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Distribution: yearly

  • India introduces new HS code for GI-recognised Rice Varieties

    Why in the News?

    India has introduced a Harmonised System (HS) code for geographical indication (GI) recognised rice exports under an amendment to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 announced by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in the 2025-26 Union Budget on February 1, 2025.

    About Harmonised System (HS) Code

    • HS Code is an internationally recognized classification system for traded goods, developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO).
    • It is used to standardize the identification of products in global trade, ensuring uniformity in customs procedures, tariffs, and trade policies.
    • The HS Code is a six-digit numerical code, categorized as follows:
      • First two digits: Represent the chapter of goods (e.g., “10” for cereals).
      • Next two digits: Indicate the heading (e.g., “06” for rice).
      • Last two digits: Define the subheading (e.g., “30” for semi-milled or wholly milled rice).
    • Countries can extend the HS Code beyond six digits to accommodate specific national requirements (e.g., India uses an 8-digit system).

    Impact of HS Code on GI Rice Exports:

    Trade experts believe that the introduction of an HS code will:

    • Facilitate GI rice exports, even when general rice exports are restricted.
    • Ensure better market access for specialty rice varieties in global markets.
    • Differentiate GI-tagged rice from conventional rice exports to prevent mislabelling.

    About the World Customs Organization (WCO):

    • The WCO is an intergovernmental organization responsible for overseeing and standardizing global customs regulations.
    • It was established in 1952 as the Customs Co-operation Council (CCC) and later renamed the WCO in 1994.
    • Key Functions of the WCO:
      • Develops and maintains the HS Code, used by over 200 countries and territories.
      • Regulates customs procedures, trade facilitation, and enforcement of trade laws.
      • Supports the fight against illegal trade, smuggling, and counterfeit goods.
    • The organization works closely with the World Trade Organization (WTO) and United Nations (UN) to promote global trade efficiency.
    • India is a member of the WCO and follows its HS classification system for trade regulations.
    • The WCO’s Revised Kyoto Convention (RKC) serves as a blueprint for India’s customs modernization efforts.

    PYQ:

    [2017] Consider the following statements:

    1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
    2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
    3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1 and 3 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

  • What has the Budget offered scientists?

    Why in the News?

    The Union Budget highlights science, technology, and innovation (STI) as important drivers of the country’s progress, supporting CSIR’s goal of making India more self-reliant and globally competitive.

    How will the 2025 budget impact scientific research funding?

    • Increased Funding for R&D: The Ministry of Science and Technology’s allocation sees a major boost due to a Rs 20,000 crore allocation for the R&D fund, increasing the total allocation from Rs 8,029 crore to Rs 28,508 crore.
    • Support for Deeptech Startups: An additional Rs 10,000 crore will be allocated to the Small Industries Development Bank of India Fund for Startups, aimed at enhancing the “deep tech ecosystem,” particularly for startups focusing on AI, biotech, and space technology.
    • Focus on Mission-Mode Projects: Funding is heavily directed towards specific mission-mode programs such as nuclear energy, AI, and the Jal Jeevan Mission, potentially at the expense of curiosity-driven research.
    • CSIR’s Role in National Missions: The budget aligns CSIR’s various missions (Aroma, Floriculture, Millets, Cotton, Green Hydrogen, etc.) with national initiatives, emphasizing value-added farming, self-reliance, and sustainable development.
    • Concerns Regarding Basic Science and Education: Concerns exist regarding reduced funding for institutions like IISc and IISERs, a lower percentage increase in funding for Central Universities compared to IITs, and the overall low allocation for education as a percentage of GDP.

    What specific allocations are being made for science and technology in the 2025 budget?

    • Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) Funding Increase: The budget for MeitY has been increased by 48%, totalling over ₹26,000 crores. This substantial boost is directed towards initiatives such as the IndiaAI Mission and expanded Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes for semiconductors, large-scale electronics, and IT hardware.
    • IndiaAI Mission: The IndiaAI Mission has received an allocation of ₹2,000 crore for FY25, marking an almost 11-fold increase from the previous year’s revised estimate of ₹173 crore. This funding aims to enhance artificial intelligence research and development across various sectors.
    • Semiconductor and Electronics Manufacturing Support: Allocations for the modified scheme to establish compound semiconductors, silicon photonics, sensor fabs, and semiconductor assembly and testing facilities have risen from ₹2,500 crore to ₹3,900 crore. Additionally, the scheme for setting up semiconductor fabs has seen an increase from ₹1,200 crore to ₹2,499.96 crore.
    • Research and Development Fund: A dedicated fund of ₹20,000 crore has been established to promote research, development, and innovation, particularly supporting private-sector-led initiatives. This fund underscores the government’s commitment to advancing technological progress and fostering innovation.
    • Research Fellowships and Deep Tech Support: The government plans to offer 10,000 research fellowships over the next five years under the Prime Minister’s Research Fellowship scheme, focusing on advancing research in technology at premier institutions like IITs and IISc.

    Are there any new initiatives for scientific research in the 2025 budget?

    • Increased Focus on Health Research: There’s a greater emphasis on health research and biomedical devices, driven by concerns identified in the Economic Survey regarding the harms of ultra-processed foods. This suggests new initiatives and funding to address these health challenges through scientific research.
    • Deeptech Startup Boost: The expansion of the SIDBI Fund for Startups with an additional Rs 10,000 crore specifically targets deeptech startups in AI, biotech, and space technology. This indicates a new initiative to foster innovation and entrepreneurship in these advanced technology areas.
    • AI Education Push: The allocation of funds towards a Centre of Excellence in AI education signifies a new initiative to develop expertise and talent in artificial intelligence. The hope is that this center will also set benchmarks for the beneficial adoption of AI in Indian society.
    • Green Hydrogen Mission: Spearheaded by CSIR, this mission supports research and development towards clean energy transition.
    • Alignment of CSIR Missions: While not entirely new initiatives, the strategic alignment and emphasis on CSIR’s existing missions (like Aroma, Floriculture, Millets, Cotton, etc.) with national goals represents a renewed focus and coordinated effort that will likely drive scientific research in those specific areas.

    Way forward: 

    • Balanced Research Funding: Ensure a more balanced allocation between mission-driven projects and fundamental research to sustain long-term scientific innovation and discovery.
    • Strengthening Scientific Workforce: Expand research fellowships, enhance funding for premier institutions, and create stronger industry-academia collaborations to develop a skilled workforce in emerging technologies.

  • [pib] TROPEX-25

    Why in the News?

    The 2025 edition of TROPEX is currently underway in the Indian Ocean Region, involving all operational Indian Naval units along with significant participation from the Indian Army, Indian Air Force (IAF), and the Indian Coast Guard (ICG).

    About Theatre Level Operational Exercise (TROPEX)

    • TROPEX is the Indian Navy’s flagship biennial operational-level exercise, designed to test and enhance India’s maritime defense capabilities.
    • It is conducted in the Indian Ocean Region with participation from the Indian Navy, Indian Army, Indian Air Force (IAF), and Indian Coast Guard (ICG).
    • It was first held in April 2005.
    • TROPEX-25 is being conducted over a three-month period from January to March 2025 in multiple phases:
    1. Harbour Phase: Focuses on strategic planning, joint training, and coordination before moving to sea operations.
    2. Sea Phase: Simulates real-time combat scenarios to assess the Navy’s operational readiness.
    3. Cyber and Electronic Warfare Operations:  Integrates modern cybersecurity and electronic warfare tactics to counter digital threats.
    4. Live Weapon Firings:  Includes real-world missile and torpedo firings to test combat effectiveness.
    5. Amphibious Exercise (AMPHEX):  Conducts joint land-sea operations, involving amphibious landings and coastal defence drills.

    Mandate and Significance of TROPEX-25

    TROPEX-25 plays a pivotal role in:

    • Strengthening India’s maritime dominance in the Indian Ocean Region.
    • Enhancing interoperability and joint warfighting capabilities among the Navy, Army, Air Force, and Coast Guard.
    • Testing real-world combat readiness in dynamic operational environments.
    • Securing national maritime interests through proactive military preparedness.
    • Projecting India’s naval power to safeguard maritime trade routes and counter emerging threats.

  • Renaming of Fort William

    Why in the News?

    In a move to eliminate colonial practices and symbols from the Indian Armed Forces, Fort William in Kolkata, the headquarters of the Eastern Army Command, has been renamed Vijay Durg.

