Author: Unbounded Wisdom

Update:

The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. Download

What’s this?

Discussion blog page for those who just attempted prelims mock #7. Discussion is open for any question which you had a doubt about, brainstorming on ways to arrive at a particular answer, any other interesting tit bit that you may share etc.

Where are the prelims mocks held?

Go to the link and start attempting the mocks. Click here. 25 questions each.

When will the detailed explanations be uploaded?

Every weekend (on sunday). Look out for this blog again and you will find a google drive link from where you can download the explanation pdfs.

Update:

The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. We have tried to make them as detailed as possible. Download

What’s this?

Discussion blog page for those who just attempted prelims mock #6. Discussion is open for any question which you had a doubt about, brainstorming on ways to arrive at a particular answer, any other interesting tit bit that you may share etc.

Where are the prelims mocks held?

Go to the link and start attempting the mocks. Click here. 25 questions each.

When will the detailed explanations be uploaded?

Every weekend (on sunday). Look out for this blog again and you will find a google drive link from where you can download the explanation pdfs.

Update:

The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. We have tried to make them as detailed as possible and included the complete articles wherever possible so you can draw more information from them. Download

What’s this?

Discussion blog page for those who just attempted prelims mock #5. Discussion is open for any question which you had a doubt about, brainstorming on ways to arrive at a particular answer, any other interesting tit bit that you may share etc.

Where are the prelims mocks held?

Go to the link and start attempting the mocks. Click here. 25 questions each.

When will the detailed explanations be uploaded?

Every weekend (on sunday). Look out for this blog again and you will find a google drive link from where you can download the explanation pdfs.

Update:

The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. We have tried to make them as detailed as possible and included references and user comments wherever possible. Download link. 

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Hmmm, after ECO-POL, let’s rack our grey cells to make some chhoti-moti discoveries or carry out some inventions. And if nothing works out, let’s just take a S&T test! 🙂 

 

1. Consider the following statements on Global Positioning System (GPS):

1. GPS allows accurate time-stamping on ATM transactions.

2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring signals worldwide.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

2. Some species of which of the following kinds of organisms can act as agent for controlling pests and diseases in agriculture?

1. Bacteria

2. Viruses

3. Fungi

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship where one species, the predator, benefits at the expense of the other, the host. Some species of which of the following act as predator in various parasitic relationships?

1. Plants

2. Birds

3. Butterflies

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Among the following, which one does not belong to the phyla of other three? 

(a) Prawn

(b) Shrimp

(c) Housefly

(d) Squid

5. Which of the following is/are among the known ways of transmission of Zika virus?

1. Mosquito bites

2. Blood Transfusion

3. Contaminated needles

4. From a mother to her foetus

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Recently, ‘bacteriophages’ were in news. What are they?

(a) bacteria that combine with algae and can be use to contain oil spills

(b) fungi that can be used to replenish the degraded soils

(c) viruses that replicate within bacteria and are toxic to them

(d) bacteria that become toxic to other bacteria under specific conditions

7. What are ‘Exoplanets’?

(a) large sized asteroids believed to be the remnants of a primitive planet

(b) planets orbiting stars outside the solar system

(c) planets outside the solar system that are habitable

(d) planets orbiting stars in other galaxies

8. The warming effect of sun rays is due to the

(a) ultra violet part of the sunlight

(b) visible part of the sunlight

(c) infrared part of the sunlight

(d) ultra violent and infrared part of the sunlight

9. Some organisms like yeast obtain energy through anaerobic respiration during which the glucose breaks down to produce energy along with

(a) lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water

(b) water and carbon dioxide

(c) lactic acid and carbon dioxide

(d) water and lactic acid

10. Which of the following diseases is/are caused by bacteria?

1. Anthrax

2. Malaria

3. Polio

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Which of the following is/are among the ‘micro-elements’ required for plant growth?

