Part 1 can be found here –
UPSC Prelims 2019 – Answer Key, Sources, Sample Solutions and Controversial Questions
51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(e) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Explanation: Those Mughal officers who received their salarly by way of land grants (Jagir) were known as Jagirdars. Thus Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties.
2. Zamindars were landlords or big land owners. They were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
3. Land assignments to Jagirdars were NOT hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were hereditary.
https://www.owlgen.com/question/what-is-the-difference-between-jagirdar-and-zamindar
52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The ceiling “laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in the cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Answer: b
Explanation: The land reform legislation passed by the Indian Government during the 1950s were guided by following main objectives: Abolition of intermediaries. Tenancy reforms to regulate fair rent and provide security to tenure. Ceilings on holdings and distribution of surplus land among landless. Consolidation of holdings and prevention of their further fragmentation and Development of cooperative farming. With reference to land reforms in independent India: Land Ceiling laws were applied to family holdings as well as individual holdings. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless. Land reforms were not connected to the cultivation of cash crops in any way directly as a predominant form of cultivation. Land reforms permitted many exemptions to the ceiling limits such as for GARDEN LANDS, FOREST LAND, AND BARREN LAND ETC.
53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank
Answer: c
Explanation: The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum.
54. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation: Charter Act of 1813 expressly asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British India. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China. The revenues of India came under the control of the British Parliament clearly in 1858. This process started with Pits’ India act 1784. So the more correct answer is ‘a’ Tikdam: Statement 3 looks very very extreme. Till 1857 revolt, the control of the British Government over India was indirect, therefore statement 3 cannot be possible. We will automatically arrive at the correct answer once we eliminate statement 3
http://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/556/Charter-Act-of-1813.html
55. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Explanation: The National Council of Education (or NCE) was an organization founded by Indian nationalists in Bengal in 1906 to promote science and technology as part of a swadeshi industrialization movement. The Swadeshi had a great impact on the handloom industry. There was a revival in handloom, silk weaving, and some other tradition artisan crafts. Cotton mills were set up at this time. Spectrum & NCERTs
56. Consider the following pairs:
|
Movement/Organization |
Leader |
|---|---|
| 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League | Mahatma Gandhi |
| 2. All India Kisan Sabha | Swami Sahajanand Saraswati |
| 3. Self-Respect Movement | E. V. Ramaswami Naicker |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation: All India Anti Untouchability League: It was formed by Mahatma Gandhi then later renamed as Harijan Sewak Sangh. All India Kisan Sabha: It was formed by Sahajanand Saraswati in Lucknow Session of 1936. Self Respect Movement: EV Ramaswamy Naicker was an important leader of the self-respect movement in 1925. It was an anti-caste movement against Brahmanism. Spectrum & NCERTs
57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
(a) Chanhudaro
(b) Kot Diji
(c) Sohgaura
(d) Desalpur
Answer: c
Explanation: Sohgaura is not a Harappan site and is situated in Uttar Pradesh. It is famous for it copper inscription written in prakrit in the Brahmi script. All the other three are Harappan sites. Chanhudaro in Sindh, Pakistan, Kot Diji in Sindh, Pakistan , Desalpur in Gujarat, India. TIKDAM – in the next question it is mentioned that sohgaura is an inscription. Thus it’s not a site.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Indus_Valley_Civilisation_sites
58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
(a) Kanganahalli
(b) Sanchi I
(c) Shahbazgarhi
(d) Sohgaura
Answer: a
Explanation: This site is situated on the left bank of the Bhima river, 2km east of chandrala Parameshwari temple at sannati, Karnataka. The discoveries of the site included a broken relief sculpture showing a king and queen flanked by female attendants two of whom held up a parasol and fly whisk – symbols of sovereignty – in their hands. An Inscription in Brahmi read “Ranyo Ashoka” (King Ashoka) leaving no doubt who the central Figure was supposed to represent.