    About the Vijay Durg (Fort William)

    • It was originally built by the British in 1773, Fort William was named after King William III of England.
    • It is located on the eastern bank of the Hooghly River in Kolkata, West Bengal.
    • It served as a key British military stronghold during colonial rule.
    • The first version of Fort William was built by the English East India Company in 1696.
    • It had an inner bastion used as a prison, leading to the term “Black Hole of Calcutta”.
    • The Black Hole of Calcutta Incident (1756) refers to the alleged imprisonment of British prisoners by Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah, where many reportedly suffocated to death due to overcrowding and lack of ventilation.
    • After the Battle of Plassey in 1757, Robert Clive ordered its demolition, and a new fort was built, completed in 1773.
    • Fort William College was established by Lord Wellesley in 1800 to train Company civil servants in Indian languages and customs, but it was closed in 1802.
    • The present-day fort is octagonal in shape, made of brick and mortar, covering 70.9 acres.
      • It is now owned by the Indian Army and serves as the headquarters of the Eastern Command.

    Do you know?

    Fort St. George (Chennai, Tamil Nadu) 

    • It was the first fort built by the British in 1644, marking the beginning of British rule.
    • It served as the headquarters of the Madras Presidency.
    • It included St. Mary’s Church, the oldest Anglican Church in India.
    • Current Use: Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly & Secretariat.

    Significance of Renaming

    • The new name is inspired by Vijay Durg Fort in Maharashtra, one of the oldest and most significant naval forts under Chhatrapati Shivaji.
    • Vijay Durg served as a naval base for the Marathas, highlighting India’s indigenous military history.
    • The renaming aligns with India’s broader initiative to remove colonial influences and promote native military traditions.
      • In September 2022, the Indian Navy replaced its British-era ensign with a new octagonal design inspired by Chhatrapati Shivaji’s royal seal.

    PYQ:

    [2018] With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: 

    Institution: Founder

    1. Sanskrit College at Benaras: William Jones
    2. Calcutta Madarsa: Warren Hastings
    3. Fort William College: Arthur Wellesley

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 3 only

     

  • Article 22 of the Indian Constitution

    Why in the News?

    The Supreme Court ruled that informing an arrested person of the grounds of arrest is a mandatory constitutional obligation, not a mere formality. Failure to comply makes the arrest illegal, violating Articles 22(1) and 21, which protect fundamental rights and personal liberty.

    About Article 22 of the Indian Constitution:

    • Article 22 of the Indian Constitution ensures protection to individuals against arbitrary arrest and preventive detention.
    • It has two parts:

    1. Article 22(1) & 22(2) – Protection in Ordinary Arrests:

    • The arrested person must be informed of the grounds of arrest as soon as possible.
    • The person has the right to consult and be defended by a lawyer of their choice.
    • They must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours.

    2. Article 22(3) to 22(7) – Preventive Detention Provisions:

    • Preventive detention without trial cannot exceed 3 months, unless approved by an Advisory Board.
    • The government may deny disclosure of reasons if it affects public interest.
    • Parliament can extend detention beyond 3 months in special cases.

    Key Highlights of Supreme Court’s Recent Judgment:

    • The Supreme Court ruled that informing an arrested person of the grounds of arrest is a fundamental right.
    • Non-compliance violates both Articles 22(1) and 21 (Right to Liberty), rendering the arrest invalid.
    • Grounds of arrest must be clearly conveyed in an effective manner.
    • Providing the grounds in writing is the best practice (as suggested in Pankaj Bansal vs Union of India).
    • As per Section 50A of CrPC, the accused’s family or nominated person must also be informed to allow legal representation.
    • Magistrates must ensure compliance. If Article 22(1) is not followed, the arrest is illegal, and the accused must be released.
    • Violation of Article 22(1) is a ground for Bail. Even if statutory restrictions on bail exist, courts can grant bail if fundamental rights are violated.
    • If the accused claims non-compliance, the Investigating Officer must prove that Article 22(1) was followed.