1. Copper

2. Zinc

3. Potassium

4. Sulphur

5. Manganese

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3,  4 and 5

12. Which of the alternative represents the correct order of the food chain with the following organisms?

(a) Krill – Algae – Seals –  Orca

(b) Algae – Seal – Krill –  Orca

(c) Algae – Krill – Orca –  Seals

(d) Algae – Krill – Seals –  Orca

13. Consider the following statements?

1. Vitamins assist the body in utilizing the nutrients.

2. Vitamins help in transporting the minerals to required places.

3. No vitamin can be synthesized in the body.

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Which of the following diseases is/are among the vaccine preventable diseases to be covered under the Mission Indradhanush?

1. Polio

2. Measles

3. Hepatitis C

4. Tuberculosis

Choose the correct alternative  using the codes given below.

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

15. Consider the following statements:

1. Neutrinos are massless particles filling up most of the empty space.

2. They are easy to detect as they can be deflected even by weak forces like gravity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Which of the following diseases are caused due to the deficiency of Vitamin C ?

1. Scurvy

2. Night Blindness

3. Rickets

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 17. Certain microbes are called ‘superbugs’ because

(a) of their high rate of prevalence

(b) of their ability of transmission across species

(c) of their resistance to all known lines of treatment

(d) of the very long period of medication they require

18. The National Biotechnology Development Strategy unveiled in December last entails launching of mission across which of the following sectors?

1. Food and Nutrition

2. Education

3. Healthcare

4. Clean Energy

5. Human Capital

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

19. Consider the following statements:

1. Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) is a not-for-profit Public Sector Enterprise.

2. It has been set up by the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research as an interface agency to empower emerging biotech enterprises.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

20. What is Spaceward Bound Programme?

(a) It is an inter-governmental project that funds expeditions to deep space

(b) It is a NASA project that funds expeditions to places with extreme climate conditions

(c) It is a ESA project that funds expeditions to explore possibility of extraction of rare elements from asteroids

(d) It is a JAXA project that funds expeditions to discover habitable planets outside the solar system

21. What is SAMAR?

1.  A system to monitor the concentration of aerosols and black carbon in the atmosphere.

2. It has been launched by Indian Meteorological Department.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Consider the following statements:

1. Micro-propagation is the practice of multiplying plants using modern techniques like tissue culture.

2. It is used to multiply novel plants like genetically modified ones.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. Consider the following statements :

Cellular Technology evolves in stages called Generation (G), where

1. A Generation represents the number of subscribers, higher Generation has more subscribers.

2. 2G technology has CDMA standard and 3G has GSM standard.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

24. Which of the following is/are correct matched?

1. Cassini – Huygens : Jupiter

2. New Horizons : Neptune

3. Dawn : Saturn

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only

(d) None

25. Which of the following is/are genetic disorders?

1. Thallasemia

2. Haemophilia

3. Colour blindness

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

Update:

The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. We have tried to make them as detailed as possible and included references and user comments wherever possible. Download link. 

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“So, let us begin this week with ECOPOL 🙂 Let us see if you just read through the news and events or went a step further to dig some background information about them to stay many steps ahead of your competitors!”

Note #1: For readers armed with their Android phones, you shall not be able to comment on this quiz from the App ecosystem, so please return to your desktops and fill in the comments and discuss!

Note #2: We encourage the test takers to elaborate on their answers in their comments below. That helps us have a better discussion and we will chip in to clarify your doubts or give more information.

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1. Consider the following statements:

1. Rural Employment Generation Programme was launched during 1985-86 to provide self-employment  opportunities in rural areas.

2. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched during 1995-96 to bring assisted poor families above the poverty line.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government?

(a) Cash Reserve Ratio

(b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

(c) Debt Service Obligation

(d) Liquidity Adjustment Facility

3. Which of the following is/are among the indicators used to measure gender inequality in the Gender Inequality Index, introduced in the Global Human Development Report 2010?

