Answer Key for UPSC Prelims 2018

We have been working since 3rd June to give students the most reliable answer key as the Prelims 2018 deviated from conventional path and had questions from multiple unknown sources instead of usual known ones.

We have tried to include best possible answers and explanation in this key.

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Post your doubts in the comments section

Green Marked  – Difficult

Red Marked – Controversial

Answer Key for UPSC Prelims 2018 with detailed explanation, sources and Tikdams-

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1.In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2.In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3.In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a.) 1 and 3 only
b.) 2 only
c.) 2 and 3 only
d.) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation – First statement is wrong. In the First General elections single largest party in the opposition was CPI.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_general_election,_1951%E2%80%9352

Second statement is correct.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leader_of_the_Opposition_(India)

Third statement is wrong. Party requires 50 members in the lower house for its leader to be recognized as LOP.

Tikdam- This question looks very factual in nature. It is very tough to remember when was the post of LOP given recognition in India.It is also difficult to know who was the main opposition party in the first general election. However we can still solve this question without knowing statement 2 and 3 with some logic. Examine the first statement carefully. Statement 3 is obviously wrong. Thus we are left with only 1 option which is b.

Q.2) Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhabit water loss?

1.Hard and waxy leaves
2.Tiny leaves
3.Thorns instead of leaves
4.Select the correct Answer using the code given below:

a)2 and 3 only
b)2 only
c)3 only
d)1, 2 and 3

Ans.d

Explanation – The Answer can be found in Shanker’s enviroment book.It was a direct question asked from this book.

Q.3) As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agriculture Households”, consider the following statements:

1.Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agriculture households among its rural households.
2.Out of the total households in the country, a little over 60 percent being to OBCs.
3.In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agriculture households reported to have received maximum income from Sources other than agriculture activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)2 and 3 only
b)2 only
c)1 and 3 only
d)1, 2 and 3

Ans.c

Explanation –

About 45% of farm households belonged to OBC (other backward classes) while 13% belonged to scheduled tribes. Therefore statement 2 is incorrect. Once we eliminate statement 2 we are left with only 1 option which is c.
Source: https://www.livemint.com/Politics/ZFPXWN8hdAAUb49jVl2NqK/Nearly-52-agricultural-households-indebted-shows-NSSO-surv.html

Tikdam- Again this question looks very tough. statement 1 and statement 3 cannot be easily deciphered even by using logic. However observe statement 2 carefully. 60% households as OBC looks extreme. Mandal commission calculated that 52 percent population in India belongs to the OBC community. If we take the case of Agriculture households ,this number can only increase or decrease by 4-5 %. Therefore statement 2 looks extreme. Once we eliminate statement 2 we will automatically get the Answer using elimination method.

Q.4) How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1.The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2,The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.b

Explanation – CPCB was established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. CPCB is also entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is very obvious. It is correct

Q.5) Consider the following statements:

1.The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2.The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.a

Explanation – Statement 1 is very obvious. It is correct

In IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, various laws placed in the Ninth Schedule were challenged on the ground that any law violating fundamental rights should be struck down as “unconstitutional” and that the court’s power of judicial review cannot be taken away. A nine-judge constitution bench delivered its verdict on the issue in January 2007.

Judgment in this case

a) The SC upheld the validity of Article 31-B and Parliament’s power to place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule.

b) But it said laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are open to judicial scrutiny and that such laws do not enjoy a blanket protection.

c) Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after the Keshwanand Bharti Judgment on April 24, 1973, when it propounded the “basic structure” doctrine, were open to challenge.
Therefore statement 2 is incorrect

Q.6) Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?

(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.

(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial trAnsactions for purchasing goods or services.

(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.

(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

Ans. c

Explanation – MDR is the charge paid by a merchant to a bank for accepting payment from customers via credit or debit cards. It is expressed as a percentage of the trAnsaction amount.

https://www.hindustantimes.com/business-news/government-to-reimburse-mdr-charges-on-small-trAnsactions/story-9E4Y76OczIs3vOI4esvNNI.htmlTikdam-

Q.7) What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?

1.It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2.It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.a

Explanation –
-Statement 1 is very obvious.It is correct.
-Statement 2 looks extreme.If that would have been the case ,India would have never lobbied for NSG memebership since India has always opposed NPT which it calls as a discriminatory treaty.Therefore statement 2 is incorrect

Tikdam-Statement 1 is obvious and statement 2 can be eliminated easily using pure logic. Why would India lobbied for NSG membership if after getting membership it had to join the discriminatory NPT which it has also opposed.

Q.8) With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the
following statements is/are correct ?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.

Select the correct Answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.d

Explanation – Statement 1 is incorrect.The government’s decision to levy an equalisation tax of 6 per cent on online advertisement services offered in the country by non-resident entities will impact users, especially start-ups that rely almost entirely on the online world to popularize their services. Further, as the levy is not introduced as part of the Income Tax Act but as a separate legislation under the Finance Bill, global firms that offer such services in India cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the double taxation avoidance agreements.

Statement 2 is incorrect.Finance Minister Arun Jaitley during Budget speech said that, “In order to tap tax on income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from India it is proposed that a person making a payment to a non-resident (global advertising platform), who does not have a permanent establishment, exceeding in aggregate Rs.1 lakh in a year, as consideration for online advertisement, will withhold tax at 6 per cent of gross amount paid, as equalisation levy,”.
Hence, d is the correct option.

Q.9) Consider the following statements:

1.The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2.The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3.As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only
b)2 and 3 only
c)1 and 3 only
d)1, 2 and 3

Ans.c

The FRBM Review Committee Report 2017 had to figure in the exam!

Statement 1 is correct. That is the core recommendation.

Statement 2 is wrong as the numbers are interchanged (21% and 49% for States and Centre).

Statement 3 is technically correct.

The Constitution of India has adopted a federal system of polity and governance, originally envisaging a two-tier structure: Central (i.e., federal) Government and State (i.e., provincial) Governments. With the Constitution (73rd and 74th) Amendment Acts, 1992, Local Self-Government Institutions (LSGIs), i.e., rural and urban local bodies have been accorded constitutional status as the third-tier of Government. The Constitution provides for preparation of annual budgets and borrowings by the Centre, respectively, under Articles 112 and 292 and by the States under Articles 202 and 293.

Article 293 of the Indian Constitution imposes certain restrictions on the borrowings by State Governments. The Article stipulates that a State may not, without the consent of the Government of India, raise any borrowings if it has any loan outstanding, which is repayable to the Government of India.

Source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Sa6LstICASiTxMZyMivA-Y0mPt4WoKuZ/view

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1bHobt6cx1Zp8FsJtgD-ebSnzxTVKRrGS/view

Source: https://dea.gov.in/sites/default/files/Status%20Paper%20final%2028.3.18.pdfTikdam-

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1.The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2.The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.a

Explanation –
India’s vegetable oil imports have skyrocketed in recent years to about 14 million tonnes, worth approximately $11 billion (over Rs.70,000 crore). In value terms vegoil imports are next only to crude and gold, and the highest for any food commodity. This is an alarming situation. Our import dependence has worsened to over 70 per cent (so we locally produce only 30% of our needs). Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is wrong, as government does impose customs duty on imported edible oils. In the past decades, liberal policies have meant low rates, and at times zero rates too, but duties have persisted.

There was another distressed sector – Pulses – where the government demonstrated courage in taking steps with far reaching implications. Our domestic production has grown dramatically. But we have been accused of protectionist tendencies. There is immense international pressure to ease policy restrictions on pulses; yet, the priority at the moment is remunerative prices for pulse growers. Same should ultimately be the case with edible oils sector too.

