💥Join UPSC 2027,2028 Mentorship (July Batch) + XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF
Talk to Mentor

Civilsdaily

Login

Distribution: weekly

  • Gujarat deluge erases monsoon deficit, but overall rain still low

    Why in News?

    Heavy rainfall in Gujarat erased India’s July rainfall deficit, but the overall southwest monsoon (June-September) remains below normal.

    Key Highlights

    • Cumulative rainfall since 1 June is 16.1% below normal.
    • East & Northeast India: 31.9% rainfall deficit.
    • South Peninsula: 26.8% deficit.
    • Heavy rainfall in Gujarat resulted from a low-pressure system interacting with a Western Disturbance.
    • Over 40,500 people were evacuated and 6,367 rescued due to flooding.
    • Ahmedabad recorded 294.6 mm rainfall in 24 hours, its highest since 2000.
    • Weak El Niño conditions have contributed to uneven monsoon distribution, affecting agriculture.

    El Niño

    • Warm phase of the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
    • Characterised by warming of the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean.
    • Generally leads to weaker southwest monsoon and below-normal rainfall in India.

    IMD Classification of Rainfall

    • Normal: 96% to 104% of Long Period Average (LPA).
    • Below Normal: 90% to 96% of LPA.
    • Deficient: Less than 90% of LPA.

    Southwest Monsoon

    • Contributes nearly 75% of India’s annual rainfall.
    • Normally spans June to September.
    • Two branches:
      • Arabian Sea Branch
      • Bay of Bengal Branch

    PYQ (2014, GS1, 10 Marks) Most of the unusual climatic happenings are explained as an outcome of the El Niño effect. Do you agree?
    [2020] With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1.OMT is measured up to a depth of 26ºC isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January-March.
    2.OMT collected during January-March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Telecom infra data can’t be shared outside India, says Govt

    Why in News?

    The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has mandated that telecom infrastructure providers store and process telecom network data only within India.

    Key Highlights

    • DoT barred telecom infrastructure providers from sharing telecom network data outside India.
    • Covers cloud-based telecom networks, mobile tower operators, and satellite gateway providers.
    • Mandates that all telecom network systems, data, logs, and related information be stored within India.
    • No copies of such data can be routed, shared, or made available outside the country.
    • Issued under the authorisation framework of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, replacing the earlier licensing regime.

    Data Localisation

    • Refers to storing and processing data within the country’s borders.
    • Benefits:
      • Strengthens national security and cyber resilience.
      • Improves regulatory oversight and law enforcement access.
      • Enhances protection of critical digital infrastructure.
    • Challenges:
      • Higher compliance costs for companies.
      • Concerns over cross-border data flows and global cloud operations.

    Telecommunications Act, 2023

    • Replaced the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
    • Introduces an authorisation-based regime instead of licensing.
    • Aims to strengthen telecom security, spectrum management, user protection, and digital infrastructure governance.

    PYQ (2018, GS3, 15 Marks) Data security has assumed significant importance in the digitized world due to rising cyber crimes. The Justice B. N. Srikrishna Committee Report addresses issues related to data security. What, in your view, are the strengths and weaknesses of the Report relating to protection of personal data in cyberspace?

  • Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026

    Why in News?

    The Union Government introduced the Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026 in the Rajya Sabha to extend statutory protection to the National Song (Vande Mataram).

    Key Highlights

    • Introduced by Minister of State for Home Nityanand Rai.
    • Seeks to amend the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.
    • Extends penalties for insulting the National Flag, Constitution, and National Anthem to the National Song.
    • Opposition members argued that the Constituent Assembly intentionally did not accord the National Song the same constitutional status as the National Anthem.
    • The government cited Dr. Rajendra Prasad’s statement (24 January 1950) that both should enjoy equal respect.

    National Anthem

    • Jana Gana Mana, composed by Rabindranath Tagore.
    • Adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 24 January 1950.
    • Full rendition duration: 52 seconds.

    National Song

    • Vande Mataram, composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
    • Taken from the novel Anandamath (1882).
    • Only the first two stanzas enjoy official status as the National Song.

    Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971

    • Prohibits insults to the National Flag, Constitution, and National Anthem.
    • Prescribes imprisonment up to 3 years, or fine, or both.
    • The 2026 Amendment Bill seeks to include the National Song within its ambit.

    [2023] Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
    Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
    Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
    Which one of the following is correcti in respect of the above statements?

    [A] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l.

    [B] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

    [C] Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is incorrect is incorrect.

