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GS Paper: GS2

  • NCRB Report on Traffic Accidents in India 

    Why in the News

    According to the latest report of the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), India recorded nearly 1.99 lakh traffic related deaths in 2024, with speeding emerging as the leading cause of fatalities.

    Key Findings of the NCRB Report

    • Traffic Accident Deaths
      • Average deaths per day: 546
      • Total traffic related deaths in 2024: 1.99 lakh
    • Share of Road Accidents: Around 88% of traffic deaths were due to road accidents
    • States with Highest Fatalities
      • Uttar Pradesh
      • Tamil Nadu
      • Maharashtra

    About NCRB

    National Crime Records Bureau

    • Established in: 1986
    • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs
    • Compiles and analyses crime and accident statistics in India

    Government Initiatives for Road Safety

    • Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019
    • National Road Safety Policy
    • Black Spot Identification Programme
    [2022] In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? 
    (a) Central Statistics Office 
    (b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade 
    (c) Labour Bureau 
    (d) National Technical Manpower Information System
  • “When does a CM cease to hold office? “

    Why in the News?

    The debate on the tenure and removal of a Chief Minister has re-entered public discourse after West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee questioned the fairness of electoral processes following the BJP’s victory in the state. The controversy has revived critical constitutional questions: Can a Governor remove a Chief Minister? What does “pleasure of the Governor” actually mean? Is resignation mandatory after electoral defeat? The issue is significant because it directly concerns the balance between constitutional morality, democratic legitimacy, gubernatorial discretion, judicial review, and federalism.

    What Does “Pleasure of the Governor” Actually Mean Under Article 164?

    1. Article 164: Provides that the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the Governor’s pleasure.
    2. Parliamentary System: Limits gubernatorial discretion because the Council of Ministers remains collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
    3. Constitutional Convention: Ensures that the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers in ordinary circumstances.
    4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s Clarification: Stated in the Constituent Assembly that “pleasure” cannot be interpreted arbitrarily and survives only as long as the ministry enjoys Assembly confidence.
    5. Constitutional Morality: Prevents misuse of gubernatorial authority for partisan political intervention.
    6. Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab (1974): Established that the Governor is only a constitutional head and ordinarily acts on ministerial advice.
    7. Nabam Rebia v. Deputy Speaker (2016): Restricted discretionary powers of Governors in legislative matters.

    Can a Governor Remove a Chief Minister Arbitrarily?

    1. Legislative Majority: Determines the continuance of the Chief Minister, not the subjective satisfaction of the Governor.
    2. Judicial Interpretation: Restricts arbitrary dismissal powers and strengthens parliamentary accountability.
    3. Floor Test Principle: Requires objective verification of majority support on the Assembly floor.
    4. S.R. Bommai Case (1994): Established that the majority must be tested in the House and not determined by the Governor’s personal assessment.
    5. Constitutional Safeguard: Prevents politically motivated dismissal of elected governments.
    6. Exceptional Situations: Permit Governor intervention only when no party demonstrates majority support or constitutional machinery collapses.

    Why Is the Floor Test Considered the Ultimate Constitutional Test?

    1. Democratic Legitimacy: Ensures that elected representatives determine the survival of the government.
    2. Collective Responsibility: Requires the Council of Ministers to retain Assembly confidence under Article 164(2).
    3. Judicial Preference: Recognizes floor tests as the most transparent mechanism for resolving majority disputes.
    4. Political Stability: Prevents horse-trading and speculative claims regarding majority support.
    5. Recent Examples: Floor tests were ordered in states such as Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttarakhand during political crises.
    6. Failure to Prove Majority: Compels resignation of the Chief Minister or dismissal of the ministry.

    Does a Chief Minister Automatically Cease to Hold Office After Electoral Defeat?

    A Chief Minister does not automatically cease to hold office the instant electoral results are declared. While the loss of majority makes resignation the standard constitutional convention, the incumbent typically transitions into a caretaker capacity until new arrangements are made, ensuring administrative continuity.