Sources: http://bsmedia.business-standard.com/_media/bs/img/article/2017-10/19/full/1508354917-3611.jpg
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1xGp5dl8oB5MpY_HZNCPvGvYBBTQr1WGn/view

Q.11) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

a)Aurobindo Ghosh
b)Bipin Chandra Pal
c)Lala Lajpat Rai
d)Motilal Nehru

Ans.c

Source: Page 14, Political Thinkers of Modern India: Lala Lajpat Rai, Written by V.grover.Tikdam-

Q.12) Consider the following statements:

1.Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2.Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.d

Explanation – Statement 1 is incorrect. https://www.news18.com/news/india/aadhar-not-a-valid-proof-of-citizenship-or-domicile-calcutta-high-court-1327791.html

Statement 2 is incorrect. Your Aadhaar can be deactivated under various circumstances. An Aadhaar with mixed or anomalous biometric information or multiple names in single name is a good candidate for deactivation. Aadhaar can also get deactivated upon non-usage of the same for three consecutive years.
Source: https://www.businesstoday.in/current/policy/aadhaar-can-be-deactivated-for-several-reasons-know-how-to-activate-it-again/story/259855.html

Q.13) Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1.Aral Sea
2.Black Sea
3.Lake Baikal
Select the correct Answer using the code given below:

a)1 only
b)2 and 3 only
c)2 only
d)1 and 3

Ans.d

Explanation – Statement 1 is correct. Source:https://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2014/10/141001-aral-sea-shrinking-drought-water-environment/

Statement 2 is incorrect. We could not find any link/news which can prove us conclusively that black sea has shinked in recent past.

Statement 3 is correct
Source: https://www.unian.info/world/1278829-tass-shrinking-baikal-dries-wells-300-kilometers-away-from-unique-lake.html

Q.14) “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following ?

a)Amnesty International
b)International Court of Justice
c)The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
d)World Justice Project

Ans.d

Explanation – The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index® measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived by the general public across the globe. It is the world’s leading Source for original, independent data on the rule of law.

Source: https://worldjusticeproject.org/our-work/wjp-rule-law-index

Q.15) Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India ?

a)Indian Banks’ Association
b)National Securities Depository Limited
c)National Payments Corporation of India
d)Reserve Bank of India

Ans.c

Explanation – National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking.

It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an umbrella organization for all retail payments in India.

It was set up with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks Association (IBA). Hence, c is the correct option.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Financial_Switch

Q.16) Consider the following statements:

1.Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if any account-holders fail to repay dues.
2.CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.a

Explanation – statement 1 is correct.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/capital-adequacy-ratio.

Statement 2 is incorrect. CAR is decided by central bank and not by indivisual bank.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/capital-adequacy-ratio

Q.17) The identity platform ‘Aadhaar‘ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

1.It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2.Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.c

Explanation – Statement 1 speaks about “any electronic device” so we can assume our mobile phones and other devices (attendance recorders etc.) are covered in this definition. Aadhar API can indeed be integrated.

Biometric devices can be :

(1) Discrete Devices: These type of devices refer to the class of biometric devices (Fingerprint/IRIS) that require connectivity to a host device such as PC/laptop/Micro ATM etc.

(2) Integrated Devices: The integrated devices have the sensor integrated into the device package i.e. phone/tablet etc.

The form factors in which biometric devices may be deployed include:

Hand-Held / PoS Device such as MicroATMs, attendance devices, USB device connected to PC, Mobile phone with biometric sensor, Kiosks such as ATMs, MNREGA job request kiosks.

Statement 2 is also correct. Type 3 from the following Aadhaar Authentication Offerings includes Iris. ( Source : https://authportal.uidai.gov.in/home-articles?urlTitle=aadhaar-authentication-offerings&pageType=authentication )

Type 1 Authentication -Through this offering, service delivery agencies can use Aadhaar Authentication system for matching Aadhaar number and the demographic attributes (name, address, date of birth, etc) of a resident.

Type 2 Authentication -This offering allows service delivery agencies to authenticate residents through One-Time-Password (OTP) delivered to resident’s mobile number and/or email address present in CIDR.

Type 3 Authentication -Through this offering, service delivery agencies can authenticate residents using one of the biometric modalities, either iris or fingerprint.

Type 4 Authentication -This is a 2-factor authentication offering with OTP as one factor and biometrics (either iris or fingerprint) as the second factor for authenticating residents.

Type 5 Authentication -This offering allows service delivery agencies to use OTP, fingerprint & iris together for authenticating residents.

Q.18) Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

a)Angola and Zambia
b)Morocco Tunisia
c)Venezuela and Colombia
d)Yemen and South Sudan

Ans.d

Explanation – The 2017 Global Hunger Index (GHI) shows long-term progress in reducing hunger in the world. The report ranked 119 countries in the developing world, nearly half of which have ‘extremely alarming,’ ‘alarming’ or ’serious’ hunger levels. According to 2017 Global Hunger Index scores, the level of hunger in the world has decreased by 27 percent from the 2000 level. India ranked 100th position among 119 countries on Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2017.

2017 GHI scores still raise significant concern, including Somalia, South Sudan, and Syria. Even the United Nations declared that more than 20 million people are at risk of famine in Nigeria, Somalia, South Sudan and Yemen.

Yemen was the sole country on the 2017 Global Hunger Index suffering from “alarming” or “extremely alarming” levels of hunger that’s not located in Africa. Yemen ranked 114th out of the 119 countries assessed, and its hunger level, falling in the “alarming” category, has dropped 7 percent in the past 17 years.

South Sudan lacked sufficient data for calculating this year’s Global Hunger Index score. But in February, the United Nations declared famine in parts of the country, the first to be announced anywhere in the world since 2011. The formal declaration meant South Sudanese were already dying of hunger.Tikdam-Could be solved using logic. if you see the options you will find that Tunisia , Morocco, Columbia and Venezuela are middle income countries and therefore no way they would had suffered from malnutrition /famine. Now we are left with option a and option d. The countries mentioned in option a have not suffered from war/ethnic cleasning in last few years. Therefore we are left with only 1 option which is d.

Q.19) Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

1.Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2.Establishment of universities was recommended.
3.English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct Answer using the code given below:

a)1 and 2 only
b)2 and 3 only
c)1 and 3 only
d)1, 2 and 3

Ans.a

Explanation – Main recommedations of wood’s dispatch.

1.English education will increase moral character in Indian’s mind and thus supply EIC with civil servants whom can be trusted upon
2.An education department was to be set up in every province.
Universities on the model of the London university be established in big cities such as Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.
3.At least one government school be opened in every district.
Affiliated private schools should be given grant in aid.
4.The Indian natives should be given training in their mother tongue also.
Provision was made for a systematic method of education from primary level to the university level.
5.The government should always support education for women.
The medium of instruction at the primary level was to be vernacular while at the higher levels it would be English.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wood%27s_despatch

Tikdam-Look at the third statement. It looks extreme. Perhaps after Macaulay , No education related commitee recommended that education at all levels should be given in English. Therefore we can eliminate statement 3. Once we do that we will automatically get the Answer without even knowing first 2 statements.

Q.20) With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws etc. conferred by the constitution of delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

a)Committee on Government Assurances
b)Committee on Subordinate Legislation
c)Rules Committee
d)Business Advisory Committee

Ans.b

Explanation – There shall be a Committee for every house of parliament on Subordinate Legislation to scrutinize and ensure whether powers to make rules, regulations, bye-laws, schemes or other statutory instruments conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament have been properly exercised within such conferment or delegation. The Committee shall consist of fifteen members each in Rajya Sabha and Lok SabhaTikdam-

Q.21) Consider the following statements:

1.As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2.As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3.In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 and 2
b)2 only
c)1 and 3
d)3 only

Ans.b

Explanation – A question asked in the Parliament received this Answer :

1. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) does not prescribe any norms for the appointment of Teachers of Elementary Education.

