💥Join UPSC 2027,2028 Mentorship (July Batch) + XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

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  • Last-Minute Tips For Maximizing the score in UPSC GS Mains 2019


    In this video, Sajal sir discusses how to effectively use the last 2 weeks before the UPSC mains exam to ensure that you do not miss out on anything important. Also in the latter part of the video he shares his tips regarding the most effective way to attempt the GS mains paper.


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    Click here to enroll for the Samachar Manthan Yearly 2019-20
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    Click here to enroll for the Mains Essential Program 2020
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    Click here to Join our Foundation 2020 course
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    Click here to enroll for the Ultimate Assessment Program 2020

  • Get ready for upcoming Physical and World Geography Prelims Test on 7th September- sample questions highlighting our methodology

    click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

    Dear students,

    31st May 2020 is the D-day for all civil service aspirants.

    “Give me six hours to chop down a tree and I will spend the first four sharpening the axe. “

    This Quote by Abraham Lincoln clearly sums up how one should prepare for that day. So before entering the battlefield alone should have enough practice. Our Prime Prelims Test series which shall enrich you to acquaint yourself with the pattern of CSE-2020, assess your abilities, rectify your mistakes and make you confident to appear on the examination day.

    Our Prime Prelims Test Series follows the same approach as that adopted by UPSC. Our team of experts is quite enriched with the UPSC pattern and focal point of the questions and hence creates more chances for the aspirants to crack civil service examination by appearing our Test Series.

    The key philosophy of our prelims TS is Evidence-based question making: The 3600 questions you face in our mocks have their relevance established in UPSC’s trend analysis. We focus on themes that are important as per UPSC so that we maximize your chances of questions overlap with the actual UPSC Prelims.

    Thus Physical and World Geography test contains questions from the following themes:

    Geomorphology – 20

    Oceanography – 13

    Climatology – 25

    Biogeography – 17

    Basics – 7

    Map Based – 18

     

    Nothing speaks more than the facts itself rather than a mere jargon. Here is a list of 5 sample questions from the upcoming test which will help you in identifying the standards and approach we follow. (you can skip this if you want to attempt these directly in the test). 

    Noone but only you can assess how it will help you in being the top percentile of aspirants. You have to practice ruthlessly and civils Daily provides you with a platform to hone your skills.

     

    Q.1) With reference to the landform ‘Cape’, consider the following statements:

    1. It is a headland of a large size extending into a body of water.
    2. It is prone to tidal erosion.
    3. Cape Comorin lies at the junction of Bay of Bengal and Strait of Malacca.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    a. 1 and 2 only
    b. 2 and 3 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. All of them

     

    Q.2) The atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to :

    1. Revolution of Earth
    2. Gravitational Pull
    3. Uneven heating of Earth

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    a. 2 only
    b. 3 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. All of them

     

    Q.3) Generally, airplanes and jets fly in the stratosphere or upper troposphere. What could be the possible reasons behind it?

    1. The amount of air turbulence that flights experience is very less in this region.
    2. The vertical flow of winds is less in this region.
    3. More stability of the plane as wind speed is very low.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    a. 1 only
    b. 2 and 3 only
    c. 1 and 2 only
    d. 3 only

     

    Q.4)  Consider the following statements:

    1. El Nino Modoki causes warm moist conditions in the Central Pacific and dry cold conditions in Eastern and Western Pacific.
    2. El Nino Modoki is conducive to the formation of cyclones in the Bay of Bengal.

    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. Both of them
    d. Neither of them

    Q.5) With reference to Earthquake consider the following statements:

    1. It occurs due to the release of energy that has been built up during the stress of increasing the deformation of rocks.
    2. Highest concentration of earthquake is found along the convergent boundary zone of the Himalayan belt.
    3. Earthquake waves can get amplified when they pass through soft ground or soil.

    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

    a. 1 and 3 only
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 1 only
    d. 2 and 3 only

  • Samachar Manthan : Why Indian economy is facing a slowdown?

    This Short Snippet is Part of Our Samachar Manthan Program.

    Click here to Enroll for the Samachar Manthan Yearly 2019-2020

  • Get ready for upcoming Economics Current affairs Prelims Test on 24th August- sample questions highlighting our methodology

    click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

    Dear students,

    31st May 2020 is the D-day for all civil service aspirants.

