gibbon

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:

    1. It is the largest among the bustard species found in India.
    2. It is state bird of Rajasthan as well as Gujarat.
    3. It is considered the flagship bird species of deserts.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

  • [pib] Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024

    Why in the news-

    • INS Tir and INS Sujata are set to participate in the second edition of the India-Mozambique-Tanzania (IMT) Tri-Lateral (TRILAT) Exercise.

    Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024

    • It is a biennial exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
    • The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.
    • It seeks to enhance India’s commitment to maritime security and cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region.
    • Through this joint exercise, the Indian Navy aims to foster mutual trust and understanding with its maritime partners in Mozambique and Tanzania.

    Phases of the Exercise

    • Harbour Phase: Activities include joint harbour training such as Damage Control, Fire Fighting, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, Medical Lectures, Casualty Evacuation, and Diving operations.
    • Sea Phase: Focuses on countering asymmetric threats, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, boat handling, manoeuvres, firing exercises, and joint EEZ surveillance.

    PYQ:

    2017: Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

    1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
    2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about Exercise IMT TRILAT:

    1. It is an annual exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
    2. The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  • RBI and SEBI: India’s Financial Landscape under Scrutiny

    Why in the news-

    • Recent actions by both India’s banking regulator RBI and the securities watchdog SEBI have startled the market, exposing various malpractices in the financial sector.

    Context

    • Banking Sector: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) faces political scrutiny following the Supreme Court’s ban on anonymous political funding instruments introduced by the government in 2018. Its oversight was questioned amidst concerns about opaque corporate donations in the Electoral Bonds Scheme which was recently held unconstitutional.
    • Securities Market: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is under pressure to address concerns about asset price inflation, concentrated positions in illiquid shares, and excessive speculation among retail investors. Its credibility was questioned after Hindenburg Research’s allegations.

    Financial Landscape and its Regulation

    [1] Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

    • The RBI is the central bank and monetary authority of India.
    • It is established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
    • Its idea was incepted from the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
    • It is a centralized institution for India to effectively regulate its monetary and credit policies.
    • RBI had its initial headquarters in Kolkata, later moving permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
    • Initially, the RBI operated as a privately owned entity until its full nationalization in 1949.

    Key Regulatory Functions of the RBI:

    (i) Monetary Policy:

    • The RBI formulates and implements monetary policies to achieve price stability, economic growth, and financial stability.
    • The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) determines the policy interest rates, such as the repo rate, reverse repo rate, and marginal standing facility rate, based on inflation targeting and growth objectives.
    • By adjusting these rates, the RBI influences money supply, credit flow, and interest rates in the economy.

    (ii) Banking Regulation and Supervision:

    • The RBI regulates and supervises banks and financial institutions to ensure their stability, soundness, and compliance with regulatory norms.
    • It issues guidelines, directives, and prudential regulations covering aspects like capital adequacy, asset quality, management effectiveness, and liquidity risk management.
    • The RBI conducts regular inspections, audits, and assessments of banks to assess their financial health and adherence to regulations.
    • It also intervenes in troubled banks to protect depositors’ interests and maintain financial stability.

    (iii) Payment and Settlement Systems:

    • The RBI manages and oversees payment and settlement systems to ensure efficiency, safety, and reliability in financial transactions.
    • It operates the Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system for large-value transactions and the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) system for retail transactions.
    • The RBI formulates regulations and standards for payment systems, promotes innovation in payment technologies, and monitors systemically important payment infrastructures to mitigate risks and enhance resilience.

    (iv) Financial Markets Regulation:

    • The RBI regulates and supervises financial markets, including money, bonds, foreign exchange, and derivative markets, to maintain market integrity and investor confidence.
    • It issues guidelines, directives, and regulations governing market participants, intermediaries, and trading activities.
    • The RBI monitors market developments, enforces compliance with regulations, and intervenes in markets to address disorderly conditions, liquidity shortages, or excessive volatility.
    • It also conducts open market operations (OMOs) to manage liquidity and stabilize interest rates.