http://varnam.nationalinterest.in/2005/12/first_labelled_portraiture_of/
59. Consider the following:
1. The deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation: Mahayana Buddhism started deification or worship of Buddha. Mahayana monks were known as Bodhisattvas. They followed the path of Bodhisattvas. Image worship and rituals were introduced by Mahayanist in Buddhism.
https://www.britannica.com/topic/Mahayana
60. With reference to forced labor (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Answer: a
Explanation: In central and western India the villagers were also subjected to forced labor called Vashti for serving the royal army and officials. Thus it was a source of income for the kingdom.
http://www.historydiscussion.net/empires/history-of-the-gupta-empire-indian-history/600
61. Which one of the following groups of plants were domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
(a) Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber
(b)Tobacco, cotton and rubber.
(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
Answer: a
Explanation: Tobacco, cocoa and rubber were originally domesticated or cultivated in the ‘NewWorld’ (America) and introduced into the ‘OldWorld’ (Asia and Africa). Cotton and Wheat are being cultivated in India since very ancient times. People of Mehrgarh (Baluchistan, Pakistan) cultivated Cotton during Neolithic age. Wheat was cultivated by people of Harappan civilisation and Vedic Aryans.
62. Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation: The Great one horned rhino is commonly found in Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan and in Assam, India. It is confined to the tall grasslands and forests in the foothills of the Himalayas. Double humped camel also known as Bactrian camel is a native to the steppes of Central Asia, though it is also found in Nubra valley in India. However, Asiatic Lion is naturally found in India only.
63. Consider the following pairs
|
Famous place |
River |
|---|---|
| Pandharpur | Chandrabhaga |
| Tiruchirappalli | Cauvery |
| Hampi | Malaprabha |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation: Pandharpur is a well known pilgrimage town on the banks of Chandrabhaga River in Sol?pur district, Maharashtra, India. Tiruchirapalli is located along the Kaveri River in Tamil Nadu, India. Hampi, also referred to as the Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the eastern part of central Karnataka near the state border with Andhra
64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State
(b) price levels vary from State to State
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Answer: b
Explanation: In India, Official poverty lines are higher in some states than in other because of price levels vary from state to state.
65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming
Answer: d
Explanation: Cirrus clouds do not reflect a lot of solar radiation back into space, but because they form at high altitudes and cold temperatures, they trap long-wave radiation and have a climate impact similar to greenhouse gases. Thus Thinning cirrus clouds would reduce the absorption of infrared radiation and proposed a form of climate engineering to reduce global warming. Another proposed Geo-engineering technique involves injecting reflective sulfate aerosol particles into Earth’s lower stratosphere to cast a small proportion of the inbound sunlight back into space and cool the planet off. Thus both are climate engineering/ Geoengineering techniques to reduce global warming.
66. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Answer: d
Explanation: Like incineration, pyrolysis, gasification and plasma technologies are thermal processes that use high temperatures to break down waste. The main difference is that they use less oxygen than traditional mass burn incineration. Thus these belong to waste to energy technologies.
TIKDAM – Pyrolysis is related to burning. This should give some idea that it’s related to waste.
67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Answer: a
Explanation: ABR in situated at the southern-most end of the Western Ghats and spread over two southern states Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It covers Peppara and Shendurney wildlife sanctuaries and parts of the Neyyar sanctuary in Kerala and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu.
https://currentaffairs.gktoday.in/indias-agasthyamala-biosphere-reserve-included-unescos-world-network-biosphere-reserves-03201631599.html
68. Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some speeies of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(e) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The green turtle is the second largest after the leatherback. They can weigh up to 500 lbs (225 kg) and reach four feet (1.2 m) in length. The adult green sea turtle is a herbivore, dining on seagrasses, seaweeds, algae and other forms of marine plant life.
Statement 2 is correct: Herbivorous fishes are fishes that eat plant material. Surgeonfish and parrotfish are two familiar MAR examples, often seen browsing and scraping on reef algae.