    1. Article 172: The Legislative Assembly normally continues for five years from the date of its first sitting, after which it stands dissolved by efflux of time.
    2. Majority Principle: A Chief Minister can continue only so long as they enjoy the confidence of the Legislative Assembly under Article 164(2).
    3. No Immediate Termination: The Chief Minister does not automatically cease to hold office on the day election results are declared or when the Assembly’s tenure expires.
    4. Caretaker Convention: The outgoing ministry continues in a caretaker capacity to ensure continuity of governance until a new government is formed.
    5. Loss of Mandate: Electoral defeat or loss of majority creates a constitutional expectation of resignation, though office does not terminate instantly.
    6. Governor’s Constitutional Role: If doubt exists regarding majority support, the Governor may require the Chief Minister to prove majority through a floor test.
    7. Dismissal of Ministry: The Governor may dismiss the Council of Ministers only when the Chief Minister refuses to resign despite clearly losing majority support and failing a floor test.

    Can Election Results and Electoral Processes Be Challenged in Court?

    Election results and electoral processes in India can be challenged in court, but strictly through a specific legal mechanism called an Election Petition.

    1. Representation of the People Act, 1951, Election Petition Mechanism: Under Article 329(b) of the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, an election can only be questioned by an election petition.
      1. Who can file: Any candidate who contested the election or any elector (voter) from that specific constituency.
      2. Where to file: The petition must be filed in the High Court of the state where the constituency is located. For Presidential or Vice-Presidential elections, petitions are filed directly in the Supreme Court.
      3. Timeline: The petition must be submitted within a strict window of 45 days from the date of the result declaration.
    Article 329(b) of the Indian Constitution:It bars courts from interfering with electoral matters. It states that no election to Parliament or State Legislature can be challenged except through an election petition presented to the authorized body. It restricts judicial intervention during the election process, ensuring disputes are handled post-election.
    1. Grounds for Challenging Results: An election can be declared void by the High Court under Section 100 of the RPA, 1951, on several grounds, including:
      1. Corrupt Practices: Evidence of bribery, undue influence, or appealing to voters on the basis of religion, race, caste, or language.
      2. Nomination Issues: Improper acceptance or rejection of any nomination papers.
      3. Disqualification: The elected candidate was not qualified or was disqualified to take the seat on the date of the election.
      4. Procedural Non-compliance: Any non-compliance with the provisions of the Constitution or the RPA that materially affects the result
    2. Role of Judicial Review and Writ Jurisdiction: While Article 329(b) bars interference during the election process, courts maintain limited oversight through other avenues:
      1. Writ Petitions (Article 226/32): Courts may intervene via writ jurisdiction for broader integrity issues, such as arbitrary deletion of names from electoral rolls or administrative actions that disturb a “level playing field,” provided they do not stop the election process itself.
      2. Appeals: A High Court decision on an election petition can be appealed to the Supreme Court within 30 days

    What Happens if No Party Can Form a Stable Government?

    When no single party or pre-poll alliance secures a clear majority in a state election, the situation is known as a Hung Assembly. In such a scenario, the constitutional process follows several steps to explore options for government formation before resorting to fresh elections.

    1. The Governor’s Discretionary Role: The Governor acts as the “executive head” and must find a leader who can command the confidence of the Legislative Assembly. According to guidelines from Indian constitutional practice and the Sarkaria Commission, the Governor typically follows this order of preference:
      1. Pre-poll Alliance: The combination of parties that contested the election together.
      2. Single Largest Party: The party with the most seats, even if it lacks a majority on its own.
      3. Post-poll Coalition: A new alliance formed by parties after results are declared to reach the required numbers.
    2. Proving a Majority (Floor Test): The invited leader is appointed as Chief Minister and is usually given a specific timeframe (often around 10 days) to prove their majority through a Floor Test. If they fail to win this vote of confidence, the Governor may invite the next most viable claimant.
    3. President’s Rule (Article 356): If the Governor is satisfied that no party or coalition can form a stable government, they report a “failure of constitutional machinery” to the President. Under Article 356 of the Constitution, the President’s Rule is imposed:
      1. The State Government is suspended, and the Governor administers the state on behalf of the President.
      2. The Legislative Assembly is either suspended (kept in “animated suspension”) or dissolved.
    4. Fresh Elections: If the political deadlock cannot be resolved during the period of President’s Rule, the Governor, under Article 174(2)(b), dissolves the Assembly and calls for fresh elections. This allows the electorate to provide a new mandate.

