Author: Amit Bhardwaj

Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (Promotion and Facilitating) Act (APLM), 2017

The Agriculture Ministry unveiled the draft law in April.

It would be a major agri-reform as it provides wider options for farmers to sell produce and get better prices. At present, farmers can sell their produce at regulated APMC (Agriculture Produce Marketing Committee) mandis only. They are subjected to different kinds of fees.

Its implementation will help in doubling farmers’ income by 2022.

The purpose is to create a single agri-market where with single licence one can trade agri-produce as well as livestock. The government’s aim is to set up a wholesale market at every 80 km. The new law will end the monopoly of APMC and allow more players to set up markets and create competition so that farmers can discover prices and sell their produce accordingly. APMC will be one of the markets. It will have no regulatory powers. The law promotes multiple market channels like private market yards, direct marketing and even godowns and silos can be notified as markets.

The law seeks to set a separate authority to regulate all agri-markets including APMC and provide trading licences.

It caps market fee (including developmental and other charges) at not more than 1 per cent for fruit and vegetables, and 2 per cent for foodgrain. It caps commission agents’ fee at not more than 2 per cent for non-perishables and 4 per cent for perishables.

Other proposals in the model APMC Act include promotion of national market for agriculture produce through provisioning of inter-State trading licence, grading and standardisation and quality certification, rationalisation of market fee and commission charges, provision for special commodity market yard and promotion of e-trading to increase transparency.

The model Act also calls for full democratisation of market committee and State/UT Marketing Board.

Question in Previous Year:

Q. There is also a point of view that Agricultural Produce Market Committees (APMCs) set up under the State Acts have not only impeded the development of agriculture but also have been the cause of food inflation in India. Critically examine. (GS 3, 2014)

source

The Incident: The elections for urban local bodies in Nagaland—slated to be held on 1 February—were postponed in the light of violent protests.

The Issue: Tribal traditional bodies, exclusively run by men, are opposed to 33 per cent reservation for women in elections to civic bodies.

The Argument:  Article 234(T) of the Constitution, which provides for 33 per cent reservation for women in local body elections, would “infringe upon Naga traditions and customs”.

 

Backgrounder:

1992: The Constitution amended to provide 33% reservation for women in municipalities.

1993: Article 243(T) of the Constitution, which provides for 33 per cent reservation for women in local bodies, came into force.

2001: Nagaland passed its Municipal and Town Council Act but didn’t include the reservation provision

2004: Nagaland held ULB polls without providing the mandatory right to women.

2005: The Gauhati high court, acting on a petition, directed Nagalandto include women reservation; The state government amended its municipal Act and included the provision.

2009: Even after this, the state government couldn’t conduct fresh elections to ULBs due to opposition from tribal bodies.

2011: Naga Mothers’ Association (NMA) received a favourable judgment from a single-judge bench of the Gauhati High Court.

July 2012: A division bench set asides the 2011 single bench judgment.

Sep 2012: Nagaland Assembly Resolution opposed 33 per cent quota.

Nov 2016: Assembly revoked its resolution of September 2012.

 

What followed: The tribal bodies protested loudly as soon as the elections were announced and threatened candidates who intended to file nominations that they would be ex-communicated from their respective tribes. The Naga Hoho, the body that represents the state’s 16 tribal groups, contends that the reservation violates the safeguards to the tribal customary laws provided by the Constitution’s Article 371A. Coming under pressure, some candidates didn’t file nominations and some others withdrew their papers. Those who refused to withdraw from the fray were ex-communicated, ranging from 10 to 30 years.

When the State government refused to call off the elections, the tribal bodies announced a bandh from January 28 to February 1. They enforced the bandh across Nagaland although elections took place in several places on February 1.

Meanwhile, on January 31, two persons were killed in Dimapur, the commercial capital of the State. Things soon took an ugly turn, and the Nagaland government declared the elections ‘null and void’.

But even before the bandh call, the focus had started shifting from women’s reservation to issues of taxes and land ownership contained in the Nagaland Municipal (Third Amendment) Bill 2016.