    [D] Statement-l is incorrect Statement-II is correct.

  • Zomato’s platform fee, delivery levy no abuse of dominance: CCI

    Why in News?

    The Competition Commission of India (CCI) ruled that Zomato’s platform fee, delivery charges, and commissions do not amount to abuse of dominant position or anti-competitive conduct.

    Key Highlights

    • CCI dismissed a consumer complaint against Zomato/Eternal over platform fees and price differences.
    • The higher online price was attributed to delivery charges, platform fee, and GST.
    • Restaurants stated that Zomato charges around 33% commission, leading some to increase online menu prices.
    • CCI held that online food delivery and in-person dining are distinct markets, making price differences commercially justifiable.
    • Mere price variation does not constitute an abuse of dominant position under competition law.

    Abuse of Dominant Position (Competition Act, 2002)

    • Dominance itself is not prohibited; only its abuse is.
    • Examples include:
      • Imposing unfair or discriminatory prices.
      • Limiting production or technical development.
      • Denying market access.
      • Leveraging dominance in one market to enter another.

    Competition Commission of India (CCI)

    • Statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002.
    • Came into effect in 2009.
    • Objective: Prevent anti-competitive practices, prohibit abuse of dominant position, regulate combinations (mergers and acquisitions), and promote fair competition.

    PYQ (2023, GS2, 10 Marks) Discuss the role of the Competition Commission of India in containing the abuse of dominant position by the Multi-National Corporations in India. Refer to the recent decisions.

    [2022] With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
    2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

    [D] 1, 2, 3 and 4

  • India paid $15 bn of imports in rupees in March-May

    Why in News?

    RBI data shows a sharp rise in rupee-denominated import payments, driven mainly by increased Russian crude oil purchases.

    Key Highlights

    • India settled imports worth ₹1.38 lakh crore (about $14.6 billion) in rupees during March-May 2026, accounting for 7.1% of merchandise imports.
    • This is a sharp increase from ₹42,506 crore (2.4% of imports) in December 2025-February 2026.
    • Russian crude imports reached $17.13 billion, up 30% YoY, aided by temporary US sanctions waivers.
    • Rupee-settled imports have steadily increased:
      • 2023-24: ₹99,680 crore
      • 2024-25: ₹1.13 lakh crore
      • 2025-26: ₹1.72 lakh crore
    • India’s merchandise trade deficit stood at $119 billion in 2025-26.
    • Benefits of Rupee Trade Settlement:
      • Reduces dependence on the US dollar.
      • Saves foreign exchange reserves.
      • Lowers exchange rate risk and transaction costs.
      • Promotes internationalisation of the Indian rupee.
    • Challenges:
      • Limited acceptance of the rupee by trading partners.
      • Persistent trade deficits reduce the recycling of rupee balances.

    Rupee Trade Settlement Mechanism (2022)

    • Introduced by the RBI in July 2022.
    • Enables invoicing, payment, and settlement of international trade in Indian rupees through Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVAs).
    • Aims to facilitate trade, reduce dollar dependence, and strengthen the rupee’s global use.

    PYQ (2015, GS3, 12.5 Marks) Craze for gold in Indians have led to a surge in import of gold in recent years and put pressure on balance of payments and external value of rupee. In view of this, examine the merits of Gold Monetization Scheme.

    [2022] With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
    1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
    2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
    3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
    Which of the above statements are correct?

    [A] 1 and 2 only

    [B] 1 and 2 only

    [C] 1 and 3 only

    [D] 1, 2 and 3

  • Govt. brings ₹3,030-cr. plan to set up three chemical parks

    Why in News?

    The Union Cabinet approved the BHAVYA-Rasayan Scheme to establish three chemical parks, aiming to boost domestic chemical manufacturing and attract private investment.

    Key Highlights

    • Cabinet approved the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana Rasayan (BHAVYA-Rasayan).
    • Three chemical parks of at least 2,000 acres each.
    • Total outlay: ₹3,030 crore.
    • Each park is expected to attract ₹20,000 crore to ₹50,000 crore in private investment.
    • Parks will provide common infrastructure such as CETPs, hazardous waste management, utilities, and logistics.

    Value Addition

    • India is the 6th largest chemical producer globally and 3rd largest in Asia.
    • The sector contributes about 7% of GDP, 14% of industrial output, and 11% of merchandise exports.
    • Chemical parks promote cluster-based manufacturing, reduce logistics costs, improve environmental compliance, and enhance export competitiveness.