    Relevant Supreme Court Judgments:

    • Pankaj Bansal vs Union of India (2023): SC advised that grounds of arrest should ideally be provided in writing.
    • Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India (1978): “Procedure established by law” must be fair, just, and reasonable.
    • DK Basu vs State of West Bengal (1997): Established guidelines to prevent custodial abuse and ensure due process.
    • Ram Manohar Lohia vs State of Bihar (1965): Distinguished between law and order (individual impact) and public order (societal impact).

     

    PYQ:

    [2021] With reference to India, consider the following statements:

    1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
    2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

  • Economic Capital Framework (ECF) of the RBI

    Why in the News?

    The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has initiated an internal review of its Economic Capital Framework (ECF) to assess the contingency risk buffer (CRB) and overall capital reserves.

    What is Economic Capital Framework (ECF)?

    • The ECF is the risk management policy used by the RBI to determine:
    1. How much capital and reserves the central bank should maintain for financial stability.
    2. How much surplus the RBI can transfer to the government under Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934.
    • Key Components
    1. Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB): A financial safeguard for monetary, fiscal, credit, and operational risks.
    2. Total Economic Capital: Includes capital, reserves, risk provisions, and revaluation balances.
    • Surplus Transfers:
      • FY24: ₹2.11 lakh crore (highest-ever surplus).
      • FY23: ₹87,416 crore | FY22: ₹30,307 crore | FY21: ₹99,122 crore.

    Review of ECF and Its Significance

    • The Bimal Jalan Committee’s recommendations (valid till June 2024) required a periodic reassessment.
    • As of March 31, 2024, the CRB stands at 6.5%, and the RBI is evaluating whether changes are needed.
    • Potential Impact
      • Higher CRB → More financial stability, but lower surplus transfers to the government.
      • Lower CRB → More funds available for government spending, but with potential financial risks.
    • Impact on Budget: RBI’s surplus plays a major role in fiscal planning for infrastructure & welfare programs.
    • The RBI must ensure financial resilience while also supporting economic development.

    About Bimal Jalan Committee (2018)

    • Objective: To review RBI’s reserve management and surplus transfer policy.
    • Key Recommendations:
      • CRB should be between 5.5% – 6.5% of the balance sheet.
      • Periodic ECF review every 5 years.
      • Only realized surplus (net income) should be transferred to the government.
      • Revaluation reserves should not be used for operational losses.
    • Impact:
      • Led to higher surplus transfers and a structured capital policy.
      • Strengthened transparency & financial governance in RBI’s operations.

     

    PYQ:

    [2017] Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

    1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
    2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
    3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 2 and 3 only

     

  • [pib] SASCI Scheme

    Why in the News?

    The Government of India has sanctioned 40 projects across 23 states, allocating ₹3295.76 crore under the ‘Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) Scheme for the Financial Year 2024-25.

    What is the SASCI Scheme?

    • The SASCI Scheme was launched in FY 2020-21 to support state capital expenditure and drive economic growth.
    • Initially introduced as a post-COVID recovery measure, it has been expanded in FY 2023-24 with an allocation of ₹1.3 lakh crore.
    • The scheme funds infrastructure projects, urban reforms, tourism development, and sustainability initiatives.
    • Structural Mandate: The scheme has eight parts based on states’ share of central taxes:
    1. General Capital Assistance (₹1 lakh crore): Allocated based on states’ share of central taxes.
    2. Vehicle Scrappage & Testing Facilities:  Incentives for phasing out old vehicles & setting up automated testing centers.
    3. Urban Planning Reforms: Encourages modern land-use planning & governance improvements.
    4. Urban Finance Reforms:  Strengthens municipal revenue models & financial sustainability.
    5. Housing for Police Personnel: Funds residential units for police & their families.
    6. Cultural & Economic Development (Unity Malls):  Promotes One District One Product (ODOP), Make in India & local entrepreneurship.
    7. Digital Libraries at Panchayat/Ward Levels: ₹5,000 crore for library infrastructure & digital learning access.
    8. Development of Iconic Tourist Centres:  Global-scale branding & infrastructure for major tourism hubs.

    Features & Significance:

    • Boosts capital investment to stimulate demand and job creation.
    • Encourages reforms in urban governance, infrastructure, and sustainability.
    • Promotes responsible tourism and global branding of iconic destinations.
    • Strengthens local industries through One District One Product (ODOP).
    • Improves public services like policing, water supply, and rural roads.

    PYQ:

    [2016] Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?