2. However, the National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE), as the academic authority notified by the Central Government, under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE), Act 2009, has laid down the minimum educational & professional qualifications for a person to be eligible for an appointment as a teacher for classes I-VIII (primary classes – statement 2 of our question)

3. These are applicable to all schools imparting elementary education, including the schools under the State Governments and to qualify under a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).

4. Some States are finding it difficult to appoint teachers due to the non- availability of qualified candidates because of the inadequate number of teacher education institutions and due to delays in the Teacher Eligibility Tests (TET) because of court cases.

5. A total of 13 States had requested a relaxation in the professional qualifications as laid down by the NCTE, which has been duly considered and permitted by the Central Government under certain conditions. Some States had also sought relaxation from the TET, which has not been agreed to.

Source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1syt-13j8ZqHy9sNfQH0nBcJaJ7NdayUC/view

Q.22) Consider the following pairs :

Tradition State
1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur
3. Thong-To dance — Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3

Ans.b

Explanation – The Chapchar Kut is a spring festival of Mizoram, India. It is estimated to have started in 1450-1700 A.D. in a village called Suaipui. It is celebrated during March after the completion of the task i.e. jungle-clearing (clearing of the remnants of burning). This festival is celebrated with great fervour and gaiety.

Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the

mighty British Empire in 1891. It is one of the most popular musical art forms of Manipur inciting the spirit of patriotism and nationalism among the people at one time.

The art of Thang-Ta represents an ancient and remarkable tradition of Manipur. It exhibits the extraordinary technique of combat using the Thang (sword) and the Ta (spear). Thang-Ta symbolises the traditional martial art techniques of the Manipuris. It was also known as Huyen Lallong which meAns the art of sword and the spear.

Q.23) Consider the following statements:

1.The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2.The Food Safety and Standard Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.a

Explanation – According to the Food Safety and Standard Act (Chapter XII), any reference to “the Prevention of the Food Adulteration Act, 1954” shall be substituted by it.

The following come under the Directorate General Health Services : CBHI, CDSCO, Central Health Education Bureau, Leprosy Section, Medical store Organisation, MH, and International Health. Clearly, FSSAI is not included.

Statement 1 is correct.

Source:https://barandbench.com/india-law-connect/legal-briefing/shift-from-the-prevention-of-food-adulteration-act-1954-to-food-safety-and-standards-act-2006/

Q.24) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the
affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen

Ans.b

Explanation – The “two-state solution” is the preferred solution adopted for the Arab-Israel conflict by the creation of an independent state of Israel and Palestine and is the mainstream approach to resolve the conflict. The idea is that Israelis and PalestiniAns want to run their countries differently; Israelis want a Jewish state and PalestiniAns want a Palestinian one. Because neither side can get what it wants in a joined state, the only possible solution that satisfies everyone involves separating PalestiniAns and Israelis.

Q.25) With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

1.The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
2.The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3.Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 and 2
b)2 only
c)1and 3
d)3 only

Ans.b

Explanation – Statements 1 and 3 are wrong.

According to Chapter VI of the NFS Act, women of eighteen years of age or above to be head of household for purpose of issue of ration cards. So statement 2 is correct. Allocation of subsidised food grains ONLY to people below poverty line is not mentioned in the bill.

The NFS Act entitled every pregnant woman and lactating mother to meal, free of charge, during pregnancy and six months after child birth. It specified a calorie count of 600 calories.

It would look tough to remember figures like “600 calories” etc., but that forms the basis of the Act’s deliverables and hence should be remembered.

Source: https://www.firstpost.com/economy/all-you-need-to-know-about-national-food-security-bill-1063107.html

Q.26) India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO

Ans.d

Source: https://www.indiainfoline.com/article/print/news-top-story/economics-for-everyone-going-global-geographical-indicators-gi-114080502670_3.html

Q.27) Consider the following statements:

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans.d

Explanation – Statement 1 is incorrect.
Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/business/govt-states-likely-to-auction-54-non-coal-mines-in-fy18-4853479/

Statement 2 is incorrect.
Source: https://www.ap7am.com/lv-194507-geological-survey-of-india-gold-mines-found-in-ap.html

Statement 3 is correct.
Source: http://www.rajras.in/index.php/rajasthan-mines-minerals/Tikdam-

Q.28) With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1.BHIM app allows the user to trAnsfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2.While a chip-pin debit card has four factors authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 and 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.a

Statement 1 is correct.

Source: https://www.bhimupi.org.in/what-we-do

Statement 2 is incorrect: In BHIM app There are three factors of authentication versus a normal net banking app or a chip-pin debit card which will only have two factors of authentication.
Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/bhim-app-narendra-modi-upi-online-trAnsaction-safety-4453599/

Q.29) Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

a)Bengaluru
b)Hyderabad
c)Nagpur
d)Pune

Ans.a

Source: https://www.google.co.in/search?rlz=1C1CHBF_enIN795IN795&q=Bengaluru+Longitude&nfpr=1&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiSrunwprfbAhVOfysKHTCRDcMQvgUIJigB&biw=1366&bih=662

Q.30) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

a)Child labour
b)Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change
c)Regulation of food prices and food security
d)Gender parity at the workplace

Ans.a

Explanation – Convention No. 182 helped to focus the international spotlight on the urgency of action to eliminate as a priority, the worst forms of child labour without losing the long term goal of the effective elimination of all child labour.

Source: http://www.ilo.org/ipec/facts/ILOconventionsonchildlabour/lang–en/index.htm

Q.31) Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India

Ans.c

Explanation – Option (a) correctly mentions the definition of a Money Bill (as per Article 110(1)(a))

Option (b) also correctly mentions the definition of a Money Bill (as per Article 110(1)(c))

Option (d) also correctly mentions the definition of a Money Bill (as per Article 110(1)(b))

Article 110(1) of the Constitution defines a Money Bill as :

A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely:

(a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

(b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;

(c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such fund;

(d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India;

(e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure;

(f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State;

or

(g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f).

(2.) A Bill is not deemed to be Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licences or fees for services rendered, or by reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes….

The Contingency Fund of India is established under Article 267(1) of the Indian Constitution. It is used in the nature of natural disasters and unforesable events. The fund is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President of India.

Q.32) With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

1.The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2.The value of the vote of MPs of the Loksabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajyasabha

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.c

Explanation –
a) Art. 55 provides for uniformity in the scale of representation of different states at the election of the President.
b) Besides, there should also be parity between the states as a whole and the union.
c) For this purpose the value of votes of an MLA and an MP is counted under the following formula:

The number of MPs in Lok Sabha are higher so value of vote is larger than Rajya Sabha. Question has asked MPs not MP.

Q.33) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

(b)The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA

(c)The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

Ans.a

Source: https://www.iaea.org/newscenter/news/indias-additional-protocol-enters-force

Q.34) Consider the following countries :

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan

6. USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN ?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

Ans.c

Source: https://www.aseanbriefing.com/news/2017/12/07/aseAns-free-trade-agreements-an-overview.html

Q.35) With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.

2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.

3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct Answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.b

Explanation – GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform (promoted by the FAO) on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA).

Statement 1 is wrong as it was launched in 2014 at the UNSG Climate Summit, New York. Statement 3 is also wrong as India did not play that role. Till May 2018, of the 236 member entities, India was not one.