Statement 3 is correct: Marine mammals represent a variety of ecological roles, including herbivores (manatees), filter feeders (baleen whales), and top predators (killer whales). Sirenians also spend their whole lives in water They are the only entirely herbivorous group of marine mammals.
Statement 4 is correct: Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles. Boa constrictors and green anacondas are two examples of viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young with no eggs involved at any stage of development.
69. Consider the following pairs:
|
Wildlife |
Naturally found in |
|---|---|
| 1. Blue-finned Mahseer | Cauvery River |
| 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin | Chambal River |
| 3. Rusty-spotted Cat | Eastern Ghats |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Explanation: Irrawaddy Dolphin is found in coastal areas in South and Southeast Asia. They are also found in Chilika lake in Orissa. They are not found in Chambal.
Thus option c is correct i.e. 1 and 3 only.
TIKDAM – Irrawaddy flows through Myanmar. Even if we consider tributaries Chambal is not related or geographically nearby. Thus the only option is C.
70. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Answer: a
Explanation: Microbeads are tiny pieces of nonbiodegradable plastic measuring less than 1mm. These are widely used in face washes, body scrubs, soaps, toothpaste, and other such toiletries. They are mainly made up of polyethylene (PE). It may also contain polypropylene (PP), polyethylene terephthalate (PET), polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA) and nylon. Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water.
71. Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
(a) Chalukya
(b) Chandela
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara
Answer: d
Explanation: Kalyaana Mandapa or Marriage Hall was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of Vijayanagara. The images of the Main temple God and Main goddess were moved to Kalyaana Mandapa during the festival of Mahanavmi. In earlier times this building was absent in temples.
72. Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation: Amil was responsible for revenue collection in the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was NOT an ancient indigenous institution. This system was originally an Arabic practice. It was adopted by Turks from Arabs and the Turks brought it to India. For the first time, Iqtas were distributed in India by Muhammad Ghori.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of MUGHALS NOT DURING THE REIGN OF Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
http://www.columbia.edu/itc/mealac/pritchett/00islamlinks/ikram/part2_16.html
73. Consider the following statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Explanation: Saint Nimbarka is believed to have been alive during the 11th century. While Akbar 16th century. Saint Kabir was born in 1440 while Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi was an Islamic scholar lived later between (1564-1624).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kabir
https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Nimbarka
74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labor’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation: On 2nd March 1917 in a public meeting in Karachi, Mahatma Gandhi insisted on the abolition of the indenture system by May 31, 1917. Due to this pressure of Mahatma Gandhi and other Indian nationalists, indentured labor system was abolished by government same year later.
2. Viceroy Lord Chelmsford called a War Conference at Delhi for 27 April 1918. Mahatma Gandhi supported resolution for Indian support to Britain in World war. Gandhiji was enthralled by the idea that by serving in the army Indians would develop courageousness and thus enhance their ability to become courageous satyagrahis.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was
75. With reference to the Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
|
Person |
Position held |
|---|---|
| 1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru | President, All India Liberal Federation |
| 2. K. C. Neogy | Member, The Constituent Assembly |
| 3. P. C. Joshi | General Secretary, Communist Party of India |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation: Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru: He was an important leader of All India liberal federation and served as its President. KC Neogy: He was a member of Constituent Assembly from West Bengal PC Joshi: He was the first president of Communist Party of India and remained so for 12 years till 1947.
76. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
Answer: a
Explanation: Actual name of Tansen was Ram Tanu Pandey. He was given the title of Tansen by Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior. Emperor Akbar gave him the title of Mian.
https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/music/the-legend-of-mian-tansen/article22893454.ece
77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan
Answer: c
Explanation: Jahangir took keen interest in painting. He was a bird and animal lover and patronized paintings of flowers, animals, birds etc. Apart from painting of hunting scenes, court scenes, under him specialized individual portraits were painted in a realistic manner. Akbar was fond of manuscipts and Jahangir later shifted focus on individual potrait and album.