    BHAVYA-Rasayan Scheme

    • Union Government scheme approved in July 2026.
    • Outlay: ₹3,030 crore.
    • Objective: Develop integrated chemical manufacturing hubs, attract investment, reduce import dependence, and strengthen Make in India.

    PYQ (2023, GS3, 10 Marks) Faster economic growth requires increased share of the manufacturing sector in GDP, particularly of MSMEs. Comment on the present policies of the Government in this regard.

    [2020] With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1.India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
    2.India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years.
    3.India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services.
    4.India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 4 only
    c) 3 only
    d) 1, 3 and 4 only

  • Warning signals for India from NATO’s Ankara Summit

    PYQ Relevance
    [UPSC 2023] The expansion and strengthening of NATO and a stronger US-Europe strategic partnership works well in India.” What is your opinion about this statement? Give reasons and examples to support your answer.
    Linkage: Examines the strategic implications of NATO’s evolving role and the US-Europe security partnership for India’s foreign and security policy. The article analyses the Ankara Summit’s defence commitments, Europe’s defence-industrial constraints, and how NATO’s expansion and military spending directly affect India’s defence preparedness and strategic autonomy.

    Mentor’s Comment

    The 32 heads of state or government of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) met at the Ankara Summit on July 7-8, 2026, to review progress since the 2025 Hague Summit and set out a roadmap for implementation. The summit locked in a fivefold rise in the defence-spending pledge and a commitment to build a Europe-wide Defence Industrial Base (DIB), even as Europe’s existing industry struggles to meet current demand.

    What four commitments came out of the Ankara Summit?

    1. Collective defence reaffirmed: All 32 allies affirmed an “ironclad commitment” to collective defence under Article 5 of the Washington Treaty and to the transatlantic bond.
    2. Five per cent spending pledge: Allies unanimously endorsed “The Hague defence commitment,” under which every NATO member undertook to allocate at least five per cent of GDP to defence by 2035, up from the earlier two per cent pledge.
    3. Support for Ukraine: NATO declared “unwavering support” for Ukraine’s freedom, sovereignty and territorial integrity.
    4. European defence industrial base: Members committed to building a high-technology, high-capacity, Europe-wide Defence Industrial Base (DIB), the network of firms, factories, laboratories and skilled workers needed to build and sustain military power.
    5. Focus on implementation: Discussions at Ankara centred on converting these political commitments into military capability through investment, industrial capacity and innovation.

    Can Europe’s defence industry deliver on the pledge?

    1. Pre-existing shortages: European defence giants MBDA and Rheinmetall had warned of ammunition production shortages even before The Hague’s five per cent pledge.
    2. Evidence from the Iran campaign: Operation Epic Fury, the U.S.-Israel bombing campaign against Iran, saw the U.S. fire more than 850 Tomahawk cruise missiles; at the current production rate of 85 a year, replacing them would take a decade.
    3. Coordination gap: Many NATO members have capable Defence Industrial Bases (DIBs) individually, but there is little coordination of alliance-wide priorities.
    4. Concentrated mismatch: The resulting strategic mismatch found during the Ukraine war has clustered in air defence missiles and interceptors, precision-guided munitions, and artillery rockets.
    5. Deepening dependency, not reducing it: The U.S. supplied half of Europe’s defence spending between 2022-2024, up from 28% in 2019-2021, and without a major revitalisation of Europe’s own industry, the five per cent pledge will only deepen dependence on the U.S.
    6. Rising U.S. sales to Europe: Foreign Military Sales (FMS) notifications to the U.S. Congress for European customers have quadrupled since 2008, to $76 billion in 2024.

    How does NATO’s spending surge affect global arms buyers like India?

    1. Buyer’s market turning seller’s market: As NATO spends more, the international arms market is shifting from a buyers’ market to a sellers’ market for the world’s big arms buyers, including India.
    2. First warning sign: U.S. firm General Electric Aerospace has delayed supplying F-404 fighter jet engines, critically needed for the Indian Air Force’s (IAF) Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) programme.
    3. Competing demand: Asian allies’ rising demand for U.S. weaponry is competing directly with ongoing European needs for the same suppliers.

    What must India do in response?