Key GACSA events :

Launch of the Alliance at the UNSG Climate Summit, 24 September 2014 (Source : http://www.fao.org/3/a-bl861e.pd )

(2) First working meeting of the Alliance at FAO Head Quarters in Rome on 17-18 December 2014

(3) First meeting of the GACSA Strategic Committee in Abu Dhabi on 11 March 2015

Second meeting of the GACSA Strategic Committee at FAO head Quarters in Rome on 14 October 2015

Third meeting of the GACSA Strategic Committee in Rotterdam on 09 May 2016

First Annual Forum of GACSA at FAO Head Quarters in Rome on 14 – 17 June 2016

Source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1JN_X3WQbelkEuyvLDtj9hxYGD6DYB-hB/viewhttps://drive.google.com/file/d/1JN_X3WQbelkEuyvLDtj9hxYGD6DYB-hB/viewhttps://drive.google.com/file/d/1JN_X3WQbelkEuyvLDtj9hxYGD6DYB-hB/view

Q.36) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ?

1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.

2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.

3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct Answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.b

Explanation – Statement 1 is wrong. The Digital India plan has not spoken of building Indian internet companies “like China did”. This direct comparison is not present.

( from http://digitalindia.gov.in/content/vision-and-vision-areas

The vision of Digital India programme is to trAnsform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.

Vision areas are :

1) Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen

2) Governance and Services on Demand

3) Digital Empowerment of Citizens

Statement 2 is wrong as this was not a part of the original vision but was added later (end 2017) with RBI demanding local data hosting and storage.

Source: http://nammakpsc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2015/07/Untitled1.png

Q.37) Consider the following pairs :

Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country

1. Aleppo Syria

2. Kirkuk Yemen

3. Mosul Palestine

4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and3

(d) 3 and 4

Ans.b

https://www.google.co.in/maps/dir/Aleppo,+Syria/Kirkuk,+Iraq/Mosul,+Iraq/Mazar-e+Sharif,+Afghanistan/@35.2117581,43.1179438,5z/data=!3m1!4b1!4m26!4m25!1m5!1m1!1s0x152ff813b98135af:0x967e5e5fc542c32a!2m2!1d37.1342603!2d36.2021047!1m5!1m1!1s0x1554d6034577edc9:0x5890c4555c9da475!2m2!1d44.3803921!2d35.4655761!1m5!1m1!1s0x40079464db1a88b9:0x9745d74edd0f0930!2m2!1d43.1640004!2d36.3566484!1m5!1m1!1s0x3f34b8a3605314bd:0xb27a5e1a6c1fcf71!2m2!1d67.1179511!2d36.6926167!3e0?hl=en

Q.38) In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

(a)Federal Legislature

(b) Governor General

(c)Provincial Legislature

(d) Provincial Governors

Ans.b

Explanation – Residual powers of legislation

(1)The Governor-General may by public notification empower either the Federal Legislature or a Provincial Legislature to enact a law with respect to any matter not enumerated in any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule to this Act, including a law imposing a tax not mentioned in any such list, and the executive authority of the Federation or of the Province, as the case may be, shall extend to the administration of any law so made, unless the Governor-General otherwise directs.
(2)In the discharge of his functions under this section the Governor-General shall act in his discretion.

Source: http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/Geo5and1Edw8/26/2/section/104/enactedTikdam-

Q.39) Consider the following statements :

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only

(b)2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.a

Explanation – A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of an Assembly
(a) shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly;
(b) may at any time by writing under his hand addressed, if such member is the Speaker, to the Deputy Speaker, and if such member is the Deputy Speaker, to the Speaker, resign his office; and Provided that no resolution for the purpose of clause (c) shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution: Provided further that, whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution

Source: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/139447/

Q.40) Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?

(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(c) If there is liberty laws have to be made by the people.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Ans.b

Explanation – John Locke FRS an English philosopher and physician, widely regarded as one of the most influential of Enlightenment thinkers and commonly known as the “Father of Liberalism said in his book two treatise of government that where there is no law, there is no freedom”. To our understanding the question is also asked in that context.

Source: https://inpropriapersona.com/articles/locke-where-there-is-no-law-there-is-no-freedom/Tikdam-

Q.41) Consider the following statements :

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.c

Explanation – Statement 1 is correct.
Source: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1470888/

Statement 2 is correct
Source: https://en.wikiSource.org/wiki/Constitution_of_India/Part_V

Q.42) The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

(a) Bundi school

(b) Jaipur school

(c) Kangra school

(d) Kishangarh school.

Ans.d

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/bani-thani-paintings-to-welcome-passengers-at-kishangarh-airport/articleshow/58451262.cms

Q.43) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news ?

(a) An Israeli radar system

(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme

(c)An American anti-missile system

(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Ans.c

Explanation – The US military is reportedly considering installing an anti-missile system in Germany to bolster European defenses at a time when the relationship between Washington and Moscow is already at a historically low point.

Source: https://www.businessinsider.in/The-US-military-is-reportedly-looking-to-install-anti-missile-defenses-in-Germany-and-its-sure-to-rankle-Russia/articleshow/64421798.cms

Q.44) With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements :

1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lor Krishna.

2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.

3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.

4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c)1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans.b

Explanation – Statement 1 is incorrect.Tyagaraja’s songs and compositions are full of devotion to his god Rama.

Source: https://www.thenewsminute.com/article/remembering-tyagaraja-guardian-saint-carnatic-music-his-250th-birth-anniversary-55754

Statement 3 is incorrect. Tyagaraja was born in 18th century while Annamacharya was born in 15th century.

Once we eliminate statement 1 and 3 we are only left with 1 option which is b.

Q.45) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People’s responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct Answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.c

Explanation – According to International Bar Association, 2005 principles underlying the Rule of Law in 21st Century, are as follows,
(a) An independent, impartial judiciary,
(b) The presumption of innocence,
(c) Fair and Public trial without undue delay,
(d) A rational and proportionate approach to punishment,
(e) Strong and independent legal profession,
(f) Strict protection of professional secrecy /confidential communication between lawyer and client.
(g) Equality of all before the law,
(h) Arbitrary arrests; secrete trials,
(i) Indefinite detention without trial,
(j) Cruel or degrading treatment or punishment,
(k) Intimidation and corruption,
(l) A trAnsparent process,
(m) Accessible and equal trial.

People’s responsibility to the government is not part of rule of law.

Source: http://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/1403/Rule-of-Law-in-India.html

Q.46) Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money ?

(a) The money which is tende ed in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases

(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

(c) The bank money in the form of cheques drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country

Ans.b

Explanation – Legal tender is a medium of payment recognized by a legal system to be valid for meeting a financial obligation. Paper currency and coins are common forms of legal tender in many countries. None of the 4 mentioned statements gives proper defination of legal tender, however b is most suitable Explanation of legal tender money.Tikdam-

Q.47) If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

(a) the opportunity cost is zero.
(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) the opportunity cost is trAnsferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
(d) the opportunity cost is trAnsferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

Ans.d

Explanation – Opportunity cost is the cost which could have been earned from second best investment option. For free goods, the opportunity cost is zero for the person consuming it, however, it is not so for the provider of that good. The choice of spending on various alternatives is available with government and not tax payers. Thus, it is trAnsferred to government.The Government always had a option of charging for the commodity, which is its opportunity cost.

Q.48) Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.

(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

(c) poverty and unemployme crease.

(d) imports grow faster than exports.

Ans.c

Now a higher level of economic development meAns that a quality of life in a particular country is high.If poverty and unemployement increase then definately quality of life in that country would not be high and therefore it would not lead to higher economic development even if there is increase in absolute and per capita real GNP.

