💥UPSC 2026, 2027, 2028 UAP Mentorship (March Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

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  • The Habits That Will Help You Build a Strong Mindset for IAS Prelims

    Every day, it seems there are a thousand things pulling at our attention and energy – chapters left to revise, subjects we did not pay any attention to, test series which are dangling on our heads like those menacing daggers and of course the D-Date of the IAS Prelims.


    What routines can we practice to help us stave off these unwanted fears, nagging uncertainties and remain focussed for the next month and a half?

    #1. Take 3 minutes every morning and focus on 3 things that you are deeply grateful for and 3 that you strive to accomplish in life.

    Think big – don’t think of the immediate exam, don’t think of the next task at hand but think of the ideal future that you dreamt of. The finish line and beyond to this marathon which has been ON for an year or so. Feel the warm glow, the soft brush of the sunflower field as you walk through it.

    This is the psychology of positive reinforcement and this will ensure that your subconscious works towards making that dream a reality.

    #2. When you are depressed and feeling like there is no way out, how do you keep moving? 

    • Shun the useless motivational crap. When you are down, you are down. Period. The point #1 works as positive reinforcement only when you commit to it as a daily habit NOT as a knee jerk – feel good trick to fool your mind.
    • Do this – Sit down. Take up a blank page. And start writing 50 things which need to happen to make things right for you. This may sound stupid but it is not. Trust us. When you start writing things, after the first 10 generic, stupid ideas you will get into the zone of problem solver

    The first 10 will be the most obvious ideas – the next 20 will seem vague and random but the last 20 or last 10 will have the most nuanced wisdom which you can give to yourself. These will be the most actionable items and will help you let go of the fear of unknown and get back to action.

    #3. Stop being commitment phobic. Don’t wait for the right time to test yourself. Don’t wait for the ideal number of revisions before you attempt those mocks. Any mocks will do. Be the smart one here. It’s okay to feel embarrassed at your low scores NOW than to feel dejected after the exam. It’s okay to learn from your peers now than to sit in the crowd and take in gyaan from the rankers an year later.

    There is a chinese proverb, “The best time to plant a tree was 20 years ago. The second best time is now.”

    Or better, this


    So, commit to the CD Mocks today

    5,000+ students have already registered their attempts and are filling their knowledge gaps. The leaderboard is LIVE and your ranks will give you a ready reckoner of your improvement areas.

    Here’s the link to the mocks.

    • The mock #6 to #10 are FREE to give you the runway for the FINAL Mocks
    • The last 4 Full Length tests are PAID and will help you evaluate your overall growth for the final lap!

    Go, Go , Goo.

  • Notifications for comments and replies

    Is there a way to receive notifications for replies to doubts asked on various pages? Checking the pages time and again is sort of cumbersome. Ive noticed that in some blogs, the comment section has a ‘notify me’ option, while in others it doesnt.

    Anyone else noticed this?

  • UPSC Prelims Polity Trend Analysis: Part 3

    Prelims 2013

    1. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
    1. directly elected by the people of those Provinces
    2. nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
    3. elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
    4. selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

    Easy question, Read in modern history. They were elected by provincial assemblies, princes nominated them.

    Learning – Evolution of constitutional scheme esp. Morley Minto, GOI act 1919, GOI act 1935, Cabinet mission plan, Constituent assembly, interim govt and interim parliament <cabinet mission has been asked infinite times>

    1. ‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in
    1. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
    2. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    3. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    4. None of the above

    Repeat question.