The Other Side: The women’s rights groups in the state argue that since municipalities and town councils are not customary institutions, women should be entitled to the reservations in these urban local bodies mandated by the 74th amendment to the Constitution. At 76.69 per cent, women’s literacy in Nagaland is far above the national average. Naga women work in fields, excel in business, and as academics and professionals. But customary laws prevent them from claiming rights to land or inheriting ancestral property. Since Rano Mese Shaiza was elected to the Lok Sabha in 1977, no Naga woman has made it to Parliament. The Nagaland state assembly has never had a woman member. It is unfortunate that another chance to resolve these contradictions has been lost.

What next? The Nagaland government has decided to write to the Centre demanding that Nagaland be exempted from Part IX A of the Constitution.  If  Nagaland is exempted from the purview of Part IX of the Constitution, Naga women will have absolutely no hope of entering into and participating in decision-making bodies.

Reservation for women is necessary in patriarchal societies like Naga society, for instance, where there is a historical culture of inequalities even though Nagas don’t practise sati, female foeticide and infanticide, and do not believe in dowry or the caste system. But Naga customs, culture and traditions preclude women from inheriting land and participating in the decision-making process, which is exactly what Article 371(A) protects.

P.S.: While the all-male tribal bodies have been opposing women’s reservation in civic bodies, Nagaland has had 25 per cent reservation for women in the village development boards (VDB). It was Section 50 of the Nagaland Village and Area Council Act of 1978 that provided for such a reservation.

Leading Nagaland editor and author Monalisa Changkija said, “In the controversy over 33 per cent reservation for women, the most pertinent aspect hasn’t been discussed yet – the economic connotations inherent in politically empowering women through reservations. Naively assuming that such reservations violate Article 371(A) and would affect Naga culture and customs would be to miss the whole point of the argument against the reservations. The core of the issue – like most other issue – is ownership of land and related resources. Naga culture and customs debar women from land ownership hence our Customary Laws preclude women from inheriting land.”

She also says that Naga society has never held men and women to be equals. “This is reinforced by Naga male-dominated tribal bodies’ recent diktat to ex-communicate anyone who contested the civic elections with 33% women’s reservation. Women’s reservation is necessitated in patriarchal societies for reasons of inequalities that are ubiquitous in Naga society – even if we don’t practice dowry, sati, female foeticide, infanticide and the caste-system.”

That women do not find political space in Nagaland is evident from the fact that no woman has ever made it to the State Legislative Assembly since the state was formed in 1963. Barely a dozen women have contested Assembly elections in these five decades. One woman, Rano M Shaiza, however, managed to win from the lone Lok Sabha constituency of the state. That was in 1977 and she remains the first and only woman to achieve that feat.

In the 2013 Assembly polls, the female voter turn-out in the state stood at 91.22 per cent as against 89.82 per cent for men. However, the sex ratio in Nagaland, according to the 2011 Census, stood at 931, below the national average of 940.

Article 371(A) of the Indian Constitution (Special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland) states, “Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, (a) no Act of Parliament in respect of (i) religious or social practices of the Nagas, (ii) Naga customary law and procedure, (iii) administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, (iv) ownership and transfer of land and its resources, shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by a resolution so decides.”

Previous Year Questions on similar lines:

Q. Recent directives from Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas are perceived by the `Nagas’ as a threat to override the exceptional status enjoyed by the State. Discuss in light of Article 371A of the Indian Constitution. (GS 2, 2013)

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. South Asia Sub-regional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) is a very recent grouping of Asian Development Bank to promote regional prosperity.
2. Myanmar has become the latest country to join SASEC.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q.2) The government of India recently launched ‘SAMPADA’ as an umbrella scheme for which of the following sectors?

a) Civil Supplies

b) Financial Services

c) Food Processing

d) Information Technology

 

Q.3) Consider the following statements about ‘Huygens’:

1. It was a lander released on Saturn’s largest moon, Titan.
2. It was a joint project of Italian Space Agency, NASA and European Space Agency.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q.4) Cassini spacecraft, which recently made its final plunge into the Saturn, was launched in 1997 from

a) Kennedy Space Centre

b) Vandenberg Air Force Base

c) Patrick Air Force Base

d) Cape Canaveral

 

Q.5) Which of the following statements about the ‘Brane Craft’ is/are not correct?

1. It is being developed jointly by NASA and European Space Agency
2. It is a spacecraft being developed to remove space debris

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q.6) The Golden Lion Award winning movie at the recently concluded Venice Film Festival has been directed by

a) Guillermo del Toro

b) Alexander Payne

c) Xavier Legrand

d) Samuel Maoz

 

Q.7) Which of the following is/are among the features of the recently launched ‘iPhone X’ by Apple Inc.?