Q.49) Consider the following statements :

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.

2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities the people of the country.

3. accumulation of tangible wealth.

4. accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b)2 only

(c)2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans.c

Explanation – Statement 2 is correct. In order to remove economic backwardness of the underdeveloped countries as well as to instill the capacities and motivations to progress, it is quite necessary to increase the level of knowledge and skills of the people.This is part of human capital formation.

Source: http://www.economicsdiscussion.net/capital-formation/human-capital-formation-meaning-importance-and-composition/19042

Statement 4 is correct. Human capital, intangible collective reSources possessed by individuals and groups within a given population. These reSources include all the knowledge, talents, skills, abilities, experience, intelligence, training, judgment, and wisdom possessed individually and collectively, the cumulative total of which represents a form of wealth available to nations and organizations to accomplish their goals.

Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/human-capital

Q.50) Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

(a) weak administrative machinery
(b) illiteracy
(c) high population density
(d) high capital-output ratio

Ans.d

Explanation – Without the availability of adequate capital either in the form of physical capital or in the form of human capital development of nation is not possible. The higher the rate of capital formation, the faster is the pace of economic growth. Saving and investment are essential for capital formation. But savings are different from hoardings. For savings to be utilised for investment purposes, they must be mobilised in banks and financial institutions. And the businessmen, the entrepreneurs and the farmers invest these community savings on capital goods by taking loAns from these banks and financial institutions. This is capital formation.
The process of capital formation involves three steps: Increase in the volume of real savings, Mobilisation of savings through financial and credit institutions and Investment of savings. So, if a country has high savings but poor technology, low efficiency then economic growth will not be possible.

Q.51) After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

1. The territories called `Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to trAnsfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct Answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. c

Explanation – statement 1 is correct.
Source: Indian tribe through the ages, RC Verma

statement 2 is correct.
Source: Page 52, Role of voluntary organisations in tribal development, D.N Thakur.
https://books.google.co.in/books?id=DORXV9O1AHQC&pg=PA52&lpg=PA52&dq=It+became+illegal+for+a+Santhal+to+trAnsfer+land+to+a+non-Santhal.&Tikdam-

Q.52) Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts

(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories

(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture

(d) rapid increase in the urban population

Ans.c

Explanation – The history of commercialisation of agriculture can be traced back to the British period. It started during British rule in India post 1813 when the Industrial revolution in England gained pace and commercialisation became more prominent around 1860 AD during American Civil War. The American civil war boosted demand of Cotton from India to Britain. But that commercialization did not take place to feed Indian industries but primarily to feed the British industries. It was taken up and achieved only in cases of those agricultural products which were either needed by British Industries or could fetch cash commercial gain to the British in the European or American market. Several efforts were made to increase the production of cotton in the country as it was needed by the British cotton textile Industries. Similarly Jute also received greater attention during the British regime as the jute made products used to get a ready market in the America and Europe.Tikdam-

Q.53) If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Ans. b

Explanation – Emergency Provisions are included in part XVIII from articles 352 to 360 in the Constitution for dealing with extraordinary situations that may threaten the peace, security, stability and governance of the country or a part thereof.
According to the Constitution it is the duty of the Union Government to ensure that governance of a State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Under Article 356, the President may issue a proclamation to impose emergency in a state if he is satisfied on receipt of a report from the Governor of the concerned State, or otherwise, that a situation has arisen under which the administration of the State cannot be carried on according to the provisions of the constitution.
– In such a situation, proclamation of emergency by the President is on account of the failure (or breakdown) of constitutional machinery. Thus it is known as “President’s Rule” or “State Emergency” or “Constitutional Emergency”.
Effects of Imposition of President’s Rule in a State
– The President can assume to himself all or any of the functions of the State Government or he may vest all or any of those functions with the Governor or any other executive authority.
– The President may dissolve the State Legislative Assembly or put it under suspension. He may authorize the Parliament to make laws on behalf of the State Legislature.
– The Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or any other body specified by him when the state legislature is suspended or dissolved.

Q.54) Consider the following pairs :

Craft Heritage of

1. Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu

2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra

3. Uppada Jamdani saris Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Ans.a

Sujni Embroidery is of Bihar
Uppada Jamdani Saris is of Andhra PradeshTikdam-

Q.55) In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used ?

1. Mobile phone operations

2. Banking operations

3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct Answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.d

Explanation – Statement 1 is correct.
Source: http://traveltips.usatoday.com/gps-work-cell-phones-21574.html

Statement 2 is correct.Major communications networks, banking systems, financial markets and power grids depend heavily on GPS for precise time synchronization,”
Source: https://gcn.com/articles/2013/11/12/gps-timing-position.aspx

Statement 3 is correct.
Source: https://link.springer.com/content/pdf/10.1007%2F978-3-642-18336-2_3.pdf\

Q.56) Consider the following statements:

1.The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2.Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3.Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.c

Statement 1 is incorrect. Treasury Bills are issued only by the central government in India. The State governments do not issue any treasury bills. Interest on the treasury bills is determined by market forces.

Source: https://www.goodreturns.in/news/2013/03/26/what-are-g-secs-treasury-bills-165976.html

Statement 2 is correct.

Statement 3 is correct. Treasury bills are sold at a discount to the par value, which is its actual value. For example, a Treasury bill with a par value of $10,000 may be sold for $9,500. The US Government, through the Department of Treasury, promises to pay the investor the full price of the T-bill after a specified maturity date.

Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/t/treasurybill.asp

Q.57) Consider the following statements :

1.The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2.When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3.When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.c

Explanation – It is accepted now that for nearly half of Earth’s 460 crore year history, the atmosphere contained almost no oxygen. Cyanobacteria or blue-green algae became the first microbes to produce oxygen by photosynthesis, perhaps as long ago as 350 crore years ago (approximately). So 3 is correct. Check options – Option (a) is gone.

2. Flipping of polarity or Geomagnetic Reversal : If geologic history repeats itself, Earth’s magnetic poles should eventually swap places. Based on the magnetic fingerprints locked into ancient rocks, we know that over the last 20 million years, magnetic north and south have flipped roughly every 200,000 to 300,000 years (this rate has not been constant over the planet’s lifetime, though). The last of these major reversals occurred about 780,000 years ago, although the Poles do wander around in between these larger flips. (What’s more, climate change seems to be shifting Earth’s geographic poles.)

3. A geomagnetic reversal is a change in a planet’s magnetic field such that the positions of magnetic north and magnetic south are interchanged, while geographic north and geographic south remain the same. The Earth’s field has alternated between periods of normal polarity, in which the main direction of the field was the same as the present direction, and reverse polarity, in which it was the opposite. These periods are called “chrons”.

4. A small complete reversal (the Laschamp event) occurred only 41,000 years ago during the last glacial period. That reversal lasted only about 440 years with the actual change of polarity lasting around 250 years. During this change the strength of the magnetic field weakened to 5% of its present strength.

5. Scientists estimate that past polar flips have been rather sluggish, with north and south migrating to opposite positions over thousands of years. This is both good and bad if you’re concerned about how a geomagnetic reversal will affect life on Earth.Tikdam-

Q.58) The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

(a) Exo-planets
(b) Crypto-currency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites

Ans.c

Explanation – The Petya and WannaCry cyber-attacks in May and June 2017; are two of the biggest in history and impacted the finances of companies throughout the globe. Wanna Cry, which affected numerous organisations, including the NHS, spread to 150 countries and is estimated to have cost the global economy £6bn.

Q.59) With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture ?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal rop sequencing/crop rotations.