1. Maternal Mortality Rate

2. Access to legal system

3. Participation in Labour force

4. Education level

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

4. Which of the region/grouping of countries has the highest share in overall remittances to India?

(a) EU

(b) North America

(c) GCC

(d) East Asia

5. Which of the following constitute the capital receipts of the central government?

1. Grants from foreign countries

2. Recovery of loans from state governments

3. Resale of shares of Public Sector Undertakings

4. Interest income on the loans extended by it

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

6. Which of the following is/are the tools of ‘Fiscal Policy’?

1. Open Market Operations

2. Taxation

3. Public Expenditure

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. ‘Theory of Surplus Value’ is a characteristic feature of which of the following political theories?

(a) Liberalism

(b) Gandhism

(c) Welfareism

(d) Marxism

8. Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian political system:

1. The Cabinet is responsible to the Lok Sabha only.

2. The President is the Head of the State.

3. Every state has equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution work to protect, preserve and uphold the inviolability of human right in India?

1. Fundamental Rights

2. Directive Principles of State Policy

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. In case of states with bicameral legislature, if a money bill passed by the lower house goes to the upper house and no action is  taken on it by the upper house for 14 days then the bill

(a) is deemed to have lapsed

(b) is referred to the joint sitting of the state legislature

(c)  is deemed to have passed in the form in which it was passed by the lower  house

(d) is referred to the Governor for his/her interjection in the matter

 11. Which of the following were among the founding member countries of ASEAN?

1. Malaysia

2. Philippines

3. Singapore

4. Indonesia

5. Thailand

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 5

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

12. Which/Who of the following is regarded as the protector and guarantor of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian constitution?

(a) Supreme Court

(b) President

(c) Parliament

(d) Prime Minister’s Office

13. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved

(a) the Speaker tenders its resignation

(b) the Speaker is removed by an Presidential order

(c) the Speaker continues to hold its position till its successor is elected

(d) the Speaker is removed by a resolution passed in the upper House

14. Which of the following make a part of the Money Stock of an economy?

1. Demand deposits held with commercial banks

2. Currency notes

3. Deposits of commercial banks with the central bank

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. The Legal reserves of a commercial bank are maintained with the

(a) central bank only

(b) commercial bank itself and the central bank

(c) central bank and the government

(d) commercial bank itself

16. ‘Stagflation’ is characterised by

(a) High inflation and High unemployment

(b) Low inflation and High unemployment

(c) Low inflation and Low unemployment

(d) High inflation and Low unemployment

17. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) under the automatic route requires prior approval by the

1. Central Government

2. Reserve Bank of India

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Which one of the following statements is/are not correct?

1. Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is released on a monthly basis only.

2. IIP is released by the Central Statistics Office.

3. Electricity has highest weightage among the indicators used to calculate IIP.

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

19. The World Investment Report is brought out by

(a) WTO

(b) IMF

(c) UNCTAD

(d) WEF

20. Which of the following best describes the ‘Bank Rate’?

(a) It is the minimum rate at which commercial banks can advance loans to the clients

(b) It is the rate charged by the central bank for lending funds to the commercial banks

(c) It is the rate that a commercial bank charges from another commercial bank for providing overnight funds to the later

(d) It is the rate which the central bank provides to the commercial bank for parking their surplus funds with the former

21. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty as envisioned in the Indian constitution? 

(a) To protect the natural environment

(b) To safeguard public property

(c) To participate in electoral process

(d) To develop scientific temper

22. To protect the domestic industries against the onslaught of unfair competition from cheap imports, anti dumping duty is recommended by the

(a) Ministry of Commerce

(b) Prime Minister’s Office

(c) Ministry of Finance

(d) Confederation of Indian Industry

23. Consider the following statements:

1. A person cannot be appointed the administrator of more then one Union Territory concurrently.

2. Governor of a state cannot be appointed the administrator of a Union Territory concurrently.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

24. Consider the following statements:

1. NITI Aayog is an attached office of the PMO.

2. Department of Space works under the administrative control of Ministry of Science and Technology.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Which of the following departments is/are engaged in the protection of intellectual property rights in India?