    “Give me six hours to chop down a tree and I will spend the first four sharpening the axe. “

    This Quote by Abraham Lincoln clearly sums up how one should prepare for that day. So before entering the battlefield alone should have enough practice. Our Prime Prelims Test series which shall enrich you to acquaint yourself with the pattern of CSE-2020, assess your abilities, rectify your mistakes and make you confident to appear on the examination day.

    Our Prime Prelims Test Series follows the same approach as that adopted by UPSC. Our team of experts is quite enriched with the UPSC pattern and focal point of the questions and hence creates more chances for the aspirants to crack civil service examination by appearing our Test Series.

    The key philosophy of our prelims TS is Evidence-based question making: The 3600 questions you face in our mocks have their relevance established in UPSC’s trend analysis. We focus on themes that are important as per UPSC so that we maximize your chances of questions overlap with the actual UPSC Prelims.

    Thus Economics Current affairs test contain questions from the following themes:

    External sector -18

    Government schemes-13

    Agriculture-8

    Fiscal policy-10

    International economic organisation-12

    Banking-11

    Monetary policy-8

    Indices-6

    Industrial sector-4

    Infrastructure-7

    Capital/financial market-3

     

    Nothing speaks more than the facts itself rather than a mere jargon. Here is a list of 5 sample questions from the upcoming test which will help you in identifying the standards and approach we follow. (you can skip this if you want to attempt these directly in the test). 

    Noone but only you can assess how it will help you in being the top percentile of aspirants. You have to practice ruthlessly and civils Daily provides you with a platform to hone your skills.

     

    Q.1) With reference to the Systemically Important Financial Institutions, consider the following statements:

    1. These are institutions whose failure will cause disruption in the wider financial system and economy.

    2. These institutions enjoy an implicit sovereign guarantee against failure.

    3. In India, RBI has declared only ICICI and SBI banks as domestic systemically important banks .

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    a) 1 and 2 only

    b) 2 and 3 only

    c) 1 and 3 only

    d) 1,2  and 3

     

    Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Capital Conservation Buffer,

    1.It is the mandatory capital that financial institutions are required to hold above minimum regulatory requirement.

    2. Capital buffers were mandated under the Basel III regulatory reforms.

    3. It has been fully implemented in India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    a) 1 only

    b) 1 and 2 only

    c) 1 and 3 only

    d) 1, 2 and 3

     

    Q.3)  Exchange rate is an important determinant of India’s foreign trade. In this regard which of the following is/are not truewith respect to India?

    1. When the real exchange rate is more than the nominal exchange rate, the rupee is said to be undervalued.
    2. US FED taper has resulted in appreciation in the rupee thus making Indian exports uncompetitive.
    3. A devaluation is said to occur when exchange rate is increased by the government.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below

    a) 1 and 2 only

    b) 2 and 3 only

    c) 3 only

    d) 1,2 and 3

     

    Q.4)  Which of the following can reduce the deficit in Balance of Payments?

    1. Reducing import custom duties
    2. Restrictive monetary policy
    3. Appreciation of domestic currency

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1 and 3 only

    2 and 3 only

    2 only

    1 and 2 only

  • Samachar Manthan Week 5: Why Baluchistan wants to secede from Pakistan

    This Short Snippet is Part of Our Samachar Manthan Program.

     

    Click here to Enroll for the Samachar Manthan Yearly 2019-2020

  • Demystifying Economics: Introductory lecture on Union budget 2019-20

    Click here to Enroll for the Economic Survey and Budget 2019 | Advanced
    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jSRReSMwBJQ

    This video is part of our course Demystifying Economics- Core & Current Affairs Buildup Lecture Series

    Economics is not only the most important subject in all 3 tiers of the exam (Prelims, Mains and interview) but also the most feared subject.

    Rather than understanding the concepts, many aspirants indulge in rot learning and mugging up the concepts but since Economics is not a theoretical subject like History this method does not actually work in the actual exam. The objective of this course is to make Economics as a subject interesting, lucid, layman and enjoyable.

    After the end of the course, economics will be on your fingertips and you will be able to apply that knowledge not just in UPSC exam but also in other subsidiary exams like State PSC, RBI Grade B, CAPF, SSC, Bank PO, etc.

    The other focus of this course is to strengthen the basics and conceptual clarity of the student so that he can apply that knowledge in understanding the contemporary economic issues.

