According to the latest report of the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), India recorded nearly 1.99 lakh traffic related deaths in 2024, with speeding emerging as the leading cause of fatalities.
Key Findings of the NCRB Report
Traffic Accident Deaths
Average deaths per day: 546
Total traffic related deaths in 2024: 1.99 lakh
Share of Road Accidents: Around 88% of traffic deaths were due to road accidents
States with Highest Fatalities
Uttar Pradesh
Tamil Nadu
Maharashtra
About NCRB
National Crime Records Bureau
Established in: 1986
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs
Compiles and analyses crime and accident statistics in India
Government Initiatives for Road Safety
Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019
National Road Safety Policy
Black Spot Identification Programme
[2022] In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (a) Central Statistics Office (b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (c) Labour Bureau (d) National Technical Manpower Information System
The debate on the tenure and removal of a Chief Minister has re-entered public discourse after West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee questioned the fairness of electoral processes following the BJP’s victory in the state. The controversy has revived critical constitutional questions: Can a Governor remove a Chief Minister?What does “pleasure of the Governor” actually mean?Is resignation mandatory after electoral defeat? The issue is significant because it directly concerns the balance between constitutional morality, democratic legitimacy, gubernatorial discretion, judicial review, and federalism.
What Does “Pleasure of the Governor” Actually Mean Under Article 164?
Article 164: Provides that the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the Governor’s pleasure.
Parliamentary System: Limits gubernatorial discretion because the Council of Ministers remains collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
Constitutional Convention: Ensures that the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers in ordinary circumstances.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s Clarification: Stated in the Constituent Assembly that “pleasure” cannot be interpreted arbitrarily and survives only as long as the ministry enjoys Assembly confidence.
Constitutional Morality: Prevents misuse of gubernatorial authority for partisan political intervention.
Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab (1974): Established that the Governor is only a constitutional head and ordinarily acts on ministerial advice.
Nabam Rebia v. Deputy Speaker (2016): Restricted discretionary powers of Governors in legislative matters.
Can a Governor Remove a Chief Minister Arbitrarily?
Legislative Majority: Determines the continuance of the Chief Minister, not the subjective satisfaction of the Governor.
Judicial Interpretation: Restricts arbitrary dismissal powers and strengthens parliamentary accountability.
Floor Test Principle: Requires objective verification of majority support on the Assembly floor.
S.R. Bommai Case (1994): Established that the majority must be tested in the House and not determined by the Governor’s personal assessment.
Constitutional Safeguard: Prevents politically motivated dismissal of elected governments.
Exceptional Situations: Permit Governor intervention only when no party demonstrates majority support or constitutional machinery collapses.
Why Is the Floor Test Considered the Ultimate Constitutional Test?
Democratic Legitimacy: Ensures that elected representatives determine the survival of the government.
Collective Responsibility: Requires the Council of Ministers to retain Assembly confidence under Article 164(2).
Judicial Preference: Recognizes floor tests as the most transparent mechanism for resolving majority disputes.
Political Stability: Prevents horse-trading and speculative claims regarding majority support.
Recent Examples: Floor tests were ordered in states such as Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttarakhand during political crises.
Failure to Prove Majority: Compels resignation of the Chief Minister or dismissal of the ministry.
Does a Chief Minister Automatically Cease to Hold Office After Electoral Defeat?
A Chief Minister does not automatically cease to hold office the instant electoral results are declared. While the loss of majority makes resignation the standard constitutional convention, the incumbent typically transitions into a caretaker capacity until new arrangements are made, ensuring administrative continuity.
Article 172: The Legislative Assembly normally continues for five years from the date of its first sitting, after which it stands dissolved by efflux of time.
Majority Principle: A Chief Minister can continue only so long as they enjoy the confidence of the Legislative Assembly under Article 164(2).
No Immediate Termination: The Chief Minister does not automatically cease to hold office on the day election results are declared or when the Assembly’s tenure expires.
Caretaker Convention: The outgoing ministry continues in a caretaker capacity to ensure continuity of governance until a new government is formed.
Loss of Mandate: Electoral defeat or loss of majority creates a constitutional expectation of resignation, though office does not terminate instantly.
Governor’s Constitutional Role: If doubt exists regarding majority support, the Governor may require the Chief Minister to prove majority through a floor test.
Dismissal of Ministry: The Governor may dismiss the Council of Ministers only when the Chief Minister refuses to resign despite clearly losing majority support and failing a floor test.
Can Election Results and Electoral Processes Be Challenged in Court?