1.  Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion

2. Department of Higher Education

3. Department of Information Technology

4. Department of Agriculture and Cooperation

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

 

Update:

The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. We have tried to make them as detailed as possible and included references and user comments wherever possible. Download link. 

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Note: For readers armed with their Android phones, you shall not be able to comment on this quiz from the App ecosystem, so please return to your desktops and fill in the comments and discuss!

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Directions : The following two (02) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion (A) : The Rig Veda does not mention any officer for administering justice.

Reason (R) : The Rig Vedic society was free of any unsocial activity.

2. Assertion (A) : The debates in the Ibadat Khana built by Akbar were discontinued after a period.

Reason (R) : The debates were leading to increasing bitterness among the proponents of different religions.

3. Under the Mauryan administration, the offices of ‘Samaharta‘ and ‘Sannidhata‘ were related to

(a) mining activities

(b) relation with the neighbouring rulers

(c) tax administration

(d) activities related to wars

4. Which of the following was/were mainly produced/constructed while the Gupta dynasty ruled the northern India?

(a) Ajanta Paintings

(b) Rock cut temples of Mamallapuram

(c) Rock cut caves of Barabar

(d) Sangam Literature

5. Consider the following statements:

1. That sun is stationary and the earth rotates was known to Indians by first century B.C.

2. ‘Zero’ was known to Indians by the second century B.C.

3. The decimal system was known to Indians by fifth century B.C.

4. That the moon rotates around the earth was known to Indians by sixth century B.C.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 6. By the virtue of which of the following the governance of India was transferred directly to the British Government thus ending the rule of East India Company?

(a) The Indian Council Act of 1861

(b) The Regulating Act of 1773

(c) The Pitt’s India Act of 1784

(d) The Government of India Act of 1858

7. Consider the following statements about the land revenue policy of ‘Permanent Settlement’:

1. It was introduced in Bengal and Bihar by Lord Cornwallis.

2. The right of ownership of zamindars was made hereditary and transferable.

3. The zamindars were to give 3/4th of the rental they derived from the peasantry to the state.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Consider the following statements about Raja Rammohun Roy:

1. He was the founder of ‘Brahma Sabha’ (Bhahmo Samaj).

2. He opposed idol worship and championed the cause of women emancipation.

3. He rejected the authority of oldest sacred books of  Hindu religion faulting them for perpetuating social evils like sati.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. In the context of Indian freedom struggle, what were ‘Anushilan Samiti‘ and ‘Abhinav Bharat‘?

(a) regional committees enrolling the masses for carrying out the constructive work as propounded by the Indian National Congress

(b) rural societies that reached out to the peasantry of the country espousing the cause of freedom struggle

(c) secret societies propagating the idea of revolutionary terrorism to uproot the British from Indian soil

(d) committees carrying out the task of keeping the spirits of the masses alive during the period of inactivity in the mass movements

10. Which of the following movement followed the failure of the Cripps Mission?

(a) Quit India Movement

(b) Non Cooperation Movement

(c) Civil Disobedience Movement

(d) Swadeshi Movement

11. Vaikom Satyagraha was organised to oppose

(a) the repressive tax regime in Kerala

(b) the hereditary rights of land ownership

(c) the seclusion of lower castes from entering the temples

(d) the system of begar which burdened the peasantry

12. During the heyday of Quit India movement, Gandhiji commenced a twenty-one day fast while in jail in February 1943. Why?