  • Difference between Mains Essential Program & Daily AWE Program

    Students,

    We’ve been posed with this question a lot of times. Though the differences are clear, we understand that new students would want some more clarity.

    Mains Essential Program is our UPSC Mains Focused program. Its format is exactly the same as UPSC Mains papers. There are 20 questions to be solved in 2 hours’ time. A lot of time is spent on perfecting the question paper to ensure maximum questions are repeated in the actual exam and on sample solutions with value-added points. Reviews are more elaborate and more time is spent on each answer copy.

    The Daily Answer Writing Program Questions are uploaded on a daily basis. By attempting these questions, you get to create your own notes on important topics. These notes will help you immensely when your exams are close. At the same time, the reviews will help you build a solid foundation ensuring your preparedness.

    AWE is for you if you know for sure that you need more writing practice – either because you are not comfortable with English or because you are unable to organize your thoughts in a limited time. If you are looking for quality and a more in-depth analysis of your shortcomings, then Mains TS is the way to go. 

    Admissions for both programs are open. 

    For the philosophy of AWE and payment, click here- Click2Join

    View the schedule of the Mains Essential Program 2020 here: Click2View.  Read all details of the program and join Batch 2 here: Click2Join

  • SAMANVAYA: Students Preparing for UPSC 2020 > Come join US !

    SAMANVAYA: Students Preparing for UPSC 2020 > Come join US !

    Dear Students, 

    As prelims conclude, we have started getting emails, messages of students who have benefitted from our programs.

    After numerous conversations with so many aspirants, we have started understanding your problems better and also standardizing solutions for the ones you might face. 

    These are being incorporated in our Samanvaya program. It is these practices that will make the program more effective.

    At the core of Samanvaya lies the fact that each one of you will have a unique journey while preparing for the exam. Some will get through on the first attempt without much effort while others will take both more time and more effort. We want to understand you better to help you optimize your journey so you can focus on the right things and not waste time on the wrong ones. We are asking you to tap into the valuable experiences of mentors who underwent the same grind and realize the pitfalls and understand the shortcuts to make it.

    Samanvaya program involves the following –

    1. Identifying your weaknesses

    Over 80% of students who claimed to have revised NCERTs were unable to answer basic questions. Many were not comfortable with at least 1 GS subject and Optional. Many struggled with ‘What went wrong’ after 2-3 years of hard work.

    Our mentors will help you assess your preparedness and suggest accurate strategies.

    2. Strategy and study plan discussions

    Over 90% of students couldn’t stick to a plan. Study plans and strategies are iterative in nature and we want to help you with that. Many are unable to perform in tests despite preparing hard. This could be due to a variety of factors – lack of adequate prep, jitters in the exam hall, inadequate revision, lack of practice of test series or just a bad day at work. Tell us what you think went wrong and we’ll figure out a way to get you over the line next time.

    3. Helping you understand the exam better

    Which books to read, different approaches, etc. Over 60% of students we talked to did not find NCERTs relevant and saw no point in being thorough with them.

    4. Lack of motivation

    We have all had those days when it’s been hard to motivate ourselves to hit the books and just study. It happens to the best of us sometimes and for some of us, it happens more frequently. And it is understandable, Civil Service preparation is a long and often lonely process. Every aspirant, from toppers to those who have quit have been overwhelmed by this process at some point in time. Working alone is monotonous and Help you keep motivated by ensuring you are actively and passively studying every day. Focused telegram groups to foster discussions.

    Samanvaya Code of Conduct

    • Be honest with your mentors about your preparation levels and stage.
    • Follow their advice and participate in tests and assignments that they set for you
    • Stay active in the telegram groups, ask doubts, don’t hold yourself back.
    • Don’t expect spoonfeeding. You have to drive the initiative.

    Click here to fill the form and get a kickstart. 

    Here’s the feedback that we got from some of our students:


    Click here to fill the form and get a kickstart. 

  • Get ready for upcoming Polity Test on 6th July- sample questions highlighting our methodology

    Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS


    Dear students,

    31st May 2020 is the D-day for all civil service aspirants.

    “Give me six hours to chop down a tree and I will spend the first four sharpening the axe. “

    This Quote by Abraham Lincoln clearly sums up how one should prepare for that day. So before entering the battlefield alone should have enough practice. Our Prime Prelims Test series which shall enrich you to acquaint yourself with the pattern of CSE-2020, assess your abilities, rectify your mistakes and make you confident to appear on the examination day.