So more correct answer is Jahangir.
78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park
Answer: d
Explanation: Valley of flowers is famous for its alpine meadows. It wholly lies in temperate alpine zone.
http://natureconservation.in/valley-of-flowers-national-park-complete-detail-updated/
79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
(a) Department of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Answer: c
Explanation: The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.
https://niti.gov.in/content/atal-innovation-mission-aim
80. On 21st June, the Sun
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Answer: a
Explanation: The Sun is directly overhead at “high-noon” on the equator twice per year, at the two equinoxes. On the Arctic Circle, the Sun does not set at all on the Summer Solstice which occurs on 21st June. On that one day, the Sun traces a complete circle just above the horizon as the Earth rotates.
81. Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to presence of Nitrogenous fertilizers, oxides of Nitrogen are released in atmosphere. Cattles/Ruminants Ruminant animals do not efficiently utilize dietary nitrogen. Excess nitrogen fed in the form of feed proteins is excreted in manure (urine + feces). Dairy cows on average secrete in milk 25 to 35 percent of the nitrogen they consume and almost all the remaining nitrogen is excreted in urine and feces with about half of the nitrogen excreted in urine.
Approximately 60 to 80 percent of the nitrogen in urine is in the form of urea. Nitrogen in manure can be converted to ammonia through bacterial degradation, primarily the conversion of urinary urea to ammonia. Urease, an enzyme produced by microorganisms in feces, reacts with urinary urea to form ammonia. Urease activity in feces is high and rapidly converts urea to ammonia after excretion. In poultry industry microorganisms releases Nitrogen from organic matter (fecal matter) in the atmosphere.
82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur, and Kangsabati?
(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
(b) Tropical rain forests
(c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs
Answer: d
Explanation: These are water reservoirs of national importance. Aliyar is a village located near Pollachi Town in Coimbatore district in Tamil Nadu, India. The famous Aliyar Reservoir is located in this village. Isapur Dam is an earthfill dam on Penganga river near Pusad in the state of Maharashtra in India. The Kangsabati Project, also often referred to as the Kangsabati Irrigation Project and The Kangsabati Reservoir Project, is a project started in the Indian state of West Bengal in 1956 as part of the Indian Second Five-year Plan.
https://coimbatore.nic.in/tourist-place/aliyar-dam/
83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as a fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: H-CNG reduces the emission of Carbon Monoxide up to 70%.
Statement 2 is correct: H-CNG as a fuel reduces the emission of carbon-di-oxide and hydrocarbon as compared to other fuels. Compared with natural gas, HCNG has many advantages when it comes to performance. However, due to the increased temperature and combustion duration that accompanies the hydrogen addition, an increase in NOx emissions is observed.
Statement 3 is correct: CNG as a fuel can be used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and propane (C3H8) / LPG and its combustion produces fewer undesirable gases than the other mentioned fuels. When 18-20% of hydrogen as a fuel is mixed into the CNG it becomes pollution free as it reduces the emission of carbon-monoxide up to 20%.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural Gas. Therefore, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG. https://coimbatore.nic.in/tourist-place/aliyar-dam/
84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
(c) The Earth’s surface would have the low temperature on cloudy nights.
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Answer: b
Explanation: During clear sky reflectivity of longwave radiation is maximum but the biggest single deterrent to radiation cooling is cloudy night. Water droplets present in the cloud absorbs radiations emitted by earth surface and reradiates some of the heat back again to earth thus, prevents dew formation.
85. Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The 39th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 was enacted to exclude judicial review in election disputes involving the Prime Minister. The Apex court held that the power of judicial review cannot be taken away as it is key to democracy.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2014, Parliament enacted the Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014 and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014 to replace the collegium with an independent commission, the NJAC .
Subsequently, the Supreme Court struck down the two laws as unconstitutional and re-instated the collegium process. The court held that the Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014 violates the basic structure of the Constitution because it does not secure primacy of the Judiciary in judicial appointments.