    Conclusion

    The continuance of a Chief Minister depends fundamentally on majority support in the Legislative Assembly and not on the personal discretion of the Governor. Judicial interpretation, constitutional conventions, and parliamentary norms collectively ensure that democratic legitimacy prevails over arbitrary authority. The debate surrounding gubernatorial powers highlights the continuing need for constitutional morality, political neutrality, and institutional accountability within India’s federal parliamentary system.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2022] Discuss the procedures to decide the disputes arising out of the election of a Member of the Parliament or State Legislature under The Representation of the People Act, 1951. What are the grounds on which the election of any returned candidate may be declared void? What remedy is available to the aggrieved party against the decision? Refer to the case laws.

    Linkage: The PYQ is directly linked to election petitions, Article 329(b), jurisdiction of High Courts, and judicial review of electoral disputes under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. It helps in understanding constitutional limits on court intervention during elections, electoral integrity, and landmark election case laws.

  • India-Vietnam Defence Cooperation 

    Why in the News

    India and Vietnam reviewed bilateral defence ties and signed 13 agreements aimed at expanding cooperation in areas such as maritime security, defence industry, and Indo Pacific collaboration.

    Areas of Cooperation

    • Maritime Security
      • Port calls
      • Naval cooperation
      • Joint military exercises
    • Defence Industry
      • Co production and co development
      • Defence technology collaboration
    • Capacity Building
      • Training programmes
      • Institutional dialogue mechanisms

    Importance of Vietnam for India

    • Strategic location in the South China Sea
    • Important partner in India’s Act East Policy
    • Helps strengthen India’s presence in the Indo Pacific

    Indo-Pacific Cooperation

    • India reiterated its commitment under the MAHASAGAR Vision (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions) 
    • Focuses on:
      • Regional security
      • Maritime cooperation
      • Inclusive Indo Pacific order
    [2022] Consider the following statements: 
    1 Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system. 
    2 Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. 
    3 For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers. 
    4 Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region. 
    Which of the statements given above are correct? 
    (a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 5 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
  • Dawoodi Bohra Excommunication Case and Sabarimala Hearing 

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court of India, during hearings linked to the Sabarimala Temple review case, questioned the maintainability of PILs challenging the practice of excommunication in the Dawoodi Bohra community.

    Background of the Case

    • Challenge relates to the power of Dawoodi Bohra religious leaders to: Excommunicate members from the community
    • Based on the 1962 judgment in: Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin vs State of Bombay
    • The practice of excommunication in the Dawoodi Bohra community is a long-standing and controversial religious authority exercised by its head, the Dai-ul-Mutlaq. 
      • It involves the formal expulsion of a member, resulting in a “civil death” where the individual is barred from communal assets like mosques and burial grounds.

    1962 Supreme Court Judgment

    • Upheld excommunication as a protected religious practice under Article 26(b) 
    • Article 26(b) grants religious denominations the right to manage their own religious affairs.

    Maharashtra Social Boycott Law (2016)

    • Maharashtra Protection of People from Social Boycott (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2016
    • Prohibits various forms of:
      • Social boycott
      • Ostracisation
    • Makes excommunication punishable

    Key Constitutional Questions

    • Religious Rights vs Individual Rights
      • Whether denominational rights under Article 26 can override: Human dignity and Individual freedoms
    • Maintainability of PILs
      • Can a Constitution Bench judgment be challenged through: PILs under Article 32?

    Important Constitutional Provisions

    • Article 32Article\ 32Article 32
      • Right to constitutional remedies
      • Allows citizens to approach Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights
    • Article 26Article\ 26Article 26
      • Freedom to manage religious affairs by denominations
    [2021] We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 
    1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 
    2. In India, matters related to the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. 
    Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
    [A] 1 only [B] 2 only [C] Both 1 and 2 [D] Neither 1 nor 2
  • Supreme Court on Misuse of PILs 

    Why in the News

    Justice B.V. Nagarathna of the Supreme Court of India remarked that Public Interest Litigation (PIL) has increasingly turned into “private interest litigation”, “publicity interest litigation”, and “paisa interest litigation” during hearings in the Sabarimala review case.