    Our Prime Prelims Test Series follows the same approach as that adopted by UPSC. Our team of experts is quite enriched with the UPSC pattern and focal point of the questions and hence creates more chances for the aspirants to crack civil service examination by appearing our Test Series.

    Nothing speaks more than the facts itself rather than a mere jargon. Here is a list of 5 sample questions from the upcoming test which will help you in identifying the standards and approach we follow. (you can skip this if you want to attempt these directly in the test). 

    Noone but only you can assess how it will help you in the being the top percentile of aspirants. You have to practice ruthlessly and civils Daily provides you with a platform to hone your skills.

    Q1. Which of the following have been provided under the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act 1996?

    1. Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Tribes must not be less than one third of the total number of seats.

    2. The Gram Sabha can constitute Standing Committees in order to fulfil its responsibilities.

    3. The Tenure of such committee is fixed under the Act. Select the correct answer using code given below.

    A. 1 only

    B.1 and 2 only

    C. 2 only

    D.1, 2 and 3

    Answer – C

    Explanation

    Salient Provisions of PESA Act In the Schedule areas, every village will have a Gram Sabha consisting of persons whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayats at the village level. In the schedule areas, there will be a minimum of 50% seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs) at all the tiers of Panchayats. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

    If the area has different tribal communities, the reservation of different tribal communities, the reservation of different tribal communities shall be on the basis of proportion to their population. The chairpersons at all levels of the Panchayats in Schedule areas shall be reserved for STs. If there are no ST members at intermediate or district level Panchayats, the state government shall nominate such underrepresented STs by maximum of one-tenth of the total elected members of the Panchayats. Every legislation on the Panchayats in scheduled area shall be in conformity with the customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practice of the community resources. The Gram Sabha may constitute Standing Committees viz. Peace Committee, Justice Committee, Resource Planning and Management Committee, Intoxication Control Committee, Debt Control Committee, Market Committee, Sabha Kosh Committee and others as deemed appropriate by the Gram Sabha in order to fulfil its responsibilities regarding various aspects of the working of the village, whose members shall be elected in an open meeting of the Gram Sabha among members of the Gram Sabha. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

    Besides, temporary and ad-hoc committees may be constituted as per requirement. The tenure of all the Standing Committees will be of one or two years as decided by the Gram Sabha. Hecne Statement 3 is incorrect.

    Q2.With reference to functions and powers of a District judge, consider the following statements:

    1. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters.

    2. He has supervisory powers over all subordinate courts in the district.

    3. Capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

    A.1 only

    B.1 and 2 only

    C. 2 and 3 only

    D.1, 2 and 3

    Answer – D

    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. In other words, the district judge is also the sessions judge. Statement 2 is correct. The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also has supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district. Statement 3 is correct. The sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.

    Q3. In the context of local governance, principle of subsidiarity stipulates that:

    1. functions shall be carried out closest to citizens at the smallest unit of governance possible.

    2. functions shall be delegated upwards only when the local unit cannot perform the task. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    A.1 only

    B.2 only

    C.Both 1 and 2

    D.Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer – C

    Explanation

    ‘The principle of subsidiarity stipulates that: 1. functions shall be carried out closest to citizens at the smallest unit of governance possible and 2. delegated upwards only when the local unit cannot perform the task. Hence, both statements are correct.

    The citizen delegates those functions he cannot perform, to the community. Functions that the community cannot discharge are passed on to the local governments in the smallest tiers, and so on, from smaller tiers to larger tiers, from local government to the State Governments, and from the States to the Union. Hence, the citizen and the community are the centres of governance. In place of traditional hierarchies, there will be ever-enlarging concentric circles of government and delegation is outward depending on necessity.

    Advantages – First, local decision-making improves efficiency, promotes self-reliance at the local level, encourages competition and nurtures innovation. Second, democracy is based on three fundamental assumptions: all citizens are equal irrespective of station and birth; the citizen is the ultimate sovereign; and the citizen has the capacity to decide what is in his best interest. Only when these principles are put in practice can a democratic system derive its full legitimacy. Subsidiarity is the concrete expression of these foundations of a democratic society. Third, once decision-making and its consequences are integrally linked at the local level, people can better appreciate that hard choices need to be made. Such awareness promotes greater responsibility, enlightened citizenship and maturing of democracy

    Q4.  Which of the following is/are the correct statements about Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat?