86. Consider the following statements:
1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: c
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The procedure for removal of judges is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968.The Speaker or Chairman may consult individuals and examine relevant material related to the notice. Based on this, he or she may decide to either admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The process of impeachment is described in Article 124(4) of the Constitution and the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968. A judge can be removed on the grounds of “proved misbehaviour or incapacity”. Neither misbehaviour nor incapacity are defined, but would include any criminal activity or other judicial impropriety.
Statement 3 is correct: The process of impeachment is described in Article 124(4) of the Constitution and the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
Statement 4 is correct: The motion for removal is required to be adopted by each House of Parliament by
(i) a majority of the total membership of that House; and
(ii) a majority of at least two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. If the motion is adopted by this majority, the motion will be sent to the other House for adoption. Once the motion is adopted in both Houses, it is sent to the President, who will issue an order for the removal of the judge.
87. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer: a
Explanation: Ninth Schedule was introduced by 1st constitutional amendment and this was under the reign of Nehru.
88. Consider the following statements:
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct, as the Indira Gandhi administration nationalized coal mining in phases – coking coal mines in 1971–72 and noncoking coal mines in 1973. With the enactment of the Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973, all coal mines in India were nationalized on 1 May 1973.
Statement 2 is Incorrect, as, under the new policy, mines will be auctioned to the firm offering the highest per tonne price.
Statement 3 is Incorrect, as due to high demand and poor average quality, India is forced to import high-quality coal to meet the requirements of steel plants. India’s coal imports have risen from 49.79 million metric tons (0.05488 billion short tons) in 2007–08 to 190.95 million metric tons (0.21049 billion short tons) in 2016–17.
89. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Under the provisions of Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the central or state government. Provisions of Articles 102 and 191 also protect a legislator occupying a government position if the office in question has been made immune to disqualification by law. Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended several times to expand the exempted list.
Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was amended five times.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The phrase office of profit is not defined in the constitution. However, The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 declare that certain offices of profit under the Government shall not disqualify the holders thereof for being chosen as, or for being, members of Parliament.
Tikdam. Statement 3 is a well-known fact. By eliminating statement 3 we can arrive at the correct answer
90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Answer: b
Explanation: Fifth Schedule The key objective is to provide protection to the tribals living in the Scheduled Areas from alienation of their lands and natural resources to non-tribals. Under this schedule the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void. The executive power of the Union extends to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of these areas. Governor of these states need make report to the President annually or as needed by President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State.
91. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) blodiesel
(c) pulp for paper industry
(d) textile fibre
Answer: d
Explanation: The fibre of the Himalayan giant nettle plant (Girardinia diversifolia), which grows in Africa and Asia, simultaneously provides social and environmental benefits as well as attractive physical properties, making it an interesting fibre for high performance sustainable textiles. This research provides an unprecedented investigation on giant Himalayan nettle fibres, currently processed and used in the handicraft, performed in parallel with common European nettle fibre (Urtica dioica) already used in the textile industry.
92. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location is estimated by using Multispectral Satellite Imagery.
Statement 2 is correct: Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location.
Statement 3 is correct: Land surface temperatures of a specific location. Land surface temperature (LST) is of fundamental importance to many aspects of the geosciences, for example, net radiation budget at the Earth surface, monitoring the state of crops and vegetation, as well as an important indicator of both the greenhouse effect and the physics of land-surface processes at local through global scales.
93. Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. M dhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
(a) 2-3-1-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
Answer: c
Explanation: Following are the percentage of the forest area of the four states, according to the Indian state of forest report, 2017: State Percentage of forest area Chhattisgarh 41.09% Madhya Pradesh 25.11 % Maharashtra 16.47% Odisha 32.98%
94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation: Statements 1 is correct- Global warming is a major concern, as climate change melts Arctic permafrost and releases large amounts of methane into the atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct- Methane hydrates exist under the sea floor and in sandstone deep beneath the Arctic tundra, holding potentially vast reserves of natural gas.