    1. Growing reliance on new-age technology: India’s defence increasingly depends on drones, artificial intelligence (AI), cyber warfare, electronic warfare, and resilient networks.
    2. Self-reliance as the necessary response: India’s defence industry must achieve self-reliance in these technology areas rather than depend on suppliers who are themselves overstretched fighting their own battles.
    3. Mitigating Supply Chain Vulnerabilities: Avoid over-reliance on single-source western suppliers like General Electric who face competing allied demands. Push local aerospace and defense firms (such as HAL and private sector partners) to prioritize delayed components like fighter jet engines.
    4. Giving a big push to the private sector: Funding and orders should be increased for domestic defense startups working in the fields of drones, artificial intelligence (AI), and cybersecurity.
    5. Further expansion of the ‘Negative Import List’: The scope of the existing ‘Positive Indigenisation List‘ should be further expanded. There should be further expansion of the ‘Negative Import List‘. India’s Positive Indigenisation Lists (PIL) ban military imports, forcing procurement strictly from domestic makers. Managed via the Srijan Portal, key tracks include the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) lists for major platforms and the Department of Defence Production (DDP) lists for components.

    Conclusion

    NATO’s Ankara Summit converted last year’s spending pledge into a five per cent-of-GDP commitment and a mandate to build a European Defence Industrial Base (DIB), but ammunition and missile shortages already visible in the Ukraine war show capacity, not political will, is now the binding constraint. Because higher NATO spending is shifting the global arms market from a buyers’ to a sellers’ market, without a rapid European industrial build-out the pledge will deepen dependence on the U.S. rather than reduce it, and it is squeezing supply for outside buyers like India, making self-reliance in new-age defence technologies the necessary Indian response.

  • The right to protest and the limits of police power

    Why in the News

    The Cockroach Janta Party’s (CJP) “Chalo Sansad” march at Jantar Mantar on July 20, demanding reforms in the National Testing Agency (NTA) and the Union Education Minister’s resignation, ended in tear gas and lathi charges after protesters attempted to march towards Parliament. The clashes reopened the question of how a democracy polices protest, testing where a constitutionally protected right to assemble ends and lawful police power to disperse begins.

    Is the right to protest absolute?

    1. Constitutional guarantee: Article 19(1)(b) of the Indian Constitution guarantees all citizens the Fundamental Right to assemble peaceably and without arms. This includes the right to hold public meetings, demonstrations, and take out processions, forming the constitutional basis for peaceful protests.
    2. Reasonable restrictions permitted: Article 19(3) allows reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of public order and the sovereignty and integrity of India.
    3. Restrictions implemented through statute: These restrictions operate through laws governing public order and policing rather than through Article 19 directly.
    4. No single governing law: The legal authority to regulate protests is drawn from a range of statutes, not one dedicated law.

    Was the CJP march unlawful?

    1. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) test for unlawful assembly: Under the Section 189 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, an assembly of five or more persons becomes unlawful only if its common object involves using criminal force, resisting the execution of law, committing an offence, or compelling a person by force or threat.
    2. Lawful assemblies can turn unlawful: A gathering that begins lawfully can become unlawful if its conduct changes during the event.
    3. No permission sought: Delhi Police said the CJP had not sought permission for a procession to Parliament.
    4. Prohibitory order in force: Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) barred protests, marches and demonstrations in the New Delhi district, except at the designated Jantar Mantar site with prior permission.
    5. Judicial scrutiny followed: The Delhi High Court has sought responses from the Centre and Delhi Police on petitions alleging police brutality and excessive force.

    What standards and limits govern police use of force?

    1. Democratic policing standard: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Manual on Human Rights for Police Officers states that democratic policing treats police as protectors of citizens’ rights and the rule of law, while ensuring safety and security equally for all.
    2. Cost of violations: The manual notes that human rights violations by police erode public confidence, bring institutions into disrepute, and can escalate civil unrest.
    3. Global standard on force: These principles align with the United Nations (UN) Basic Principles on the Use of Force and Firearms, which require force to be lawful, necessary and proportionate.
    4. Statutory dispersal power: Under the BNSS, an Executive Magistrate or an authorised police officer may order an unlawful assembly, or one likely to disturb public peace, to disperse, and may use force if it does not comply.
    5. Minimum force standard: The Code of Conduct for the Police in India requires persuasion, advice and warning first, and only the irreducible minimum force once force becomes inevitable.
    6. Identification gap: The BNSS requires an arresting officer to bear accurate, visible identification but imposes no corresponding requirement on officers engaged in crowd control or dispersal, even as videos from the march showed personnel without name tags or with faces covered.

    How has the judiciary drawn the line, then and now?