Select the correct Answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Ans.c

Explanation – Conservation Agriculture is a farming system that promotes maintenance of a permanent soil cover, minimum soil disturbance (i.e. no tillage), and diversification of plant species. It enhances biodiversity and natural biological processes above and below the ground surface, which contribute to increased water and nutrient use efficiency and to improved and sustained crop production.

Source: http://www.fao.org/conservation-agriculture/en/

Q.60) The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs. .
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural reSources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Ans.d

The scientists found that a third of the thousands of species losing populations are not currently considered endangered and that up to 50% of all individual animals have been lost in recent decades. Detailed data is available for land mammals, and almost half of these have lost 80% of their range in the last century. The scientists found billions of populations of mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibiAns have been lost all over the planet, leading them to say a sixth mass extinction has already progressed further than was thought.

Source: https://www.theguardian.com/environment/2017/jul/10/earths-sixth-mass-extinction-event-already-underway-scientists-warn

Q.61) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None

Ans.a

Explanation – Statement 1 is correct.The system at present consists of a constellation of seven satellites

Statement 2 is incorrect. It covers India and a region extending 1,500 km (930 mi) around it, with plAns for further extension.

Statement 3 is incorrect.IRNSS does not plan to have global coverage.It will only India and a region extending 1500KM around it.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Regional_Navigation_Satellite_System

Q.62) Consider the following phenomena :

1.Light is affected by gravity.
2.The Universe is constantly expanding.
3.Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.d

Explanation – General relativity theory published by Albert Einstein in 1915 is the current description of gravitation in modern physics.

The theory of general relativity is the basis of current cosmological models of a consistently expanding universe. The bending of light by gravity can lead to the phenomenon of gravitational lensing, in which multiple images of the same distant astronomical object are visible in the sky. According to the relativist John Archibald Wheeler studies on the theory of general relativity, spacetime tells matter how to move; matter tells spacetime how to curve. So all statements are correct.

Source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1tLqJqenaE7N6ceOp0mKLxVVwxYREpcPj/view

Q.63) With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :

1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Ans.b

Explanation – GM mustard has been developed by a team of scientists at Delhi University’s Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants led by former vice-chancellor Deepak Pental under a government-funded project. Thus statement 3 is incorrect. There is only 1 option left after this elimination.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/geac-clears-gm-mustard-for-commercial-use/articleshow/58634821.cms

Tikdam-

Now this Question looks very tough. Statement 1 and statement 2 are very confusing.It is not easy for non-science students to know about the correctness of statement 1 and 2, However statement 3 is simple.Anyone who has studied about GM mustard must be aware with the fact that it is developed by DU under Professor Depak Pental.Therefore once we eliminate statement 3 we are left with only 1 option which is b.

Q.64) Consider the following pairs :

Terms sometimes seen in news Context /Topic

Belle II experiment Artificial Intelligence
Blockchain technology Digital/ Cryptocurrency
CRISPR — Cas9 Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.b

Explanation – CRSIPR 3 is related to Biotechnology and not Particle physics.We wll automatically get the Answer once we eliminate statement 3.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CRISPR

Tikdam- Now statement 1 is tough. BELLE II experiment was not much in news in recent months.However CRSIPR 9 was very much in news in recent months.Anyone who is following newspaper or CD website must be aware with the fact that CRSIPR 9 is related to genome editing. Once we eliminate statement 3 we will automatically get the Answer.

Q.65) Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization” ?

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(c) Increased acidity of oceAns as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Ans.a

Explanation – Carbon fertilization results in larger amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere that has resulted from rising anthropogenic emissions should help the growth of plants, which use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. The effect ought to increase crop yields – and that is some good news for farmers, amid the overwhelmingly gloomy forecasts for other aspects of climate change.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CO2_fertilization_effect

Q.66) When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart min-or in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fAns, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term” best applies to the above scenario?
(a) Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network

Ans.b

Explanation – Internet of things is a seamless connected network system of embedded objects/ devices, with identifiers, in which communication without any human intervention is possible using standard and interoperable communication protocols.With this technology, each and every device that we use in daily life (including refrigerators, cars and even tooth brush) can be made intelligent and smart by using device specific operating systems and connectivity to the Internet.

Source: https://www.ijedr.org/papers/IJEDR1702061.pdf

Q.67) With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :

1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.

2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.d

Explanation – Statement 1 is incorrect.India does not figure in the top 3 makers of silicon wafers used in PV units.

statement 2 is incorrect. Solar tariff in India is linked to capex, opex, financing cost of IRR (internal rate of return) expectation. It is market determined and not decided by SECI.

Read more at:
//economictimes.indiatimes.com/articleshow/58649942.cms?utm_Source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Q.68) The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium

(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead

(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea

(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

Ans.d

Explanation – India’s most important article of export was its cotton textiles which were famous all over the world for their excellence and were in demand everywhere. India also exported raw silk and silk fabrics, hardware, indigo, saltpeter, opium, rice, wheat, sugar, pepper and other spices, precious stones, and drugs.

Source: http://www.historydiscussion.net/history-of-india/eighteenth-century/people-in-the-18th-century-in-india-indian-history/6346

Q.69) Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha ?

(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement

(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement

(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement

(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

Ans.c

Explanation – The Champaran peasant movement was launched in 1917-18. Its objective was to create awakening among the peasants against the European planters. These planters resorted to illegal and inhuman methods of indigo cultivation at a cost which by no canons of justice could be called an adequate remuneration for the labour done by the peasants.

Q.70) Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948 ?

(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George

(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, De Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy

(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu

(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Ans.d

Explanation – The Hind Mazdoor sabha was founded in Howrah in west bengal on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists. It was founded by Basawon Singh, Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary. HMS absorbed the Royist Indian Federation of Labour and the Hind Mazdoor Panchayat, which was formed in 1948 by socialists leaving the increasingly communist dominated AITUC.

Source: http://www.hindmazdoorsabha.com/about-hms.php

Q.71) With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

(a)Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Vaishnavism

(d) Shaivism

Ans.b

Explanation – Sthanakvasi is a sect of svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha. The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain reformer. Sthānakavāsins accept thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, the Śvētāmbara canon. Śvētāmbarins who are not Sthānakavāsins are mostly part of the Murtipujaka sect.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sth%C4%81nakav%C4%81s%C4%AB

Q.72) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements :

1.White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2.Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.a

Explanation – Statement 1 is correct. The Buland Darwaza is made of red and buff sandstone, decorated by white and black marble
Source: https://www.culturalindia.net/monuments/buland-darwaza.html

Statement 2 is incorrect. The architectural style of the Rumi Darwaza is completely in sync with the Nawabi architecture of Lucknow, and its significantly different from the Mughals. The material used for the drawaza is bricks and its then coated with lime, while the Mughals often used red sand stone.
Source: https://www.sid-thewanderer.com/2017/04/rumi-darwaza-history-lucknow.html

Q.73) Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

(a) Francois Bernier
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre

Ans.b

Source: https://mineralsciences.si.edu/collections/hope/details/jean-baptiste-tavernier.htm

Q.74) With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

(a) Avalokiteshvara
(b) Lokesvara
(c) Maitreya
(d) Padmapani

Ans.c

Explanation – According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor to the present Buddha, Gautama Buddha (also known as Śākyamuni Buddha)

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maitreya

Q.75) Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

(a) To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense

(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger

(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company

(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

Ans.c

Explanation – option a,b and d are integral part of subsidiary alliance. It is given in NCERT, and other online Sources.However statement c is not given anywhere, neither in NCERT nor in any google Sources.