(a) to condemn the violence of the people who digressed from the path of non-violence

(b) to pressurise the state into accepting the demands of the Congress

(c) to garner international support for the cause of Indian independence

(d) to register his protests against the unprecedented violence of the state

13. Who of the following Bhakti saints was/were contemporary(ies) of Sufi saint Khwaja Muinuddin Chisti ?

1. Namadeva

2. Ramananda

3. Kabir

4. Ravidas

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 only

(d) None

14. Which one of the following temple was built in a different architectural design compared to the other three?

(a) Kandarya Mahadeo Temple, Khajuraho

(b) Kailasanatha Temple, Kanchipuram

(c) Sun Temple, Konark

(d) Jagannatha Temple, Puri

15. Consider the following statements:

1. Arches and domes, which were Turkish inventions, were used by them on a wide scale in their buildings in India.

2. The arches were decorated with human or animal figures and scrolls of flowers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Who of the following was the first one to offer Individual Satyagraha?

(a) Jyotiba Phule

(b) Jawahal Lal Nehru

(c) Vinoba Bhave

(d) Rajendra Prasad

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman to address a session of the Indian National Congress.

2. W C Bonnerji was the first President of the Indian National Congress.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. With respect to the Indian National Freedom movement, what was ‘Cunningham Circular‘?

(a) A circular in Assam which forced students to furnish assurances of good behaviour

(b) A circular in Bardoli allowing the confiscation of the assets of anyone refusing to pay taxes

(c) A circular in Nagpur restraining participation by the mill workers in Nagpur Flag Satyagraha

(d) A circular in North West Frontier Province allowing firing even on the peaceful demonstrators

19. With reference to the medieval history of India, Rashtra, Visaya and Bhukti were units of administration of

(a) Palas

(b) Chalukyas

(c) Rashtrakutas

(d) Pratiharas

20. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of which one of the following?

(a) Buddhism

(b) Sikhism

(c) Jainism

(d) Vaishnavism

21. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Theatre Form            :          Region

1.   Ankia Naat          :     Western India

2.   Dashavatar          :     Konkan Region

3.   Bhand Pather      :     Central India

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

22. Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Thangka Paintings‘ are hand made paintings popular in the tribal areas of Jharkhand.

2. They depict images of local deities and episodes from popular texts like Mahabharata and Ramayana.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. What was Komagata Maru?

(a) A political party based in Thailand

(b) A prominent communist leader of China

(c) A naval ship  on voyage to Canada

(d) A revolutionary leader of Japan

24. Which of the following statements about the Charter Act of 1833 is/are correct?

1. The trading activities of East India Company were to be abolished.

2. A law member was to be appointed to the Governor-General’s Council.

3. All law-making power was vested in the law member appointed to the Council.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

25. ‘Indian Liberation Front’ was formed by the moderates who left Indian National Congress following the

(a) Indian Statutory Commission report

(b) Montague-Chelmsford report

(c) Cripps Mission Report

(d) Wavell Plan

 

 

Update:

The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. We have tried to make them as detailed as possible and included references and user comments wherever possible. Download link. 

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Here we go. This is the first of the many Prelims mocks coming for you. For detailed syllabus, click this link.

Note: For readers armed with their Android phones, you shall not be able to comment on this quiz from the App ecosystem, so please return to your desktops and fill in the comments and discuss!

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. River Manas cuts through the Khasi Hills to join Brahmaputra.

2. Abor Hills are drained by Barak river.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Hill Station       :       Located in

1. Mahabaleshwar  :     Satmala Hills

2. Pachmarhi           :     Mahadeo Hills

3. Matheron             :     Gawilgarh Hills

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Narmada River does not have many tributaries primarily because

1. It flows through the region of scanty rainfall.

2. The hard rock surface and non-alluvial nature of the peninsular plateau permits little scope for the development of tributaries.

3. It flows through a narrow valley confined by precipitous hills.

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. ‘Great Channel’ separates which of the following pairs of islands?

(a) Great Nicobar and Sumatra

(b) South Andaman and Little Andaman

(c) Car Nicobar and Little Nicobar

(d) North Andaman and Little Andaman

Q5. What is the correct order of the following tributaries of Ganges as they join her from east to west?