    1. Gram Sabha consists of all the people living in the area of a Gram Panchayat.

    2. Gram Sabha also consider the taxation proposals and auditing report of the Gram Panchayat.

    3. Gram Panchayat is composed of such number of members as may be decided in accordance with the size of the Population. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

    A.1 only

    B.1 and 3 only

    C.2 and 3 only

    D.1, 2 and 3

    Answer -C

    Explanation

    It is a three-tier structure, which consists of Zila Parishad at the district level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Gram Panchayats at the village level. The Gram Panchayat is further subdivided into Gram Sabha, Gram Panchayat and Nyaya Panchayat. Difference Between Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha is used to mean a general assembly of all the people of a village, who have attained the age of 18 years and their name is entered in the voter list. The executive committee of the Gram Sabha is known as Gram Panchayat which consists of the representatives elected by the Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

    Gram Sabha also consider the taxation proposals and auditing report of the Gram Panchayat. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

    Gram Panchayat is composed of such number of members may be decided in accordance with the size of the Population. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

    Gram Sabha Vs Gram Panchayat Meaning Gram Sabha refers to the legislative body, that operates at village level, and takes into account the annual budget and audit reports of the Gram Panchayat. Gram Panchayat is the lower tier of the Panchayati Raj functioning at the village level for welfare and development of the village. Body It is a permanent body. It is a temporary body. Member Every person whose name is registered in the voter list of the respective village. Ward members, Panches and Sarpanch are its members. Election The members of the Sabha are not elected ones. Members of the Panchayat are elected by the members of Sabha directly. Meetings Two meetings in a year are compulsory. One meeting in a month should be held.

    Q5.  Which of the following are appointed by the President by a warrant under his hand and seal?

    1. CAG

    2. Election Commissioner of India

    3. Chairman, UPSC

    4. Chairman, Finance Commission

    Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

     

    A.1 only

    B.1 and 2 only

    C.1,2 and 3 only

    D.1,2,3 and 4

    Answer – A

     

    Explanation

    Only Statement 1 is correct. It is one of the constitutional office which is appointed by the Prsident by a warrant under his hand and seal. It is also the only office mentioned in 2nd schedule. Others include Central Vigilance Commissioners, Governor, Chairperson and vice chairperson of National Commission for SCs, Judges Of Supreme Court and High court are appointed under Hand and seal of President. Warrant: authority, seal: emblem and hand: here, in person.

    The CAG is appointed by the President of India under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution with a warrant under her hand and seal. This implies that the appointment of CAG will be authorized by the President himself and his seal will be the testimony of it. In other ‘normal’ appointments like all India services, he takes the decision but doesn’t physically sign. It is his secretary who certifies on behalf of the President.


    Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

  • Get ready for upcoming Polity Test on 15th June – sample questions highlighting our methodology

    Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS


    Dear students,

    31st May 2020 is the D-day for all civil service aspirants.

    “Give me six hours to chop down a tree and I will spend the first four sharpening the axe. “

    This Quote by Abraham Lincoln clearly sums up how one should prepare for that day. So before entering the battlefield alone should have enough practice. Our Prime Prelims Test series which shall enrich you to acquaint yourself with the pattern of CSE-2020, assess your abilities, rectify your mistakes and make you confident to appear on the examination day.

    Our Prime Prelims Test Series follows the same approach as that adopted by UPSC. Our team of experts is quite enriched with the UPSC pattern and focal point of the questions and hence creates more chances for the aspirants to crack civil service examination by appearing our Test Series.

    Nothing speaks more than the facts itself rather than a mere jargon. Here is a list of 5 sample questions from the upcoming test which will help you in identifying the standards and approach we follow. (you can skip this if you want to attempt these directly in the test). 

    Noone but only you can assess how it will help you in the being the top percentile of aspirants. You have to practice ruthlessly and civils Daily provides you with a platform to hone your skills.

     

    Q1. Provisions of Directive Principles of State Policy(DPSP) deals with which of the following institutions?