1. Wireless charging
2. Facial recognition
3. Organic Light-Emitting Diode (OLED) Screen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 2 only

d) 1 and 3 only

 

Q.8) Cox’s Bazar, Ukhia and Shah Porir Dwip which have recently been in news are located in

a) Bhutan

b) India

c) Myanmar

d) Bangladesh

 

Q.9) Foundation stone of the Ahmedabad-Mumbai bullet train project was recently laid. This bullet train shall not pass through

a) Jamnagar

b) Vadodara

c) Surat

d) Anand

 

Q.10) Article 371A of the Indian Constitution contains special provision in respect to the state of

a) Tripura

b) Manipur

c) Nagaland

d) Meghalaya

 

Q.11) Astra, which successfully completed development trials recently, is indigenously developed

a) nuclear powered submarine

b) unmanned air vehicle

c) beyond visual range air-to-air missile

d) nuclear capable surface-to-air missile

 

Q.12) Which of the following has not been added as a new event in the Olympics by the International Olympic Committee?

a) Water Polo

b) Karate

c) Skateboard

d) Sport Climbing

 

Q.13) Which of the following statements about Sickle cell anaemia is not correct?

a) It is a genetic blood disorder

b) It results in an abnormality in the oxygen-carrying haemoglobin

c) Malnutrition is a major cause of sickle cell anaemia

d) Tribes of south Indian States are naturally immune to it

 

Q.14) Which of the following is not an auction house?

a) Sotheby’s

b) Fitch

c) Bonham’s

d) Phillips

 

Q.15) What is Global Financial Integrity (GFI)?

a) A intergovernmental think-tank that undertakes research to stem the flow of illegal money

b) A for-profit US-based think tank that provides service to the government organizations to study the flow of illegal money

c) An organization working under the aegis of the World Bank that entertains specific requests from the countries to track illegal money

d) A non-profit research and advisory organization that quantifies and studies the flow of illegal money

 

Q.16) Which of the following was renamed as the Abdul Kalam Island after the former President of India?

a) Sriharikota

b) Wheeler Island

c) Thumba

d) Byalalu

 

Q.17) Which of the following is/are biofuel crops ?

1. Corn
2. Wheat
3. Soyabean
4. Jatropha
5. Sugarcane

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 4 and 5 only

b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

c) 1, 2 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

Q.18) CORPAT is a maritime exercise between India and

a) Indonesia

b) Malaysia

c) Japan

d) Singapore

 

Q.19) Which of the following statements is correct about the new series of WPI index?

a) The base year has been revised to 2014-15

b) The weight of primary items has increased to 64.2 per cent

c) The number of items covered in the new series has decreased to 657

d) The weight of fuel and power has decreased to 13.1 per cent

 

Q.20) Pneumonia in children may be caused by

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q.21) Which of the following Indian Cities have been selected under the global mobility programme, ‘Mobilise Your City’ ?

a) Chandigarh, Jabalpur and Pune

b) Ambala, Hyderabad, and Shillong

c) Ahmedabad, Kochi and Nagpur

d) Gauhati, Jhansi and Nellore

 

Q.22) Read the following paragraph carefully:

“On December 13, 1931, he set sail on the French ship, Amboise, on a voyage that would take him to the Soviet Union and other countries in Europe. Heralding his Soviet tour, he published a part translation of The Communist Manifesto. Soon after his arrival, he made the mandatory visit to the Lenin Mausoleum in Red Square. He visited the Baku oilfields in Azerbaijan, Sukhumi in Abkhazia, and Tbilisi in Georgia.”

Identify the nationalist referred to in the above paragraph.

a) Tiruppur Kumaran

b) Vanchinathan

c) V.O. Chidambaram Pillai

d) Erode Venkatappa Ramasamy

 

Q.23) Kalamkari painting refers to

a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India

b) a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India

c) a block-painted woolen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India

d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India

 

Q.24) p and q are natural numbers such that sum of their cubes is 1729. Then which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. p×q is even
2. p+q odd

Select the correct alternative using the codes given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q.25) Sum of all three digit natural numbers, which are divisible by 11, is

a) 44550

b) 44450

c) 43550

d) 43450

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Get the solutions here- Click2download

Q.1) In February 2016, Ms. Archana Ramasundaram became the first woman Director-General of

a) Central Reserve Police Force

b) Border Security Force

c) Sashastra Seema Bal

d) Central Industrial Security Force

 

Q.2) Consider the following statements about the Pangong Tso Lake which was recently in news:

1. It is a brackish water lake.
2. Spiti river drains into it.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q.3) For environmental release and use in the fields of the genetically modified seeds, the clearance/approval of which of the following bodies is required?

1. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
2. The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q.4) Consider the following pairs:

           <u>Physicist</u>                               <u>Major Contribution / Discovery</u>

1. Christiaan Huygens             Law of electromagnetic Induction
2. James Clerk Maxwell          Wave Theory of Light
3. Victor Francis Hess             Cosmic Radiation
4. Paul Dirac                           Theory of nuclear forces

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 3 only

 

Q.5) Which of the following countries severed its relations with Taiwan and established diplomatic ties with China in June?

a) Sao Tome

b) Panama

c) Nicaragua

d) Fiji

 

Q.6) Which of the following pairs with reference to the member and portfolio held in the interim government (1946) is not correctly matched?

a) Jawahar Lal Nehru : External Affairs

b) Rajendra Prasad : Defence

c) C Rajagopalachari : Education and Arts

d) John Mathai : Industries and Supply

 

Q.7) Which among the following fundamental forces of nature operates over the shortest range

a) Gravitational force

b) Strong nuclear force

c) Weak nuclear force

d) Electromagnetic force

 

Q.8) Which of the following was not a feature introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919?

a) Dual scheme of governance

b) Communal representation

c) Bicameralism

d) Separate provincial and central budgets

 

Q.9) Which of the following is not a part of the procedure to remove a High Court judge from its office?

a) A motion signed by at least 50 Rajya Sabha members or 100 Lok Sabha members is presented to the Presiding officer of the House

b) A three member committee is constituted to investigate the charges

c) The President makes the report of this committee be laid down on the floor of the Houses

d) The motion is passed by a special majority of both the Houses and an address is made to the President for the removal of the judge

 

Q.10) One unified atomic mass unit is defined as

a) (1/12) of the mass of an atom of Carbon-12 isotope excluding the mass of electrons

b) (1/12) of the mass of an atom of Carbon-14 isotope including the mass of electrons

c) (1/12) of the mass of an atom of Carbon-12 isotope including the mass of electrons

d) (1/12) of the mass of an atom of Carbon-14 isotope excluding the mass of electrons

 

Q.11) ‘Dfc’ type of climate is found in

a) Tamil Nadu Coast

b) Arunachal Pradesh

c) Kerala and Karnataka coast

d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

 

Q.12) Which of the following states has become the first state in the country to have a cyber-police station in each district simultaneously?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Gujarat

c) Kerala

d) Maharashtra

 

Q.13) Strait of Bosporus separates the continents of

a) Asia and Europe

b) Europe and North America

c) Asia and Africa

d) Africa and Europe

 

Q.14) The ruins of Vijayanagara at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by

a) Colonel Colin Mackenzie

b) Sir John Shore

c) Andrew Fraser

d) John Marshall

 

Q.15) At which one of the following places the largest mammal found has adapted to take up its fresh water supply from the morning dew on the leaves?

a) Karang Island in Loktak Lake

b) Pirotan Island in Gulf of Kutch

c) Nalaban Island in Chilka Lake

d) Rutland Island in Andaman & Nicobar

 

Q.16) Relation between Plants, Mangroves and Halophytes is best represented by

a) two distinct concentric circles and a third non-overlapping circle

b) three distinct concentric circles

c) three distinct circles with some portion of each overlapping with some portion of other two

d) three distinct non-overlapping circles

 

Q.17) Which of the following paramilitary forces was raised as ‘Cacher Levy’ ?

a) Sashastra Seema Bal

b) Border Security Force

c) Assam Rifles

d) Central Industrial Security Force

 

Q.18) Let n be a natural number. Consider the following statements about the number (1+ square of n + fourth power of n) :

1. It is always odd.
2. It can be represented as product of two odd natural numbers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q.19) Consider the following statements:

1. Solar storms result from an accumulation of magnetic energy.
2. They can disrupt high-frequency radio communications on earth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q.20) Which of the following is/are used in making imitation jewellery?