Source:http://www.preservearticles.com/2012031527446/what-are-the-essential-principles-of-the-subsidiary-alliance-system.htmlTikdam-

Q.76) Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1.Charter Act of 1813
2.General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3.Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct Answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and3

Ans.b

Explanation – The Charter Act of 1813 did not clarify the objectives of education and the methods for improvement of literature of the learned natives in India. The Charter Act had given stress on allotting the one lakhs rupees only; no specific regulations were granted for establishing the schools and colleges in India. So statement 1 is not correct. The Charter Act of 1813 made a State system of Education in India officially.

In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education. That committee consisted of 10(ten) European members of which Lord Macaulay was the president. The committee decided to spend major portions from the grant for the improvement of oriental literature. A controversy arose between the Orientalists and Anglicists (promoters of British education) over which method to be followed. That controversy by itself did not “introduce English education in India”. Statement 3 is wrong.

Statement 2 is correct. As a president of General Committee of Public Instruction, Lord Macaulay wrote a minute on 2nd February 1835, where he made the conclusion regarding the controversy. Lord Macaulay stressed the implementation of the English language as a medium of instruction through his minute. He said that English was the best medium of instruction, as that this would enable the emergence of a class of people in the Indian society, who would be well versed in English language, western ideology, taste and opinion. This class would serve as a medium of contact with the great mass of Indian people who were culturally different from the English.

In his minute, Macaulay criticized the oriental learning as “a single shelf of good European library was worth the whole native literature of India and Arabic”. Macaulay believed that English should be introduced because it is a language of the ruling class and also the familiarity has been gained by higher classes of IndiAns. Lord William Bentinck accepted Macaulay’s minute or opinions towards the lanquage of education for India on 7th March 1835.

Q.77) Which one of the following is an ‘artificial lake‘?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)

(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Ans.a

Source:
https://www.makemytrip.com/travel-guide/kodaikanal/lakes.htmlTikdam-

Q.78) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements :

1.It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2.It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3.It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.c

Explanation – Statement 1 is incorrect. It is a flagship scheme of Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Statement 2 is correct.

Statement 3 is correct.

Source: http://www.skilldevelopment.gov.in/pmkvy.html

Q.79) In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha” ?

(a) All India Home Rule League

(b) Hindu Mahasabha

(c) South Indian Liberal Federation

(d) The Servants of India Society

Ans.a

Explanation – The Home Rule League was renamed to Swarajya Sabha in 1920. Gandhi ji joined this league and accepted the presidentship of the renamed organisation “Swarajya Sabha”.

Source: http://gandhiserve.org/information/chronology_1920/chronology_1920.html

Q.80) Which among the following events happened earliest?

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.

(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan

(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.

(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

Ans.b

Explanation – 1.Dayanand Saraswati was born in 1824 in a Brahmin family in Morvi in Gujarat as Mula Shankar. He founded the Arya Samaj in Bombay in 1875.
2. Nil Darpan is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was published from Dhaka in 1860, under a pseudonym of the author.
3. Anandamath is a Bengali fiction, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and published in 1882. Set in the background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century.
4. Satyendranath Tagore (1st June, 1842 – 9th January, 1923) was the first Indian to join the Indian Civil Service. Satyendranath was selected for the Indian Civil Service in June, 1863.He completed his probationary training and returned to India in November 1864. Satyendranath was posted to Bombay presidency.

Q.81) Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds ?

1.Decreased salinity in the river
2.Pollution of groundwater
3.Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct Answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.b

Explanation – excessive in-stream sand-and-gravel mining causes the degradation of rivers. Instream mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea.
In-stream sand mining results in the destruction of aquatic and riparian habitat through large changes in the channel morphology. Impacts include bed degradation, bed coarsening, lowered water tables near the streambed, and channel instability. Therfore statement 1 is incorrect

Tikdam-Statement 1 looks silly.It can be eliminated. Once we eliminate statement 1 we will automatically get the Answer without even knowing other 2 statements

Q.82) With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements :

1.A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2.Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3.Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.b

Explanation – Soil plays a very important role in sulphur cycle. Bacterial oxidation and reduction of sulphur compunds takes place inside the soil. A high content of organic matter increases the water holding capacity of the soil as organic matter has a high affinity towards water. So Statement 1 is wrong. That rules out 3 options in one stroke.

Details : Soil water holding capacity is controlled primarily by the soil texture and the soil organic matter content. Soil texture is a reflection of the particle size distribution of a soil. An example is a silt loam soil that has 30% sand, 60% silt and 10% clay sized particles. In general, the higher the percentage of silt and clay sized particles, the higher the water holding capacity. The small particles (clay and silt) have a much larger surface area than the larger sand particles. This large surface area allows the soil to hold a greater quantity of water. The amount of organic material in a soil also influences the water holding capacity. As the level of organic matter increases in a soil, the water holding capacity also increases, due to the affinity of organic matter for water

.Tikdam-Once we eliminate statement 1 we will automatically get the Answer without knowing the above 2 statements.

Q.83) The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries trAnsition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Ans.b

Explanation – The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.
In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil. The conference’s outcome document entitled The Future We Want was a call to action for governments, business and the UN alike to support countries interested in trAnsition to a green economy.

Source: http://www.un-page.org/

Q.84) “3D printing” has applications in which of the following?

1.Preparation of confectionery items
2.Manufacture of bionic ears
3.Automotive industry
4.Reconstructive surgeries
5.Data processing technologies
Select the correct Answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans.d

Explanation – All the statements are correct.
Source: https://www.forbes.com/sites/forbestechcouncil/2018/02/06/11-tech-pros-share-their-favorite-applications-of-3d-printing-technology/#31d09d377545Tikdam-

Q.85) Consider the following statements:

1.The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2.Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3.The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Ans.a

Explanation – statement 1 is correct.It is India’s only live volcano which had started showing activity in 1991 after lying dormant for over 150 years has again started spewing ash.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Barren Island volcano is located 140-km North-East of Port Blair.

Statement 3 is incorrect. It has become active again in 2017.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/barren-island-volcano-india-s-only-live-volcano-become-active-again-in-january/story-QRFDzVzIsVn1QgV6HHo0cK.htmlTikdam-

Q.86) Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.

(d) None of the above

Ans.b

Explanation: Prosopis juliflora is a shrub or small tree in the family Fabaceae, a kind of mesquite. It is native to Mexico, South America and the Caribbean. It is a contributing factor to continuing trAnsmission of malaria, especially during dry periods when sugar Sources from native plants are largely unavailable to mosquitoes.

This is not only a big threat to the country’s biodiversity but also has become a burden on the environment. This tree is scattered in around 12 states of the country. It has destroyed about 500 species of native plants. If it has not been eliminated on time, it will destroy the remaining bio-diversity of the country. Its roots are too much deep which absorbs lot water also. It was brought to India in 1870.

Q.87) Consider the following statements :

1.Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2.More than one—third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3.Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.d

Explanation – 1. Coral reefs are highly diverse ecosystems vital to the welfare of human populations throughout the tropical area. Occupying less than one quarter of 1% of the marine environment, coral reefs are home to more than 25% of all known marine fish species

2. 32 of the 34 recognised animal Phyla are found on coral reefs compared to 9 Phyla in tropical rainforests

3. The variety of species living on coral reefs is greater than almost anywhere else in the world. Scientists estimate that more than one million species of plants and animals are associated with coral reef ecosystems.

4. Compared to other ecosystems the tropical rainforests have a very high level of diversity. The warm temperatures and high levels of precipitation make an environment that is suitable for a diverse range of animal species. Many of the Animals that inhabit the tropical Rainforest are species that cannot be found in any other type of environment.