    What is Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

    • A legal mechanism allowing courts to address issues affecting the public at large
    • Developed by the Indian judiciary after the Emergency period
    • Intended to improve access to justice for:
      • Poor
      • Marginalised
      • Vulnerable groups

    Concerns Raised by the Court

    • PILs increasingly filed for:
      • Personal interest
      • Political motives
      • Publicity
      • Financial gain (“paisa interest litigation”)
    • Court stressed difference between:
      • Genuine public interest
      • Unnecessary interference

    Key Legal Concept

    • Locus Standi
      • Right of a person or organisation to bring a case before court
      • PIL relaxed traditional rules of locus standi

    Important Constitutional Aspects

    • PIL linked with:
      • Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
      • Article 226 (High Court writ jurisdiction)

    Constitutional and Legal Context

    • Inter State and International Rivers
      • Water is a State subject under State List
      • Union can regulate inter state rivers under certain conditions
    [2022] With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 
    1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 
    2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
    3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. 
    Which of the statements given above are correct? 
    [A] 1 and 2 only [B] 2 and 3 only [C] 1 and 3 only [D] 1, 2 and 3
  • Increase in the Strength of the Supreme Court Judges 

    Why in the News

    The Union Cabinet has approved increasing the strength of the Supreme Court of India from 34 to 38 judges, aiming to address the growing pendency of cases.

    Key Highlights

    • Current sanctioned strength: 34 judges (including CJI)
    • Proposed new strength: 38 judges
    • Amendment required in: Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956

    Constitutional Provision

    Article 124(1)

    • Provides for establishment of the Supreme Court
    • Parliament has power to increase number of judges by law
    YearAmendment Act NameJudges (Excl. CJI)Total Strength
    1950Constitution of India (Original)78
    1956Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act1011
    1960Amendment Act, 19601314
    1977Amendment Act, 19771718
    1986Amendment Act, 19862526
    2009Amendment Act, 2008 (Enacted 2009)3031
    2019Amendment Act, 20193334
    2026Amendment Bill, 2026*3738

    Reason for Increase

    • Rising pendency of cases
    • Current backlog: over 92,000 cases
    • Increased filings after:
      • Expansion of e filing system
      • Post pandemic litigation growth

    Appointment Process

    • After amendment, Supreme Court Collegium recommends names
      • Collegium System: System where senior Supreme Court judges recommend judicial appointments and transfers
    • Appointments made by the President of India
    [2024] The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in? 
    (a) The President of India 
    (b) The Parliament 
    (c) The Chief Justice of India 
    (d) The Law Commission
  • Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) 2.0 

    Why in the News

    The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has released updated Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) 2.0 Guidelines, expanding screening and care for children across India.

    About Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)

    • Launched: 2013
    • Under: National Rural Health Mission
    • Aim:
      • Improve child health outcomes
      • Provide early detection and free treatment

    Target Group

    • Children from birth to 18 years

    Core Focus: “4Ds”

    • Defects at birth
    • Diseases
    • Deficiencies
    • Developmental delays (including disabilities)

    Coverage

    • Screens for 32 health conditions
    • Provides:
      • Free treatment
      • Surgical interventions (if required)
    [2023] Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 
    1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 
    2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child- birth. 
    3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 
    4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. 
    How many of the statements given above are correct? 
    [A] Only one [B] Only two [C] Only three [D] All four
  • National Guidelines on Childhood Diabetes Care

    Why in the News

    The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has released a national framework for childhood diabetes care, providing for universal screening, free lifelong treatment, and integrated care under the public health system.