1. Lead
2. Chromium
3. Heptachlor

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q.21) Examine the Statement I and Statement II given below carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Statement I : Recent discovery of boron on Mars has bolstered the theory that the Red Planet  may have once been habitable.

Statement II : Boron gives stability to ribose which is a key ingredient of RNA.

a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.

c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q.22) Examine the Statement I and Statement II given below carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Statement I : The Palaeocene-Eocene Thermal Maximum, PETM, was the most rapid and extreme natural global warming event of last 66 million years.

Statement II : PETM lasted for about 150 thousand years.

a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.

c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q.23) Who are ‘Agariyas’?

a) metal workers of Murshidabad

b) weavers of Pochampalli

c) salt farmers of Rann of Kutch

d) tribal dancers of Niyamgiri hills

 

Q.24)  Which of the following cities has become the first city in India to be recognized as a ‘World Heritage City’?

a) Mumbai

b) Ahmedabad

c) Gwalior

d) Patan

 

Q.25) Which of the following is not a member country of the European Free Trade Association?

a) Norway

b) Switzerland

c) Iceland

d) Sweden

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<h3>Download solutions here- <span style=”color: #ff9900;”>Click2download</span></h3>

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What is the examination conducted for?

For recruitment of Assistant Commandants (Group A) in the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) viz. Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force(CISF) and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).

What is the time line of this examination?

Applications are invited in April –May and the examination is conducted in July.

What is the minimum educational qualification required to take the examination?

A Bachelor’s degree of a University incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess an equivalent qualification.

What is the selection procedure?

(i) Written Examination:

Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence (GAI) – 250 Marks – MCQ type.

Paper II : General Studies, Essay and Comprehension – 200 Marks – Essay, Precis Writing, Comprehension and other communications/ language skills.

There will be minimum qualifying marks separately in each Paper. Paper-I will be evaluated first and evaluation of Paper-II will be done only of those candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I.

(ii) Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests:

If you qualify in the written  examination, you  will  be  summoned  for  Physical Standards/  Physical  Efficiency  Tests  and  Medical  Standards  Tests.

(iii) Interview/Personality Test:

The final merit  list  will  be  drawn  on  the  basis  of  marks  obtained  by  the candidates in the Written Examination and Interview/Personality Test.

Is there negative marking in objective type question paper?

Yes. There will be negative marking for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Paper.

Why CAPF when I know I can clear CSE?

With due reverence to your confidence, UPSC remains unpredictable. You shall never know what went wrong and there is absolutely no harm in having a go at another prestigious exam, just in case…

But can I prepare for CAPF along with my CSE preparation?

Absolutely! Both the Examinations are conducted by the same recruitment agency and the syllabus of General Ability and Intelligence (Paper I) of CAPF is similar to the General Studies (Paper I) of the CSE-Prelims.

In fact, the two preparations can and should go hand in hand. The questions in GAI are more factual and it is not surprising to find similar questions in CSP with UPSC bent on throwing a surprise element in every Prelims. What you learn for CSP comes handy for CAPF and vice-versa. General Studies, Essay and Comprehension paper of CAPF can act as official practice test for the compulsory English paper for CSM, if not anything else.

How is CD’s CAPF module going to help me?

CD’s CAPF module has been designed in a way to get you just what you need for clearing CAPF with no extraneous variables thrown in. The module has been designed to ensure that you do not lose focus on CSE but at the same time sew in the CAPF efforts in the same fabric without marshalling any extra efforts. Moreover, the tests for CAPF series are fashioned in a way to fill in any gap that you might have left in your preparation to give you a holistic preparation module.

You will find timely updates on the website forum and the archive blogs can be read here – CAPF

To give you first hand example for how CAPF and CSE preparation can be wedded together, consider the following example:

National Company Law Tribunal has been making headlines for some time now in the context of insolvency proceedings being initiated. Now from the same topic, question can appear in both GAI (CAPF Paper 1) and CSP as under:

CAPF Paper1: (GAI type)

Which of the following statements about NCLT is correct?

a) NCLT is a constitutional body

b) Only banks can approach NCLT against corporate debtors

c) NCLT has been constituted under the Insolvency Code, 2016

d) Employees can approach NCLT against their employers

CSP type:

Consider the following statements:

1. NCLT is a quasi-judicial body.
2. It has been created under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Dear all,

This is a new initiative for CSE students who are also thinking of appearing for the CAPF exam. I will be carrying out weekly quizzes and some blogs on request (of students) to begin with and then depending upon your enthusiasm, we will take this forward into a full blown – one stop solution for your CAPF preparation needs.