    1. Anita Thakur v. State of Jammu & Kashmir (2016): The Supreme Court held that excessive force violates Fundamental Rights and awarded compensation to injured protesters, holding that police action must remain reasonable and accountable.
    2. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan v. Union of India (2018): The Court held that authorities may regulate demonstrations to maintain public order but cannot extinguish the right to protest altogether.
    3. Amit Sahni v. Commissioner of Police (2020): Arising from the Shaheen Bagh protests, the Court affirmed that dissent is a constitutional right but cannot justify the indefinite occupation of public spaces.
    4. Present reluctance: Chief Justice of India Surya Kant orally declined a plea for suo motu cognisance of the alleged police excesses, saying the Court was “not interested in videos” and should not have its time wasted.

    Conclusion

    The right to assemble under Article 19(1)(b) is not absolute, and police may lawfully disperse an assembly that turns unlawful or defies a prohibitory order, but the force used must remain the minimum necessary and be accountable. The CJP crackdown exposed a specific accountability gap: the BNSS requires arresting officers to display identification but imposes no such requirement on personnel engaged in crowd control, a gap the courts’ existing case law on excessive force does not close, even as the Supreme Court itself declined to examine video evidence of the incident.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2022] Right of movement and residence throughout the territory of India are freely available to the Indian citizens, but these rights are not absolute. Comment.

    Linkage: The PYQ highlights that Fundamental Rights are subject to reasonable restrictions. This is conceptually very close because the article explains that the right to assemble peacefully is also not absolute and may be reasonably restricted under Article 19(3) for public order.

  • How should cities reclaim footpaths?

    Why in the News?

    Following the Supreme Court’s recognition of the right to walk on safe, obstruction-free footpaths as a Fundamental Right, Bengaluru Development Minister directed a 10-day “Safe Footpath” drive across the five corporations under the Greater Bengaluru Authority, removing thousands of street vendors from pavements. The drive enforced the pedestrian right the court recognised but bypassed the process the Street Vendors Act, 2014 requires before vendors can be removed, exposing a gap between enforcing one right and protecting another.

    Why was the Street Vendors Act, 2014 enacted?

    1. Vending recognised as legitimate occupation: The Supreme Court has repeatedly held that street vending is a legitimate occupation protected under Article 19 of the Constitution, regulable in the public interest but not prohibitable outright.
    2. Response to arbitrary evictions: Municipal bodies and police had a recurring pattern of evicting vendors without notice, reducing years of livelihood to rubble overnight, which the Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014 was enacted to end.
    3. Not an anti-encroachment law: The Act does not give vendors an unrestricted right over public space, nor does it function as an anti-encroachment statute.
    4. Balancing two rights: It balances the public’s right to safe, obstruction-free footpaths against a vendor’s right to livelihood, laying down who can vend, where they can vend, and when they can be removed or relocated.

    What process must cities follow before removing vendors?

    1. Town Vending Committee (TVC): Every city must constitute a TVC comprising officials, police, planning authorities, resident representatives and street vendors, who must hold at least 40% of the seats, with representation for women and other marginalised communities.
    2. Survey requirement: Once constituted, the TVC must survey all existing vendors before authorities decide who can continue vending and under what conditions.
    3. Protection during the process: No vendor can be evicted or relocated until the survey is completed and Certificates of Vending are issued.
    4. Certificate of Vending: The certificate gives official permission to vend at a specified location under specified conditions and confers no ownership over public land.
    5. Removal remains conditional, not barred: The Act does not prohibit the removal of vendors; it only requires that removal follow this sequence.

    Why has Bengaluru’s drive come under scrutiny?

    1. No Town Vending Committee in place: Bengaluru’s corporations began removing vendors before constituting a TVC, the body the Act requires to identify vending and no-vending zones.
    2. Relocation promised only after the fact: Karnataka Chief Minister promised relocation only after the drive had already removed vendors.
    3. Sequence reversed: The government acted on the Supreme Court’s recognition of the pedestrian’s right to walk without first completing the survey and certification process the Street Vendors Act requires.
    4. Foundation of the law is balance: The Act’s foundation is the balance between the two rights, not the primacy of one over the other.

    Conclusion

    The Street Vendors Act, 2014, requires cities to constitute a Town Vending Committee, survey existing vendors and issue Certificates of Vending before removal or relocation, precisely to prevent the arbitrary evictions that predate the law. Bengaluru’s drive enforced the Supreme Court’s recognition of the pedestrian’s right to walk without first completing this sequence, showing that reclaiming footpaths lawfully requires following the Act’s process rather than invoking one right to bypass the other.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2023] “The states in India seem reluctant to empower urban local bodies both functionally as well as financially.” Comment.