    Key Features of the Guidelines

    • Universal Screening
      • Covers all children from birth to 18 years
      • Early identification through community level screening
    • Diagnosis and Referral
      • Immediate blood glucose testing for suspected cases
      • Referral to district level health facilities for confirmation

    Free Comprehensive Care

    • Available at public health facilities
    • Includes:
      • Insulin therapy (lifelong)
      • Glucometers and test strips
      • Regular follow up and monitoring
      • Emergency care

    Key Concept

    Diabetes Mellitus

    • A chronic disease where the body:
      • Does not produce enough insulin, or
      • Cannot effectively use insulin
    • Leads to high blood sugar (hyperglycaemia)

    “4Ts” Awareness Framework

    • Helps identify early signs of Type 1 Diabetes
      • Toilet (frequent urination)
      • Thirsty
      • Tired
      • Thin
    [2023] Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 
    1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 
    2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child- birth. 
    3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 
    4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. 
    How many of the statements given above are correct? 
    [A] Only one [B] Only two [C] Only three [D] All four
  • Appointment of DGP in Tamil Nadu

    Why in the News

    The Union Public Service Commission is set to convene a panel to shortlist candidates for the post of Director General of Police (DGP) in Tamil Nadu, following Supreme Court guidelines on police reforms.

    What is DGP

    • Director General of Police (DGP) is the highest ranking police officer in a State
    • Heads the State Police Force
    • Also referred to as Head of Police Force (HoPF)

    Appointment Process

    • UPSC forms a panel of three senior IPS officers
    • Panel sent to State Government
    • State selects one officer as DGP

    Role of UPSC

    • Ensures merit based and transparent selection
    • Conducts Empanelment Committee Meeting (ECM)

    Key Supreme Court Guidelines

    (From Prakash Singh v Union of India, 2006)

    • DGP should have a minimum tenure of 2 years
    • Selection from panel prepared by UPSC
    • Officers should have minimum residual service
    • Appointment should not be made just before retirement

    Important Terms

    • Empanelment Committee Meeting (ECM): Meeting conducted by UPSC to shortlist eligible officers
    • Residual Service: Remaining service period before retirement

    Key Issues Highlighted

    • Delays in appointment process
    • Debate over extension beyond retirement
    • Ensuring independence and stability of police leadership

    Significance

    • Strengthens police reforms and accountability
    • Ensures professional and merit based appointments
    • Reduces political interference in policing
    [2019] With reference to the Chief Secretary of a state, consider the following statements: 
    1. Chief Secretary is appointed by the Governor of the state for a fixed tenure of two years. 
    2. The Central government has the power to approve extension of service of Chief Secretary for a period not exceeding six months. 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
    [A] 1 only [B] 2 only [C] Both 1 and 2 [D] Neither 1 nor 2
  • Kailash Mansarovar Yatra and Lipulekh Dispute

    Why in the News?

    Ahead of the Foreign Secretary’s visit, Nepal has raised concerns with India and China over the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra route via Lipulekh Pass, reiterating its territorial claim over the region.

    About Kailash Mansarovar Yatra

    • Pilgrimage to:
      • Mount Kailash
      • Lake Mansarovar
    • Conducted by India in coordination with China
    • Major routes:
      • Lipulekh Pass (Uttarakhand)
      • Nathu La Pass (Sikkim)

    What is Lipulekh Pass

    • A high altitude mountain pass in the Himalayas
    • Located at the tri junction of:
      • India
      • Nepal
      • China
    • Used as a traditional route for the yatra since 1954

    Nature of the Dispute

    • Nepal claims:
      • Kalapani, Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura belong to Nepal
      • Based on Treaty of Sugauli
    • India’s position:
      • Claims not supported by historical evidence
      • Open to resolution through dialogue and diplomacy

    Key Regions Involved

    • Kalapani
    • Lipulekh
    • Limpiyadhura
    • Located near Mahakali River

    Strategic Importance

    • Important for:
      • Pilgrimage route (Kailash Mansarovar)
      • India China trade and connectivity
    • Sensitive due to:
      • Tri junction location
      • Geopolitical significance
    [2019] Consider the following pairs 
    Glacier – River 
    1 Bandarpunch – Yamuna 
    2 Bara Shigri – Chenab 
    3 Milam – Mandakini 4 Siachen – Nubra 
    5 Zemu – Manas 
    Which of the pairs correctly matched? 
    a) 1, 2 and 4 
    b) 1, 3 and 4 
    c) 2 and 5 
    d) 3 and 5