    [2] Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

    • SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
    • Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
    • It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
    • SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
    • Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.

    Key Regulatory Functions of the SEBI:

    (i) Formulating Regulations:

    • SEBI formulates regulations, guidelines, and directives to govern various aspects of the securities market.
    • This includes regulations related to public issuances, disclosures, insider trading, takeover bids, corporate governance, and investor protection.

    (ii) Monitoring Market Participants:

    • SEBI regulates and supervises market intermediaries such as stock exchanges, brokers, merchant bankers, portfolio managers, and mutual funds.
    • It sets eligibility criteria, registration requirements, and conduct norms for these entities and monitors their compliance with regulations.

    (iii) Overseeing Market Infrastructure:

    • SEBI oversees the functioning of stock exchanges, clearing corporations, depositories, and other market infrastructure institutions.
    • It ensures that these entities maintain adequate systems, procedures, and safeguards to facilitate fair, transparent, and efficient trading and settlement operations.

    (iv) Enforcing Securities Laws:

    • SEBI enforces securities laws and regulations by conducting inspections, investigations, and enforcement actions against violations.
    • It has the authority to impose penalties, suspend licenses, and initiate legal proceedings against individuals or entities found to be engaged in fraudulent or unfair practices.

    (v) Regulating Securities Offerings:

    • SEBI regulates public offerings of securities, including initial public offerings (IPOs), rights issues, and follow-on public offerings.
    • It reviews offer documents, ensures disclosure of material information to investors, and supervises the conduct of issuers, underwriters, and other intermediaries involved in the offering process.

    (vi) Monitoring Insider Trading and Market Manipulation:

    • SEBI monitors and regulates insider trading, market manipulation, and other fraudulent activities that can undermine market integrity.
    • It prohibits insider trading, imposes restrictions on share buybacks and open market operations, and investigates suspicious trading activities to maintain market fairness and transparency.

    PYQ:

     

    2015: In the light of Satyam Scandal (2009), discuss the changes brought in the corporate governance to ensure transparency and accountability.

     

    2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:​

    1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market.​
    2. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. ​
    3. The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. ​

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?​

    1. 1 only ​
    2. 1 and 2 only ​
    3. 3 only ​
    4. 2 and 3 only ​

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider the following statements:

    1. It was established in 1988 as a non-statutory body.
    2. It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
    3. It consists of a chairman, members from the Union Finance Ministry and the Reserve Bank of India.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

  • No Counseling to LGBTQ+ Persons against their Own Identity: Supreme Court

    Why in the news-

    • The Supreme Court issued a cautionary directive to judges regarding court-ordered counselling for LGBTQ+ individuals, emphasizing the need to respect their identity and sexual orientation.

    Context

     

    • Petition: The verdict stemmed from a habeas corpus petition filed by a Kerala-based woman seeking the whereabouts of her same-sex partner, highlighting the challenges faced by LGBTQ+ individuals in asserting their rights.
    • Coercion Concerns: Concerns were raised about court-ordered counselling potentially being used to coerce individuals against their sexual orientation or chosen partners, prompting the Supreme Court to address these apprehensions.

     

    Counselling to LGBTQ+ Persons: 

    [A] Guidelines and Observations

    • Avoiding Identity Suppression: Judges were cautioned against using counselling as a tool to coerce individuals into rejecting their LGBTQ+ identity or relationships, particularly when they are in distress or facing familial separation.
    • Upholding Constitutional Values: CJI underscored the importance of upholding constitutional values, urging judges to refrain from imposing their personal biases or societal prejudices during legal proceedings.
    • Empathy and Compassion: The verdict emphasized that judges must demonstrate sincere empathy and compassion towards LGBTQ+ individuals, ensuring that the principles of justice and equality guide legal decisions.