1. Ramganga

2. Gandak

3. Son

4. Saptakoshi

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1-3-2-4

(b) 4-3-2-1

(c) 4-2-3-1

(d) 1-2-3-4

Q6. The difference in the length of days and nights at various places is caused due to 

(a) elliptical orbit of the earth around the sun

(b) rotation of the earth around its own axis

(c) revolution of the earth around the sun

(d) Inclination of the earth’s axis to the plane of its orbit

Q7. Which of the following regions is conspicuous for the absence of many active volcanoes in comparison to other regions?

(a) Indonesian Archipelagos

(b) Western Coast of North America

(c) Brazilian Coast

(d) Chilean Coast

Q8. Which of the following features/landforms are you least likely to observe if you are visiting Himalayan region?

(a) U-shaped Valleys

(b) Moraines

(c) Cirques

(d) Yardangs

Q9. “Trees are adapted to withstand the dry summer without shedding of leaves.  Plants have spiny, waxy or small leaves to reduce transpiration. Trees have deep roots to tap water from depths. Thick bark also prevent loss of moisture.”

 Which of the following types of forests have been described above?

(a) Tropical Deciduous forests

(b) Mediterranean forests

(c) Tropical Evergreen forests

(d) Mid-latitude Evergreen forests

Q10. Which of the following regions receive heavy rainfall due to South-west monsoon?

1. Coromandel Coast

2. East Himalayan region

3. Malabar Coast

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Which of the following is/are the major kharif crops in India?

1. Cotton

2. Groundnut

3. Wheat

4. Pearl Millet (Bajra)

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q12. Consider the following statements about the geology of India:

1. The southern plateau block is formed mainly of granites and gneisses.

2. The Shillong plateau is an extension of the peninsular plateau.

3. The Deccan lava plateau has a generally homogenous relief.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q13. Consider the following statements about the Census 2011:

1. The density of population increased in all states and union territories except Arunachal Pradesh.

2. Male-Female gap in literacy rate has been lowest in the last five decades.

Which of the above statements is/are correct.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q14. Which of the following regions are known for iron ore reserves?

1. Ruhr region

2. Kuznetsk basin

3. Donetsk basin

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

Q15. Consider the following statements about the Sub-Tropical High Pressure Belts?

1. They are located around 30º latitudes in both the hemispheres and are also known as ‘horse latitudes’.

2. They are characterised by subsiding dry air and are conspicuous by the presence of tropical deserts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2  only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q16. Earthquakes along the Himalayas and the foothills are best explained in terms of

(a) plate tectonics

(b) young age of the Himalayas

(c) fragile and largely unconsolidated rocks

(d) divergence of plates

Q17. Consider the following statements:

1. Winter rainfall over the plain areas of north-west India is caused by western disturbances.

2. The rainfall caused by western disturbances increases from north and north-west to the east.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2  only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q18. According to the Indian convention, which of the following is the first season of the year?

(a) Hemanta

(b) Sharada

(c) Shishira

(d) Vasanta

Q19. The winter rainfall over the plain areas of the north western region of India is largely due to

(a) South-west monsoon

(b) North-east monsoon

(c) Western disturbances

(d) Convection currents

Q20. Consider the following statements:

1. They are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.

2. On the uplands they have a comparatively lower fertility than on the low lands.

3. They consist of lime, iron, magnesium and alumina but they lack in phosphorus, nitrogen and organic matter.

4. They extend over parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Which of the following types of soil has been described in the above statements?

(a) Alluvial soil

(b) Black soil

(c) Red soil

(d) Laterite soil

Q21. Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched?