• To know more about CAPF, click to read here
• To download the question paper of UPSC CAPF AC 2017, click here

This thread will be made sticky every week and all CAPF related posts will be available for your review here (click).

<p id=”YJPACAYxAtq” class=”line”>UPSC CAPF examination is divided into two papers, consisting of 450 marks in total. Candidates are tested on their general ability and intelligence and general studies, essay and comprehension skills. Selected candidates will be called for interview round conducted by SSB to fill 179 vacancies in BSF (Border Security Force), CRPF (Central Reserve Personnel Force), CISF (Central Industrial Security Force) and SSB(Shashatra Seema Bal).

The solutions will be uploaded here sometime towards the midweek and doubts will be resolved here itself. 

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Q.1) The book ‘Dereliction of Duty’ accounts the decisions leading up to the USA’s involvement in

a) Vietnam War

b) Second World War

c) Israel-Palestine Conflict

d) Yom Kippur War

 

Q.2) Which of the following became the first country in the world to appoint a special “digital ambassador” in its administration to work on building ties with the globe’s technology giants?

a) Sweden

b) Denmark

c) Norway

d) Iceland

 

Q.3) Which of the following statements is correct about ‘Karang’?

a) It is an island in Chilka lake

b) It is the first cashless island in India

c) It is inhabited by Dongria Kondhs

d) It is the first completely solar powered island in India

 

Q.4) Which of the following states has no designated Tiger Reserve?

a) Karnataka

b) Gujarat

c) Bihar

d) Rajasthan

 

Q.5) Who of the following have been recently awarded the Japanese Government’s Grand Cordon of the Order of the Rising Sun in recognition of his achievements in bolstering India-Japan ties?

a) Ratan N Tata

b) Ashwani Kumar

c) Narendra Modi

d) Mukesh Ambani

 

Q.6) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. HDFC Bank : Launched a ‘humanoid’ in its branch

2. ICICI Bank : Introduced contactless credit cards

3. Citi Bank : Introduced voice biometrics authentication

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q.7) MERCOSUR is a sub-regional political and economic bloc among the countries belonging to

a) Oceania

b) Western Europe

c) Africa

d) South America

 

Q.8) Scientists from Ireland have claimed discovery of a new human organ named the ‘mesentery’ that exists in the

a) nervous system

b) digestive system

c) cardiovascular system

d) muscular system

 

Q.9) The United Nations General Assembly has declared the year 2017 as the

a) International Year of Sustainable Harvesting of the Oceans

b) International Year of Sustainable Use of Forests for Aborigine Development

c) International Year of Sustainable Agriculture for Food Security

d) International Year of Sustainable Tourism for Development

 

Q.10) As per the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016, individual insolvencies shall be heard before the

a) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India

b) Insolvency Professional Agencies

c) National Company Law Tribunal

d) Debt Recovery Tribunals

 

Q.11) The book ‘I do What I Do: On Reform, Rhetoric & Resolve’ has been authored by

a) a former Supreme Court Judge

b) a former RBI Governor

c) a former Finance Minister

d) a former CAG

 

Q.12) The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any, claimed exceeds

a) Rs. 10 Lakh

b) Rs. 20 Lakhs

c) Rs. 1 Crore

d) Rs. 5 Crore

 

Q.13) Under II Schedule to the Allocation of Business Rules, 1961, which of the following departments have been entrusted the role to promote e-Governance activities in consonance with the overall national objectivities and priorities?

a) Department of Electronics and Information Technology

b) Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

c) Department of Science and Technology

d) None of the above

 

Q.14) Consider the following statements:

1. The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB) is headquartered in Beijing.

2. The first regional office of NDB has been launched in Johannesburg.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q.15) GeneXpert is a technology tool used to detect the causative organism of

a) Dengue

b) Tuberculosis

c) Chikungunya

d) Kala-azar

 

Q.16) Ministerial Conference is the highest decision making body of

a) UNFCCC

b) IMF

c) WTO

d) World Bank

 

Q.17) President of which of the following countries was recently impeached by its Parliament?

a) Singapore

b) South Korea

c) Myanmar

d) Sri Lanka

 