5. But Coral reefs outdo the Tropical Rainforests! They are considered to be some of the most diverse biomes in the world. The high temperatures and protection the reefs provide creates a very suitable environment for living creatures.

6. The immediate threat to coral reefs from climate change is acute; 16% of the world’s reef suffered serious damages during the global bleaching event of 1998.

Source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1UPxrACbO0lDsIIxVsmyR4kqPDVJsZri8/view

Q.88) “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

(a) The Intergovernmental panel on Climate Change

(b) The UNEP Secretariat

(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat

(d) The World Meteorological Organization

Ans.c

The United Nations Climate Change secretariat has launched a new initiative that will showcase efforts by individuals, companies and governments that are achieving real results in trAnsitioning to climate neutrality.

Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now brings together two of the secretariat’s flagship activities that recognize leadership in tackling climate change by non-Party stakeholders.

Q.89) With reference to educational institutes during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs :

Institution Founder

1. SAnskrit College William at Benaras – William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa – Warren Hastings
3. Fort William Arthur College – Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans.b

Explanation – SAnskrit college is established by Jonathan Duncan

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Government_SAnskrit_College,_Varanasi

Fort william college was established by Richard Wellesley and not by Arthur Wellesely.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fort_William_College

Q.90) Consider the following pairs :

Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Catalonia – Spain
2. Crimea – Hungary
3. Mindanao – Philippines
4. Oromia – Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Ans.c

Correct matching of the Regions and Country are:

Catalonia – Spain

Crimea – Ukraine

Mindanao – Philippines

Oromia – EthiopiaTikdam-

Q.91) Consider the following events :

1.The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2.India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3.Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4.Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

(a) 4-1-2-3

(b) 3-2-1-4

(c) 4-2-1-3

(d) 3-1-2-4

Ans.b

Explanation – In 1953, the Government of India passed the Air Corporations Act and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons.

The Imperial Bank of India (IBI) was the oldest and the largest commercial bank of the Indian subcontinent, and was subsequently trAnsformed into State Bank of India in 1955.

In 1957, the CPI won the state elections in Kerala.

Goa was liberated on 19th December 1961.

Q.92) Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Ans.c

Explanation – Common sense

Q.93) Consider the following:

1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affair, has announced the Minimum Support Prick for which of the above?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Ans.b

Explanation – 26 commodities are currently covered. They are as follows.

Cereals (7) – paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi
Pulses (5) – gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil
Oilseeds (8) – groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and nigerseed
Copra
De-husked coconut
Raw cotton
Raw jute
Sugarcane (Fair and remunerative price)
Virginia flu cured (VFC) tobacco

Source: http://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/market-information/minimum-support-price

Q.94) In which one of the following States is
Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland

Ans.a

Source: http://www.arunachaltourism.com/pakhui-wildlife-sanctuary.php

Q.95) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements :

1.PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth reSources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2.Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3.GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Ans.a

Explanation – Sol. Answer is (a). Only statement 1 is correct.

PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg.The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication-satellites to the elliptical geosynchronous TrAnsfer Orbit (GTO). Statement 1 is correct.

GSLV Due to their geo-synchronous nature, the satellites in these orbits appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky.Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

GSLV Mk III is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.Statement 3 is incorrect.

The question required specific knowledge about the launch vehicles, a justified expectation, given the frequency with which ISRO has been breaking records and making headlines.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-the-difference-between-gslv-and-pslv/article6742299.ece

Statement 1 indicates “a steadily increasing capital infusion over past 10 years”. That is wrong. In some years, the amounts dropped. Please check support image here.

Statement 2 is indeed correct. That was the purpose of merging.

Refer image regarding capital infusion amounts, here

Such questions were indeed expected, given the NPA issue in Indian PSB system.

Sol. Answer is (a) 1 only.

This was an odd question, as extremely micro level information on GST coverage was asked 🙂

Enrol in The Hindu editorial analysis | Comment on this question & solution now!

Sol. Answer is (a).

The power to notify the rules to designate a CWH rests with Ministry of Environment and Forests.

The government of Madhya Pradesh has for the first time recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baigas.

State governments can declare habitat rights for primitive and vulnerable tribal groups in any part of India. So, statement 3 is wrong.

Sol. Answer is (d). All are correct.

Direct and indirect trAnsmission of plant diseases can happen.

Direct trAnsmission : Disease trAnsmission where the pathogen is carried externally or internally on the seed or planting material like cuttings, sets, tubers, bulbs etc.

Indirect trAnsmission : The pathogen spreading itself by way of its persistent growth or certain structures of the pathogen carried independently by natural agencies like wind, water, animals, insects, mites, nematodes, birds etc. are the different methods of indirect trAnsmissions.

Sol. Answer is (b). 2 and 3 only are right.

Sikkim is India first fully organic state. Hence, statement 3 is correct. So (a) is ruled out.

NPOP is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. So, 1 is wrong, so option (d) is also ruled out.

According to the scope and opertaional structure of national organic program, APEDA shall function as the Secretariat for the implementation of the NPOP.

Hence, Answer is (b).

Q.96) With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

1.Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2.To put the public sector banks order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.b

Explanation – Statement 1 is incorrect.It has increased and also decreased in last decade.

Source: https://www.livemint.com/r/LiveMint/Period2/2018/01/09/Photos/Processed/g_banks_web.jpg

Statement 2 is correct.
Source: https://www.livemint.com/Industry/mf507dGEvv1gCGRknnY9GM/SBI-merger-with-five-associate-banks-from-1-April.html

Q.97) Consider the following items:

1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.c

Fish, crustaceAns, molluscs & other aquatic invertebrates in processed, cured or frozen state are taxable at 5% rate under GST:

Source: https://www.indiafilings.com/learn/gst-rate-for-fish-fish-products-and-seafood/Tikdam-

Q.98) Consider the following statements :

1.The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2.For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3.Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change oflicially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.a

Explanation – Statement 1 is correct.

Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/pune/MoEF-revises-guidelines-on-critical-wildlife-habitat/articleshow/8496143.cms

The government of Madhya Pradesh has for the first time recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baigas.statement 2 is correct.

Source: http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/baiga-tribals-become-india-s-first-community-to-get-habitat-rights-52452

State governments can declare habitat rights for primitive and vulnerable tribal groups in any part of India. So, statement 3 is wrong.

Q.99) Consider the following:

1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.d

Explanation – According to the general mode of primary infection plant diseases are recognized as:-
1. Soil borne
2. Seed borne, including diseases carried with planting material.
3. Wind borne
4. Insect borne etc.

Direct trAnsmission: – Disease trAnsmission where the pathogen is carried externally or internally on the seed or planting material like cuttings, sets, tubers, bulbs etc.

Indirect trAnsmission:- The pathogen spreading itself by way of its persistent growth or certain structures of the pathogen carried independently by natural agencies like wind, water, animals, insects, mites, nematodes, birds etc. are the different methods of indirect trAnsmissions.

Q.100) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

1. The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.b

Explanation – Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001. Statement 1 is incorrect

Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=155000

India Organic is a certification mark for organically farmed food products manufactured in India. The certification is issued by testing centres accredited by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA).Statement 2 is correct.

Source: http://cgcert.com/Source/Download/RevisedNPP2014.pdf

Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state by converting around 75,000 hectares of agricultural land into sustainable cultivation. Sikkim produces around 80,000 million tonnes of farm products. The total organic production in the country is estimated to be around 1.24 million tonnes while the total area under organic farming is 0.723 million hectares. A number of other states in India like Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala are now trying to become organic. Statement 3 is correct.

Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Sikkim-becomes-India%E2%80%99s-first-organic-state/article13999445.ece

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