Native Tribe    :      State

1. Konyak             :    Nagaland

2. Tagins               :    Arunachal Pradesh

3. Angami             :    Meghalaya

4. Abor                  :    Mizoram

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Q22. Consider the following statements:

1. Isotherms are more regular and widely spaced in Northern hemisphere compared to the Southern Hemisphere.

2. Isotherms bend slightly while crossing from land masses to oceans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2  only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q23. The large difference in rainfall received at Mahabaleshwar and Pune, which are only a few kilometres away, is largely because

(a) Pune has dry air conditions all the year round

(b) Mahabaleshwar is situated at a higher altitude than Pune

(c) Pune is situated in a rain shadow region

(d) None of the options (a), (b) or (c) sufficiently explains the phenomenon

Q24. Waves in the open seas are largely caused by

(a) gravitational pull of the sun

(b) gravitational pull of the moon

(c) undulating surface of the oceans

(d) wind blowing over the sea surface

Q25. ‘Gaza Strip’, which is frequently in news, is surrounded by

(a) Israel, Lebanon and Syria

(b) Mediterranean sea, Israel and Egypt

(c) Mediterranean sea, Israel and Lebanon

(d) Mediterranean sea, Israel, Egypt and Lebanon

Hello Everyone,

Though I am really occupied with some stuff till this month end but then something happened which set me off to write this blog. Just few minutes back one of my pupils sent his Prelims mark-sheet to me and called me up to say that he just missed the Prelims by one question, for if he had one more correct answer his score would have been 108.66 which would have seen him cross the cut-off pegged at 107.34.

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Probably he was expecting some comforting words but for the knowledge that, though controlled to a large extent, I still have the remnants left in me which don’t allow me to mince words when I must not. Sometimes bitter pill becomes indispensable.

By the way his score in Paper I is 106.66 and that in Paper II is 146.

To cut the long story short, the point is not that he missed it by one question for which he need some comforting words (they shall anyway follow tomorrow) but that this one questions cost him one year!

I still remember vividly when he came last year to show the paper we identified 2-3 questions where he knew the answer but marked them wrong in haste. So called silly mistakes. But then can it really be called a “silly” mistake if it can cost you a year? I guess not. Whether your score is 107 or 007, it does not matter, both won’t get the chance to write the Mains.

The lesson is simple if you can lean it. Study. Given that these “silly” mistakes will creep in come what may, study hard enough to get enough MCQs correct that you don’t need to bother about this 1 question.

And yes, we were planning to put in place a Prelims series and here is the schedule:

Hello everyone,

source

As I had mentioned earlier, I shall not be available now till the end of this month, so just thought of writing a piece on how to manage the days leading up to the Preliminary Examination in August. With Paper II being only qualifying in nature, your score in Paper I shall determine if you shall battle it out with the brighter among the bright in December.  Here is a sort of small to-do list:

1. Cover the basic books that have already been mentioned in the previous blog “IAS Prelims 2016 – The bare essentials to be followed” and revise them at least three to four times.
2. Practice previous year question papers and identify the areas where you might be getting the answers frequently wrong. Cover these areas again.
3. Do not compare your preparation strategy with anyone else. Only you know what works for you and you should stick to that only.
4. Apportion your time such that you still have few days left towards the end for squeezing in something which you feel requires little more effort. This shall also keep the stress level down.
5. Do not get bogged down by the number of books your friends might have covered. You don’t need to top the Preliminary examination. It is absolutely inconsequential even if you are the last one to glide in the list of candidates who shall be writing mains.
6. You shall find many around you who shall through random factoids at you which you may not be able to answer. Do not get perturbed. For, few chosen ones find unimaginable pleasure in digging out factoids to make other feel ‘unprepared’. One unknown factoid shall not take away from you the hard work and the smart work that you have put in.
7. Lastly, please keep yourself stress free. It shall serve no other purpose but to eat into your health. Just focus on what you can do without racking your brain over the imponderables.

So, that is it for now. We shall re-start the MCQs series in the first week of June. This time it shall be more structured. With more number of questions. And packed with more knowledge to crack the Preliminary.  Till then, no let-ups, no excuses.

Remember, those who work hard don’t need a second chance and those who don’t, do not deserve a second chance. You choose your side!