Statement 3 is correct- Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH-.
95. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 ‘only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Explanation:
Agricultural crop residue burning contributes towards the emission of greenhouse gases (CO2, N2O, CH4), air pollutants (CO, NH3, NOx, SO2, non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHC), ozone, volatile organic compounds), particulates matter and smoke thereby posing threat to human health.
There is a confusion regarding ozone as it is a secondary pollutant but no option is presented.
96. Consider the following pairs:
|
Sea |
Bordering country |
|---|---|
| 1. Adriatic Sea | Albania |
| 2. Black Sea | Croatia |
| 3. Gaspian Sea | Kazakhstan |
| 4. Mediterranean Sea | Morocco |
| 5. Red Sea | Syria |
Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: b
Explanation: Countries bordering Adriatic sea: The Adriatic Sea is a part of the Mediterranean Sea positioned between the eastern coastline of Italy, and countries of the Balkan Peninsula, from Slovenia, south through Croatia. Montenegro, and to Albania. The southern boundary of the sea ends in the Strait of Otranto between Albania and Italy’s Salento Peninsula. Immediately south of that strait the Ionian Sea begins. Countries bordering Black sea: The Black Sea lies between southeastern Europe and Asia Minor. Excluding its northern arm, the Sea of Azov, the Black Sea occupies about 168,500 square miles (436,400 square kilometers). It is connected to the Aegean Sea through the Bosporus, the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles, and has been of critical importance to regional commerce throughout the ages. This major inland sea is bordered by six countries — Romania and Bulgaria to the west; Ukraine, Russia, and Georgia to the north and east; and Turkey to the south. Additionally, it is impacted by another 10 nations through the five major rivers that empty into the Black Sea, the largest of which is the Danube River. Countries bordering Caspian sea: The five countries Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Russia, Turkmenistan and Iran share their boundary with the Caspian Sea. Countries bordering Mediterranean sea: The countries surrounding the Mediterranean in clockwise order are Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, Greece, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco; Malta and Cyprus are island countries in the sea. Countries bordering Red sea: There are six countries (Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti) bordering the Red Sea.
97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam
Answer: b
Explanation: India is the largest exporter of rice in the world since the last decade while China is the largest producer of rice. Below are the 15 countries that exported the highest dollar value worth of rice during 2018.
1) India: US$7.4 billion (30.1% of total rice exports)
2)Thailand: $5.6 billion (22.7%)
3)Vietnam: $2.2 billion (9%)
4)Pakistan: $2 billion (8.2%)
5)United States: $1.7 billion (6.9%)
6)China: $887.3 million (3.6%)
98. Consider the following pairs:
|
Glacier |
River |
|---|---|
| 1. Bandarpunch | Yamuna |
| 2. Bara Shigri | Chenab |
| 3. Milam | Mandakini |
| 4. Siachen | Nubra |
| 5. Zemu | Manas |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3 and 5
Answer: a
Explanation: The glacier at the base of Bandarpoonch peak feeds the Hanuman Ganga River which joins the Yamuna so option 1 is incorrect.
2. Bara Shigri feds river Chenab. So option 2 is correct.
3. The Milam glacier is the source of the Goriganga River. So option 3 is incorrect
4. River Nubra is fed by Siachen Glacier so option 4 is correct.
5. Zemu Glacier drains the east side of Kanchenjunga, and feeds the river Teesta .so option 5 is incorrect.
99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics
Answer: a
Explanation: In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as Pesticides in Agriculture.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18246508
100. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Ramsar convention mandates protection of only those sites that are enlisted under RAMSAR criteria.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Based on the directives of the 2006 National Environment Policy and the recommendations made by the National Forest Commission, the Central Government notified the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules in 2010.
Statement 3 is correct: As per THE WETLANDS (CONSERVATION AND MANAGEMENT) RULES, 2010 wetland” means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland covered under the notification of the Government of India in the Ministry of Environment and Forest.