Q.18) A, B, C, D, E and F, each attempted a question set containing 100 questions. A attempted 10 questions more than that attempted by D. E attempted same number of questions as A and F together. B attempted same number of questions as F. C attempted 5 questions more than those attempted by A and B together. Who attempted the highest number of questions?

a) B

b) F

c) E

d) C

 

Q.19) Which of the following is specifically related to the phasing out of persistent organic pollutants?

a) Stockholm Convention

b) Bonn Convention

c) Kigali Agreement

d) Montreal Protocol

 

Q.20) Which of the following events was recently commemorated on its bicentenary?

a) Pahariya rebellion

b) Paika rebellion

c) Kol uprising

d) Ho uprising

 

Q.21) Examine the Statement I and Statement II given below carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Statement I : There is a growing demand of the leaves of siali, a creeper, in international market.

Statement II : Siali leaves are a rich source of biofuel.

a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.

c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q.22) Examine the Statement I and Statement II given below carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Statement I : ISRO’s IRNSS-1H satellite launch was unsuccessful.

Statement II : A leakage in the fuel tank led to an explosion in the launch vehicle.

a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.

c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q.23) The States of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Odisha were recently in news due to

a) an outbreak of bird flu in these states

b) the communal violence that broke out in these states

c) the unprecedented rise in infant mortality in these states

d) the devastating floods that battered these states

 

Q.24)  The average of 15 consecutive integers is 0. If these integers are arranged in an ascending order, then the average of last eight integers is

a) 1.5

b) 2.5

c) 3.5

d) 4.5

 

Q.25) p, q and r are positive real numbers such that p + q + r = 6. Then the maximum value of (p+q)(q+r)(r+p) is

a) 256

b) 32

c) 64

d) 16

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Dear Batch of 2017,

Before I begin, let me convey my heartfelt wishes to each one of you.

Heartiest congratulations to you for making it through one of the toughest examination against all odds, against all failures and against all hopes of those who thought you cannot do it!

So, how are you all doing this morning?

I know it is quite chilly these days in Mussoorie but then you have to blame yourself for being the brightest among the bright and deserving a seat here in this auditorium of LBSNAA.

Just the other day when you all turned up for registration at the Academy, I had a chance to interact with few amongst you and the otherwise cursory introduction drifted into the stories of your struggles, your perseverance and your unflinching resolve to be here. And though unprecedented for an induction programme but that is exactly what I am going to talk about here today.

Let me begin with the story of the one amongst you who was conveniently labelled a non-performer, a good-for-nothing fellow who had already flunked at the Mains thrice but still would not stop himself from working even harder. And finally this year he did it. He did it because, he had no other choice but to do it. It did not matter that he was not an IITian. It did not matter that he belonged to a remote village where electricity is a privilege. It did not matter that he had to borrow books. It did not matter that he had to face the scathing comments on every failure. The one thing and the only thing that mattered was his resolve. His resolve to do it. And he did it.

Sitting two rows in front of him is a teary-eyed girl whose story itself is not an iota less remarkable. In fact, for her it was even more arduous. Born into a family where marrying off the girls at the earliest is the norm and where a girl who dares to study beyond high school is thought to have become ‘non-marriageable’, she not only had to fight the world outside but even within. She had to bear the vitriolic “Yeh Collectorni banengi”, “Shaadi karo aur ‘iske’ ghar bhejo”, “Ladko ke liye naukri hai nahi, inhe aur chahiye”. But today she is sitting amongst you. She too did it. She did it because she became deaf to all the voices who said she cannot do it. She did it because she became oblivious to anything that tried to take her eyes off her target. She did it because she believed she can.

Each one of you is an example of indefatigable determination and unquenchable desire to be here. You marshalled all your courage and all your resources to single-mindedly focus on your goal. You did miss those weddings of distant relatives, birthdays, anniversaries, hug day, chocolate day and what-not day but now you know that your absenteeism in any of them did not make any difference to the world. But since you sacrificed it all that, you are today among those lucky ones who will make a world of difference to the world!

Favourable situations did not make you successful. As is the case, they were not conducive for hundreds who still made it to be here. No universe conspired to get you what you wanted. You forced the universe to give you what you wanted.

You could do it because you knew you don’t have to live an ordinary life till it ends and that for an extraordinary life, you have to make an extraordinary effort. And you did make that effort!

Regards