    Linkage: The PYQ examines the effectiveness of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) in urban governance, particularly their institutional capacity, devolution of powers, and ability to manage public spaces and civic services. The article highlights that effective implementation of the Street Vendors Act, 2014 depends on empowered municipal institutions such as Town Vending Committees (TVCs). Bengaluru’s failure to constitute a TVC before undertaking evictions reflects the governance and institutional weaknesses of ULBs

  • In Assam, floods shift course. State response is static.

    Why in the News

    Flooding is a chronic feature of Assam’s monsoon, but this year, Upper Assam districts far from the Brahmaputra’s main channel and without a history of severe floods, Sivasagar, Charaideo, Jorhat and Golaghat, have borne the brunt. More than 20 people died within 24 hours on Monday after a wall of water from Nagaland’s Mon district spilled into Assam over open terrain, and the State Government called the devastation unforeseeable.

    What made this year’s floods different from Assam’s usual monsoon pattern?

    1. Districts without flood history hit hardest: The state government has called the scale of devastation in Sivasagar, Charaideo, Jorhat and Golaghat “unprecedented.“
    2. Casualty toll: More than 20 people died within 24 hours on Monday after a wall of water from Nagaland’s Mon district spilled into Assam and surged over embankments.
    3. An unusual drainage path: The floodwater is draining into the Brahmaputra over open terrain rather than through the tributaries as usual.
    4. The government’s stated position: The Assam government told the state assembly that “no one could have been prepared” for the calamity.

    Why is the “unforeseeable calamity” explanation unconvincing?

    1. A known river behaviour: The floods’ trajectory is a fallout of Assam’s topography and the Brahmaputra’s well-documented tendency to shift course.
    2. Sediment deposition raises the riverbed: After entering the Assam valley near Pasighat in Arunachal Pradesh’s East Siang district, the sharp reduction in gradient slows the river and causes it to deposit sediment, raising the riverbed and reducing the channel’s flood capacity.
    3. Channel abandonment: The Brahmaputra periodically abandons old channels and carves new ones, making it impossible to confine the river within embankments permanently.
    4. A static strategy for a shifting river: Assam’s flood management strategy continues to rely primarily on embankments despite this known channel-shifting behaviour.

    What triggered the immediate disaster in Nagaland and Assam?

    1. Extreme localised rainfall: Mon district received more than one-third of its average July rainfall in about eight hours on Sunday.
    2. Saturated slopes: Hills in the region were already saturated from heavy rain earlier in the month.
    3. Landslides in Nagaland: The saturated slopes collapsed, triggering landslides that killed nine people in Nagaland.
    4. Resulting surge into Assam: The destruction that followed in Assam was a direct consequence of this upstream rainfall and landslide event.

    What institutional response does this demand?

    1. A shared-system approach needed: The situation underscores the need for an institutional mechanism that treats rivers as shared ecological systems across states, with timely warning and coordinated action.
    2. The Brahmaputra Board’s capacity gap: The Brahmaputra Board has long been hampered by staff shortages and inadequate technical capacity. (Brahmaputra Board is a statutory body set up under the Brahmaputra Board Act, 1980 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation. The jurisdiction of the Brahmaputra Board includes both the Brahmaputra and Barak Valley and covers all the States of the North Eastern Region, including Sikkim and part of West Bengal, which fall under the Brahmaputra basin.)
    3. A call to reinvigorate the agency: With extreme weather becoming more frequent, the Centre and State Governments need to reinvigorate the Brahmaputra Board.

    Conclusion

    The Brahmaputra’s documented tendency to deposit sediment, raise its bed and shift channels, not an unforeseeable event, pushed this year’s floods into Upper Assam districts with no history of severe flooding. Assam’s embankment-only strategy cannot contain a river that periodically abandons its channels, and the underlying institutional gap, an understaffed, under-resourced Brahmaputra Board, must be addressed before climate change intensifies these ruptures further.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2020] Account for the huge flooding of million cities in India including the smart ones like Hyderabad and Pune. Suggest lasting remedial measures.

    Linkage: The PYQ tests the geographical and anthropogenic causes of floods and the need for long-term flood management strategies. The Brahmaputra floods article extends this theme to riverine flooding. It shows that how geomorphological processes such as sediment deposition and channel migration, combined with extreme rainfall, demand basin-wide management rather than an embankment-centric approach.