    1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
    2. Loans received from foreign governments
    3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

  • How has the Budget allocated funds for urban development?

    Why in the News?

    The 2025 Budget has set up a ₹1 lakh crore Urban Challenge Fund to help cities grow and develop.

    What was the allocation for urban India?

    • Increased Allocation but Underutilization: The Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry received ₹96,777 crore for FY 2025-26, a 17% increase from the previous year. However, the Revised Estimate for 2024-25 stood at ₹63,669.93 crore, indicating significant underutilization of funds.
    • Urban Challenge Fund and PMAY Focus: A ₹1 lakh crore Urban Challenge Fund has been proposed for city redevelopment and water & sanitation projects, with ₹10,000 crore allocated for FY 2025-26. Additionally, ₹78,126 crore has been allocated to both rural and urban PMAY for housing development.
    • Support for Urban Workers and Street Vendors: The government aims to uplift urban workers through PM SVANidhi, which has benefited 68 lakh street vendors. The scheme will be revamped with enhanced bank loans, UPI-linked credit cards (₹30,000 limit), and capacity-building support to reduce reliance on informal sector loans.

    How has the reduction happened?

    • Decline in Direct Transfers to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs): With the abolition of octroi and the implementation of GST, ULBs lost a key revenue source, expecting compensation through central devolution. However, the central share for ULBs declined from ₹26,653 crore (last year) to ₹26,158 crore in 2025-26, increasing financial pressure on local bodies.
    • Cuts in Key Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS):
      • PMAY (Urban) faced a drastic cut, with its allocation reduced from ₹30,170.61 crore to ₹13,670 crore in the Revised Estimate (RE) for 2024-25.
      • AMRUT and Smart Cities Mission allocations fell below ₹10,400 crore, with almost no new funds for the Smart Cities Mission.
      • Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) retained ₹5,000 crore, but RE shows only ₹2,159 crore was spent—a 56% underutilization.
    • Shift in Priorities Toward Capital-Intensive Metro Projects: While many urban development schemes saw cuts, metro rail projects received increased funding.
      • Metro projects’ allocation rose from ₹21,335.98 crore to ₹24,691.47 crore in RE (2024-25) and is further proposed to increase by 46% to ₹31,239.28 crore in 2025-26.
      • This shift prioritizes large infrastructure over comprehensive urban mobility, employment generation, and local governance funding.

    Does the Union Budget focus on capital-intensive projects? 

    • Priority to Large Infrastructure Projects: The budget significantly increases funding for metro rail projects (₹31,239.28 crore, up 46%), while allocations for urban schemes like PMAY (Urban), AMRUT, and Smart Cities Mission have been reduced or underutilized.
    • Reliance on Private Investment for Urban Development: The ₹1 lakh crore Urban Challenge Fund requires 50% private sector participation, which may slow implementation, shifting focus from government-driven urban welfare programs to capital-intensive projects.

    What next?

    • Urban Challenge Fund Implementation Risks: The government has introduced a ₹1 lakh crore Urban Challenge Fund, but 50% of the funding is expected from private investments.
      • Given the limited private sector participation in past urban initiatives like the Smart Cities Mission, relying on private funding could slow implementation.
    • Balancing Infrastructure with Livability and Sustainability: The budget favors metro expansion but lacks a broader focus on comprehensive urban mobility, employment generation, and sustainable urban planning.
      • Future policies must integrate green jobs, affordable housing, and local governance empowerment to create more inclusive cities.
    • Strengthening Financial Autonomy for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs): The decline in direct transfers and devolution post-GST has weakened ULB finances, forcing cities to raise taxes or cut essential services.
      • Strengthening municipal revenue sources, revising property tax frameworks, and ensuring timely fund disbursal can help cities plan better for growth.

    Conclusion: Need to Strengthen municipal revenue sources through property tax reforms, land monetization, and timely fund transfers, reducing dependency on central allocations. The government should ensure equitable investment in metro expansion, affordable housing, sanitation, and employment generation, fostering livable, sustainable, and inclusive urban growth.

    Mains PYQ:

    Q What are ‘Smart Cities’? examine their relevance for urban development in India. Will it increase rural-urban differences? Give arguments for ‘Smart Villages’ in the light of PURA and RURBAN Mission. (UPSC IAS/2018)

  • SEBI proposed Retail Algo Trading Framework

    Why in the News?