Election results and electoral processes in India can be challenged in court, but strictly through a specific legal mechanism called an Election Petition.
Representation of the People Act, 1951, Election Petition Mechanism: Under Article 329(b) of the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, an election can only be questioned by an election petition.
Who can file: Any candidate who contested the election or any elector (voter) from that specific constituency.
Where to file: The petition must be filed in the High Court of the state where the constituency is located. For Presidential or Vice-Presidential elections, petitions are filed directly in the Supreme Court.
Timeline: The petition must be submitted within a strict window of 45 days from the date of the result declaration.
Article 329(b) of the Indian Constitution:It bars courts from interfering with electoral matters. It states that no election to Parliament or State Legislature can be challenged except through an election petition presented to the authorized body. It restricts judicial intervention during the election process, ensuring disputes are handled post-election.
Grounds for Challenging Results: An election can be declared void by the High Court under Section 100 of the RPA, 1951, on several grounds, including:
Corrupt Practices: Evidence of bribery, undue influence, or appealing to voters on the basis of religion, race, caste, or language.
Nomination Issues: Improper acceptance or rejection of any nomination papers.
Disqualification: The elected candidate was not qualified or was disqualified to take the seat on the date of the election.
Procedural Non-compliance: Any non-compliance with the provisions of the Constitution or the RPA that materially affects the result
Role of Judicial Review and Writ Jurisdiction: While Article 329(b) bars interference during the election process, courts maintain limited oversight through other avenues:
Writ Petitions (Article 226/32): Courts may intervene via writ jurisdiction for broader integrity issues, such as arbitrary deletion of names from electoral rolls or administrative actions that disturb a “level playing field,” provided they do not stop the election process itself.
Appeals: A High Court decision on an election petition can be appealed to the Supreme Court within 30 days
What Happens if No Party Can Form a Stable Government?
When no single party or pre-poll alliance secures a clear majority in a state election, the situation is known as a Hung Assembly. In such a scenario, the constitutional process follows several steps to explore options for government formation before resorting to fresh elections.
The Governor’s Discretionary Role: The Governor acts as the “executive head” and must find a leader who can command the confidence of the Legislative Assembly. According to guidelines from Indian constitutional practice and the Sarkaria Commission, the Governor typically follows this order of preference:
Pre-poll Alliance: The combination of parties that contested the election together.
Single Largest Party: The party with the most seats, even if it lacks a majority on its own.
Post-poll Coalition: A new alliance formed by parties after results are declared to reach the required numbers.
Proving a Majority (Floor Test): The invited leader is appointed as Chief Minister and is usually given a specific timeframe (often around 10 days) to prove their majority through a Floor Test. If they fail to win this vote of confidence, the Governor may invite the next most viable claimant.
President’s Rule (Article 356): If the Governor is satisfied that no party or coalition can form a stable government, they report a “failure of constitutional machinery” to the President. Under Article 356 of the Constitution, the President’s Rule is imposed:
The State Government is suspended, and the Governor administers the state on behalf of the President.
The Legislative Assembly is either suspended (kept in “animated suspension”) or dissolved.
Fresh Elections: If the political deadlock cannot be resolved during the period of President’s Rule, the Governor, under Article 174(2)(b), dissolves the Assembly and calls for fresh elections. This allows the electorate to provide a new mandate.
Conclusion
The continuance of a Chief Minister depends fundamentally on majority support in the Legislative Assembly and not on the personal discretion of the Governor. Judicial interpretation, constitutional conventions, and parliamentary norms collectively ensure that democratic legitimacy prevails over arbitrary authority. The debate surrounding gubernatorial powers highlights the continuing need for constitutional morality, political neutrality, and institutional accountability within India’s federal parliamentary system.
PYQ Relevance
[UPSC 2022] Discuss the procedures to decide the disputes arising out of the election of a Member of the Parliament or State Legislature under The Representation of the People Act, 1951. What are the grounds on which the election of any returned candidate may be declared void? What remedy is available to the aggrieved party against the decision? Refer to the case laws.
Linkage: The PYQ is directly linked to election petitions, Article 329(b), jurisdiction of High Courts, and judicial review of electoral disputes under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. It helps in understanding constitutional limits on court intervention during elections, electoral integrity, and landmark election case laws.
India and Vietnam reviewed bilateral defence ties and signed 13 agreements aimed at expanding cooperation in areas such as maritime security, defence industry, and Indo Pacific collaboration.