    1. Supreme Court

    2. Panchayati Raj Institutions

    3. Archeological Survey of India

    4. District Mineral Foundation

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    A.1 only

    B.1 and 2 only

    C.2 and 4 only

    D.1, 2 ,3 and 4

    Answer – D

    THEME- DPSP-INSTITUTIONS INHERENT IN PART IV

    INTERACTIVE QUESTION

    Explanation

    The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in the governance of the country’ and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

    These lay down that the State shall strive to promote welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice – social, economic and political, shall inform all institutions of national life.

    1. Supreme Court

    2. Panchayati Raj Institutions- Art 43 to organize village panchyats.

    3. Archaeological Survey of India-Art 49 Protection of monuments and places of national importance.

    4. Khadi and Village Industries Commission

    5. NALSA- Articles 39A, which directs the state to secure Equal justice and free legal aid

    6. District mineral foundation

    7.NGT- Article 48A, which ensures Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife

    Q2. Which of the following provisions/mechanism provide environmental protection under the constitutional framework of India?

    1. Public Interest Litigation

    2. Panchayats

    3. Fundamental Rights

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    A.1 and 3 only

    B.1 and 2 only

    C. 3 only

    D.1, 2 and 3

    Answer – D

     

    THEME-ASPECTS AVIALABLE TO PROTECT ENVIRONMENT IN CONSTITUTION STARMARKED QUESTION

    Explanation

    It is a indirect and vague question. UPSC loves to ask these kind of questions. Article 51-A (g), says that ―It shall be duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures. Article 47 provides that the State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties. The improvement of public health also includes the protection and improvement of environment without which public health cannot be assured. Article 48 deals with organization of agriculture and animal husbandry. It directs the State to take steps to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines. In particular, it should take steps for preserving and improving the breeds and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle. Article 48 -A of the constitution says that ―the state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country‖. Article 21 of the constitution, ―no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law‖. Right to environment, free of danger of disease and infection is inherent in it. Right to healthy environment is important attribute of right to live with human dignity. The constitution of India under Article 19 (1) (a) read with Article 21 of the constitution guarantees right to decent environment and right to live peacefully. Article 19 (1) (g) of the Indian constitution confers fundamental right on every citizen to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.This is subject to reasonable restrictions. A citizen cannot carry on business activity, if it is health hazards to the society or general public. Thus safeguards for environment protection are inherent in this. Public Interest Litigation under Article 32 and 226 of the constitution of India resulted in a wave of environmental litigation. At local and village level also, Panchayats have been empowered under the constitution to take measures such as soil conservation, water management, forestry and protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspect. Hence, All statements are correct.

    Q3. The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in matters of which of the following election disputes?

    1. Office of President

    2. Office of Vice- President

    3. Election of members of Parliament

    4. Election of members of state legislatures.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    A.1, 2 and 3 only

    B.1 and 2 only

    C.2, 3 and 4 only

    D.1,2,3 and 4

    Answer – B

    THEME-SUPREME COURT-VARIOUS JURISDICTION

    CONSOLIDATED QUESTION

    Explanation

    The original jurisdiction of a court is the power to hear a case for the first time, as opposed to appellate jurisdiction, when a higher court has the power to review a lower court’s decision. Original jurisdiction refers to the right of the Supreme court to hear a case for the first time.

    It has the exclusive right to hear all cases that deal with disputes between states, or between states and the union government. It also has original jurisdiction over cases brought to the court by ordinary people regarding issues to the importance of society at large.

    In civil procedure, exclusive jurisdiction exists where one court has the power to adjudicate a case to the exclusion of all other courts. It is the opposite situation from concurrent jurisdiction (or non exclusive jurisdiction), in which more than one court may take jurisdiction over the case.

    Any matter regarding the enforcement of Fundamental Rights comes under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Apart from this, Supreme Court is the Highest Interpreter of the Constitution and tribunal for final settlements of the disputes between Center and States as well as States and States.

    The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in matters involving election disputes of the President and Vice-President. Hence, statement 1 and 2 is correct.

    The High Courts have original jurisdiction in disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. Hence, statement 3 and 4 is not correct.

    Q4. Right to form a political party in India is a:

    A.Fundamental Right

    B.Legal Right

    C.Natural Right

    D. Constitutional Right

    Answer – A

    THEME-FR- VARIOUS RIGHT

    INTERACTIVE QUESTION

    Explanation

    Article 19(1) (c) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all its citizens the right ―to form associations, or unions or Co-operative Societies’.