    Initially exclusive to institutional investors, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) now has proposed to allow retail participation in Algorithmic trading (algo trading) to ensure market stability and allow retail participation.

    What is Algo Trading?

    • Algo Trading, or Algorithmic Trading, is the process of using computer programs and pre-defined rules to execute financial market trades at high speed and efficiency.
    • It eliminates human intervention and emotions, allowing trades based on mathematical models, historical data, and market conditions.
    • How Does Algo Trading Work?
      • It follows pre-coded algorithms to identify trading opportunities and execute orders.
      • It uses technical indicators, price movements, volume, and other data to determine trade entry and exit points.
      • The system can scan multiple markets simultaneously and execute trades in milliseconds.
      • High-Frequency Trading (HFT) is a subset of algo trading that involves executing thousands of trades per second.
      • It reduces market impact, transaction costs, and slippage compared to manual trading.

    Key Highlights of Regulatory Framework:

    • Broker Responsibility: Only registered brokers can offer algo trading services to retail investors. Direct retail algo trading without broker approval is not permitted.
    • Market Surveillance: Exchanges must monitor algorithmic trades to prevent market manipulation and excessive order placement.
    • Latency and Co-location Rules: SEBI has set rules to ensure fair access to low-latency trading infrastructure and avoid unfair advantages.
    • Risk Management: Traders must maintain adequate margins, and there are circuit breakers to prevent excessive market volatility.
    • Pre-Approval for Strategies: Algo trading strategies must be tested and approved before deployment to minimize market disruption.
    • Algo vs. Non-Algo Identification: SEBI mandates separate tagging of algo trades for better transparency and oversight.
    • Ban on Self-Trading: Algorithms must not execute self-trades to manipulate market prices.

    PYQ:

    [2019] Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

    (a) Certificate of Deposit

    (b) Commercial Paper

    (c) Promissory Note

    (d) Participatory Note

     

  • Article 200 of the Indian Constitution

    Why in the News?

    The Supreme Court has criticized Tamil Nadu Governor for creating an “impasse” by withholding assent to state bills and later referring them to the President, questioning his handling of state bills under Article 200 of the Constitution. The Governor has withheld 12 Bills, primarily concerning higher education and the appointment of Vice-Chancellors in State universities.

    Judicial Precursor: Rameshwar Prasad Case (2005)

    • Article 361 provides immunity to Governors from court proceedings for actions taken in their official capacity.
    • However, in Rameshwar Prasad & Ors. vs Union of India & Anr., the Supreme Court ruled that:
      • Immunity under Article 361 does not prevent judicial review of the Governor’s actions.
      • If a Governor withholds assent with malicious intent, the decision can be deemed unconstitutional.
      • Governors must provide valid reasons for withholding assent, as they cannot act arbitrarily.

    What is Article 200?

    • Article 200 governs the Governor’s options when a Bill passed by the State Legislature is presented for approval.
    • It outlines the Governor’s discretionary powers regarding assenting, withholding, returning, or reserving Bills.

    Provisions and Features:

    • The Governor has four options when presented with a State Legislature Bill:
    1. Assent to the Bill: The Bill becomes law.
    2. Withhold Assent: The Governor can refuse approval.
    3. Return the Bill: If it is NOT a Money Bill, the Governor can send it back to the State Legislature for reconsideration.
    • Reserve the Bill for the President’s Consideration:  If the Bill-
      • Violates the Constitution or a Central law.
      • Affects national interests or is ultra vires.
      • Opposes the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
      • Concerns compulsory property acquisition under Article 31A.
      • Endangers the position of the State High Court (mandatory reservation).
    • Article 201 deals with Bills reserved for the President’s approval, granting the President the power to:
      • Assent to the Bill or withhold assent.
      • Return the Bill for reconsideration by the State Legislature.
    • Key Constitutional Debates:
      • No time limit exists for the Governor to act, leading to delays and constitutional challenges.
      • Judicial scrutiny has questioned prolonged withholding of assent, as seen in recent Supreme Court cases.

    PYQ:

    [2014] Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

    1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
    2. Appointing the Ministers
    3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
    4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1 and 3 only

    (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4