    [B] Guidelines for Courts

    • Embracing Diversity: Courts were directed to eschew social morality influenced by homophobic or transphobic views, prioritizing the protection of individual rights and freedoms.
    • Respecting Chosen Families: Acknowledging the significance of chosen families for LGBTQ+ individuals, the court highlighted the need to recognize and respect these relationships, especially in cases involving familial rejection or violence.

    LGBTQ+ Persons (Sexual Minority) Rights in India: An Overview

    • Decriminalization of Homosexuality: A watershed moment occurred on September 6, 2018, when the Supreme Court of India partially struck down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, which criminalized consensual same-sex relationships. This historic decision marked a crucial step towards recognizing the dignity and autonomy of LGBTQ+ individuals.
    • Recognition of Transgender Rights: In 2014, the Supreme Court recognized transgender individuals as the third gender and affirmed their fundamental rights under the Constitution in the landmark case of National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014). This judgment laid the foundation for legal recognition and protection of transgender rights in India.

    Several key legal cases and judgments have shaped the evolution of LGBTQ rights in India:

    1. Naz Foundation Govt. v. NCT of Delhi (2009): The Delhi High Court ruled that Section 377 of the IPC violated fundamental rights guaranteed under the Indian Constitution, including privacy and equality. This judgment was a crucial step forward in recognizing the rights of LGBTQ individuals.
    2. Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation (2013): The Supreme Court overturned the Delhi High Court’s judgment, recriminalizing homosexuality. This decision was met with widespread criticism and sparked renewed activism for LGBTQ rights in India.
    3. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014): This landmark judgment recognized transgender individuals as the third gender and affirmed their fundamental rights under the Constitution. It laid the groundwork for ensuring equality and non-discrimination for the transgender community.
    4. K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India (2017): This case affirmed the right to privacy as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution. The judgment recognized that discrimination based on sexual orientation is unconstitutional and emphasized the dignity and autonomy of individuals.
    5. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018): The Supreme Court decriminalized homosexuality and struck down Section 377 of the IPC. The court recognized the rights of LGBTQ individuals to intimacy, autonomy, and identity, setting a precedent for equality and non-discrimination.

    Future Prospects 

    [A] Extension of ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology) Rights  

    • The Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) Rights bill, as currently formulated, does not adequately extend to LGBTQ+ persons due to several factors:
    1. Definition of Commissioning Couple: It restricts access to ART services to “infertile married couples,” excluding same-sex couples and individuals in same-sex relationships.
    2. Requirement of Legal Marriage: Since same-sex marriage isn’t recognized in India, LGBTQ+ couples are automatically excluded from accessing ART services.
    3. Narrow Definition of Infertility: The bill’s definition overlooks the unique reproductive challenges faced by LGBTQ+ individuals and couples.
    4. Gender-Binary Language and Restrictions: Gender-binary language and restrictions exclude transgender and gender non-conforming individuals from accessing ART services.
    5. Lack of Recognition of Diverse Identities: The bill fails to accommodate the diverse identities within the LGBTQ+ community, neglecting their specific needs and concerns regarding assisted reproduction.

    [B] Child Adoption 

    • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR): It had opposed the adoption rights of same-sex couples.
    • Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 (JJ Act): It allows heterosexual married couples, and single and divorced persons to adopt.
    • Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 (HAMA): It permits any male or female Hindu of sound mind to adopt, and for couples to adopt with the consent of their spouse.
    • Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA): It permits applications from adoptive parents in live-in relationships, which it examines on a case-to-case basis.

    However, in October 2023 the Supreme Court ruled that Regulation 5(3) of the CARA Regulations, insofar as it prohibited unmarried and queer couples from adopting, violated Article 15 of the Constitution.

    While India’s Supreme Court declined to legalise same-sex marriage and did not explicitly grant gay couples adoption rights.

     

    PYQ:

    2020: Customs and traditions suppress reason leading to obscurantism. Do you agree?

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code which sought to decriminalize homosexuality was struck down in the landmark case of-

    1. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
    2. Naz Foundation Govt. v. NCT of Delhi
    3. Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation
    4. None of these