    The right to form association includes the right to form companies, societies, partnerships,trade union and political parties.

    Rights are legal, social, or ethical principles of freedom or entitlement; that is, rights are the fundamental normative rules about what is allowed of people or owed to people, according to some legal system, social convention, or ethical theory.

    Rights are of essential importance in such disciplines as law and ethics, especially theories of justice and deontology.

    1. Natural rights are rights which are “natural” in the sense of “not artificial, not man-made”, as in rights deriving from human nature or from the edicts of a god. They are universal; that is, they apply to all people, and do not derive from the laws of any specific society. They exist necessarily, inhere in every individual, and can’t be taken away. For example, it has been argued that humans have a natural right to life. These are sometimes called moral rights or inalienable rights.

    2. Legal rights, in contrast, are based on a society’s customs, laws, statutes or actions by legislatures. An example of a legal right is the right to vote of citizens. Citizenship, itself, is often considered as the basis for having legal rights, and has been defined as the “right to have rights”. Legal rights are sometimes called civil rights or statutory rights and are culturally and politically relative since they depend on a specific societal context to have meaning.

    3. The Constitutional Rights are the rights granted by the Constitution of India to the citizens of our country.

    All Constitutional Rights are not Fundamental Rights. For example, the right not to be subjected to taxation without authority of law under Article 265, right to property under Article 300A (earlier part of Fundamental Rights, until the forty-fourth Constitutional Amendment), and freedom of trade under Article 301, are granted by the Constitution but are not included in Part III (Fundamental Rights).

    Thus, it can be said that the Fundamental Rights are a part of the Constitutional Rights and the Constitutional Rights are included in Legal Rights.

    4. A claim right is a right which entails that another person has a duty to the right-holder. Somebody else must do or refrain from doing something to or for the claim holder, such as perform a service or supply a product for him or her; that is, he or she has a claim to that service or product (another term is thing in action).

    Every claim-right entails that some other duty-bearer must do some duty for the claim to be satisfied. This duty can be to act or to refrain from acting. For example, many jurisdictions recognize broad claim rights to things like “life, liberty, and property”; these rights impose an obligation upon others not to assault or restrain a person.

    5. A liberty right or privilege, in contrast, is simply a freedom or permission for the right-holder to do something, and there are no obligations on other parties to do or not do anything.

    For example, if a person has a legal liberty right to free speech, that merely means that it is not legally forbidden for them to speak freely: it does not mean that anyone has to help enable their speech, or to listen to their speech; or even, per se, refrain from stopping them from speaking, though other rights, such as the claim right to be free from assault, may severely limit what others can do to stop them.

    Q5. Consider the following statements,

    1. Art. 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under article 19 only, while Art. 359 extends to all Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by Presidential order.

    2. Art. 358 operates only in case of internal emergency, while Art. 359 operates in case of both internal and external emergency.

    Which of the statements given above is/are

    Correct?

    A.1 only

    B.2 only

    C.Both 1 and 2

    D.Neither 1 nor 2

    Answer – A

    THEME- NATIONAL EMERGENCY

    COMPRATIVE QUESTION

    Explanation

    The differences between Articles 358 and 359 can be summarised as follows:

    1. Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    2. Article 358 automatically suspends the fundamental rights under Article 19 as soon as the emergency is declared. On the other hand, Article 359 does not automatically suspend any Fundamental Right. It only empowers the president to suspend the enforcement of the specified Fundamental Rights.

    3. Article 358 operates only in case of External Emergency (that is, when the emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression) and not in the case of Internal Emergency (ie, when the Emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion). Article 359, on the other hand, operates in case of both External Emergency as well as Internal Emergency. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

    4. Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights under Article 19 for the entire duration of Emergency while Article 359 suspends the enforcement of Fundamental Rights for a period specified by the president which may either be the entire duration of Emergency or a shorter period.

    5. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it.

    6. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21.

    7. Article 358 enables the State to make any law or take any executive action inconsistent with Fundamental Rights under Article 19 while Article 359 enables the State to make any law or take any execufive action inconsistent with those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.

    There is also a similarity between Article 358 and Article 359. Both provide immunity from challenge to only those laws which are related with the Emergency and not other laws. Also, the executive action taken only under such a law, is protected by both.


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