Areas of Cooperation
Maritime Security
Port calls
Naval cooperation
Joint military exercises
Defence Industry
Co production and co development
Defence technology collaboration
Capacity Building
Training programmes
Institutional dialogue mechanisms
Importance of Vietnam for India
Strategic location in the South China Sea
Important partner in India’s Act East Policy
Helps strengthen India’s presence in the Indo Pacific
Indo-Pacific Cooperation
India reiterated its commitment under the MAHASAGAR Vision (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions)
Focuses on:
Regional security
Maritime cooperation
Inclusive Indo Pacific order
[2022] Consider the following statements: 1 Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system. 2 Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. 3 For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers. 4 Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 5 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
The Supreme Court of India, during hearings linked to the Sabarimala Temple review case, questioned the maintainability of PILs challenging the practice of excommunication in the Dawoodi Bohra community.
Background of the Case
Challenge relates to the power of Dawoodi Bohra religious leaders to: Excommunicate members from the community
Based on the 1962 judgment in: Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin vs State of Bombay
The practice of excommunication in the Dawoodi Bohra community is a long-standing and controversial religious authority exercised by its head, the Dai-ul-Mutlaq.
It involves the formal expulsion of a member, resulting in a “civil death” where the individual is barred from communal assets like mosques and burial grounds.
1962 Supreme Court Judgment
Upheld excommunication as a protected religious practice under Article 26(b)
Article 26(b) grants religious denominations the right to manage their own religious affairs.
Maharashtra Social Boycott Law (2016)
Maharashtra Protection of People from Social Boycott (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2016
Prohibits various forms of:
Social boycott
Ostracisation
Makes excommunication punishable
Key Constitutional Questions
Religious Rights vs Individual Rights
Whether denominational rights under Article 26 can override: Human dignity and Individual freedoms
Maintainability of PILs
Can a Constitution Bench judgment be challenged through: PILs under Article 32?
Important Constitutional Provisions
Article 32Article\ 32Article 32
Right to constitutional remedies
Allows citizens to approach Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights
Article 26Article\ 26Article 26
Freedom to manage religious affairs by denominations
[2021] We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 2. In India, matters related to the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below. [A] 1 only [B] 2 only [C] Both 1 and 2 [D] Neither 1 nor 2
Justice B.V. Nagarathna of the Supreme Court of India remarked that Public Interest Litigation (PIL) has increasingly turned into “private interest litigation”, “publicity interest litigation”, and “paisa interest litigation” during hearings in the Sabarimala review case.
What is Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
A legal mechanism allowing courts to address issues affecting the public at large
Developed by the Indian judiciary after the Emergency period
Intended to improve access to justice for:
Poor
Marginalised
Vulnerable groups
Concerns Raised by the Court
PILs increasingly filed for:
Personal interest
Political motives
Publicity
Financial gain (“paisa interest litigation”)
Court stressed difference between:
Genuine public interest
Unnecessary interference
Key Legal Concept
Locus Standi
Right of a person or organisation to bring a case before court
PIL relaxed traditional rules of locus standi
Important Constitutional Aspects
PIL linked with:
Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
Article 226 (High Court writ jurisdiction)
Constitutional and Legal Context
Inter State and International Rivers
Water is a State subject under State List
Union can regulate inter state rivers under certain conditions
[2022] With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct? [A] 1 and 2 only [B] 2 and 3 only [C] 1 and 3 only [D] 1, 2 and 3
The Union Cabinet has approved increasing the strength of the Supreme Court of India from 34 to 38 judges, aiming to address the growing pendency of cases.
Key Highlights
Current sanctioned strength: 34 judges (including CJI)
Proposed new strength: 38 judges
Amendment required in: Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956
Constitutional Provision
Article 124(1)
Provides for establishment of the Supreme Court
Parliament has power to increase number of judges by law
Year
Amendment Act Name
Judges (Excl. CJI)
Total Strength
1950
Constitution of India (Original)
7
8
1956
Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act
10
11
1960
Amendment Act, 1960
13
14
1977
Amendment Act, 1977
17
18
1986
Amendment Act, 1986
25
26
2009
Amendment Act, 2008 (Enacted 2009)
30
31
2019
Amendment Act, 2019
33
34
2026
Amendment Bill, 2026*
37
38
Reason for Increase
Rising pendency of cases
Current backlog: over 92,000 cases
Increased filings after:
Expansion of e filing system
Post pandemic litigation growth
Appointment Process
After amendment, Supreme Court Collegium recommends names
Collegium System: System where senior Supreme Court judges recommend judicial appointments and transfers
Appointments made by the President of India
[2024] The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in? (a) The President of India (b) The Parliament (c) The Chief Justice of India (d) The Law Commission
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has released updated Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) 2.0 Guidelines, expanding screening and care for children across India.
About Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)
Launched: 2013
Under: National Rural Health Mission
Aim:
Improve child health outcomes
Provide early detection and free treatment
Target Group
Children from birth to 18 years
Core Focus: “4Ds”
Defects at birth
Diseases
Deficiencies
Developmental delays (including disabilities)
Coverage
Screens for 32 health conditions
Provides:
Free treatment
Surgical interventions (if required)
[2023] Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child- birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? [A] Only one [B] Only two [C] Only three [D] All four
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has released a national framework for childhood diabetes care, providing for universal screening, free lifelong treatment, and integrated care under the public health system.
Key Features of the Guidelines
Universal Screening
Covers all children from birth to 18 years
Early identification through community level screening
Diagnosis and Referral
Immediate blood glucose testing for suspected cases
Referral to district level health facilities for confirmation
Free Comprehensive Care
Available at public health facilities
Includes:
Insulin therapy (lifelong)
Glucometers and test strips
Regular follow up and monitoring
Emergency care
Key Concept
Diabetes Mellitus
A chronic disease where the body:
Does not produce enough insulin, or
Cannot effectively use insulin
Leads to high blood sugar (hyperglycaemia)
“4Ts” Awareness Framework
Helps identify early signs of Type 1 Diabetes
Toilet (frequent urination)
Thirsty
Tired
Thin
[2023] Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child- birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? [A] Only one [B] Only two [C] Only three [D] All four
The Union Public Service Commission is set to convene a panel to shortlist candidates for the post of Director General of Police (DGP) in Tamil Nadu, following Supreme Court guidelines on police reforms.
What is DGP
Director General of Police (DGP) is the highest ranking police officer in a State
Heads the State Police Force
Also referred to as Head of Police Force (HoPF)
Appointment Process
UPSC forms a panel of three senior IPS officers
Panel sent to State Government
State selects one officer as DGP
Role of UPSC
Ensures merit based and transparent selection
Conducts Empanelment Committee Meeting (ECM)
Key Supreme Court Guidelines
(From Prakash Singh v Union of India, 2006)
DGP should have a minimum tenure of 2 years
Selection from panel prepared by UPSC
Officers should have minimum residual service
Appointment should not be made just before retirement
Important Terms
Empanelment Committee Meeting (ECM): Meeting conducted by UPSC to shortlist eligible officers
Residual Service: Remaining service period before retirement
Key Issues Highlighted
Delays in appointment process
Debate over extension beyond retirement
Ensuring independence and stability of police leadership
Significance
Strengthens police reforms and accountability
Ensures professional and merit based appointments
Reduces political interference in policing
[2019] With reference to the Chief Secretary of a state, consider the following statements: 1. Chief Secretary is appointed by the Governor of the state for a fixed tenure of two years. 2. The Central government has the power to approve extension of service of Chief Secretary for a period not exceeding six months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [A] 1 only [B] 2 only [C] Both 1 and 2 [D] Neither 1 nor 2
Ahead of the Foreign Secretary’s visit, Nepal has raised concerns with India and China over the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra route via Lipulekh Pass, reiterating its territorial claim over the region.
About Kailash Mansarovar Yatra
Pilgrimage to:
Mount Kailash
Lake Mansarovar
Conducted by India in coordination with China
Major routes:
Lipulekh Pass (Uttarakhand)
Nathu La Pass (Sikkim)
What is Lipulekh Pass
A high altitude mountain pass in the Himalayas
Located at the tri junction of:
India
Nepal
China
Used as a traditional route for the yatra since 1954
Nature of the Dispute
Nepal claims:
Kalapani, Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura belong to Nepal
Based on Treaty of Sugauli
India’s position:
Claims not supported by historical evidence
Open to resolution through dialogue and diplomacy
Key Regions Involved
Kalapani
Lipulekh
Limpiyadhura
Located near Mahakali River
Strategic Importance
Important for:
Pilgrimage route (Kailash Mansarovar)
India China trade and connectivity
Sensitive due to:
Tri junction location
Geopolitical significance
[2019] Consider the following pairs Glacier – River 1 Bandarpunch – Yamuna 2 Bara Shigri – Chenab 3 Milam – Mandakini 4 Siachen – Nubra 5 Zemu – Manas Which of the pairs correctly matched? a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 3 and 4 c) 2 and 5 d) 3 and 5