    Preamble – justice -social, economic and political, DPSP is all about socio economic democracy, welfare state

    Learning – Can’t repeat, learn DPSP, FRs, FDs, Preamble by heart

    1. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
    1. Fundamental Rights
    2. Fundamental Duties
    3. Directive Principles of State Policy
    4. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

    Repeat. DPSPs like instrument of instruction of GOI 1935. Not enforceable but fundamental to governance

    Learning – can’t repeat enough but FRs v/s DPSP , Conflict b/w FRs and DPSPs

    1. Consider the following statements
    1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
    2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Indirect Repeat – Primacy of RS v/s LS, LS prevails only in cases of money bill and type 1 financial bill and in ordinary bill in joint sittings. CAB can be introduced in either house but not in states
    • Statement 2, all gives it away, consent of half the states is required

    Learning – Repeating again primacy of LS v/s RS, passage of different bills, Art 368, cases where assent of states required, amendments not considered under article 368, Parliamentary legislation on state list 

    1. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
    1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
    2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
    3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Repeat. All 3 options repeated.
    • Statement 3 is wrong. Cabinet headed by PM, remove it and answer. Actions taken in the name of President. Statement 1 repeat, Cabinet members of legislature , ministers responsible to LS (not parliament )

    Learning – Presidential v/s parliamentary system, Cabinet v/s CoM, different categories of ministers

    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
    2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
    3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.
    1. only 1
    2. only 2 and 3
    3. only 1 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    Internal repeat <same paper> right.

    CoM responsible to LS not parliament. Eliminate it, you get the answer. Yes pleasure but PM recommends when to remove the pleasure. Statement 2 is too innocuous to be false.

    Learning – Solve question papers, read titbits

    1. Attorney General of India can
    1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
    2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
    3. speak in the Lok Sabha
    4. vote in the Lok Sabha

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 3 only
    • Option 4 is obviously incorrect as only members can vote <even VP can’t vote as he is not a member >.
    • Doubt rests on statement 2 as it’s obvious if he can sit in the house, he would not sit there to observe, he can observe on the TV. Obviously he would sit there to speak if required.
    • Whoever can take part in proceeding can be a member but without again right to vote

    Learning – AG qualification, appointment, removal, reference to AG

    1. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    1. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
    2. The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
    3. No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
    4. In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
    • Option 3 common knowledge – Governor till pleasure of president. But it’s a difficult question if you don’t directly reach this option.
    • Can be appointed governor of 2 states, in fact even LG of UTs, High court judges appointed as well as removed by president, CM appointed by President not LG <in states governor appoint>

    Learning – again Discretionary powers of governor appointment and removal, LG v/s governor, Qualification, Appointment and Removal of Judges

    1. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
    1. with the consent of all the States
    2. with the consent of the majority of States
    3. with the consent of the States concerned
    4. without the consent of any State

    Common sense – India is not that federal to require state permission here

    Learning – Instances where parliament can make laws on state list with or without their permission <discussed in titbits>. Has been asked multiple times i.e Parliamentary legislation on state list

    1. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC)
    1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
    2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of Government
    3. Examines the report of CAG.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct? `

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    Repeat. Only Committee on estimates has members only of LS. All others have members both of LS and RS. Isn’t it clear from the name it would scrutinize accounts. Statement 2 correct, 1 incorrect

    Learning – Again committees are imp. 3 committee , PAC, CoE, CoPU. Appointment, removal and independence of CAG. Types of audits conducted by CAG

    1.  Consider the following statements:
    1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
    2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Chairman VP not a member, Vice Chairman from amongst the members
    • Presidential election – Only elected members of both the houses plus legislative assemblies, VP election – all the members of both the houses

    Learning – Powers, appointment and removal of chairperson and speaker, Appointment and removal of President and VP <discussed in titbits>

    1.  What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
    1. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
    2. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
    3. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
    4. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

    Repeated n number of times. RS can’t amend the money bill.

    Learning – Money bill v.s finance bill. Passage of different bills. Primacy of LS v/s RS

    1.  Consider the following statements:
    1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
    2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
    3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1,2 and 3
    • NDC and PC have been abolished now. NDC used to advise PC on planning and included all CMs and union ministers etc. Eliminate statement 1, only option left
    • Statement 2 and 3 are common sense, planning has to be in the concurrent list

    Learning – Niti Ayog

    1. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
    1. The Prime Minister
    2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
    3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
    4. Chief Ministers of the States

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    What would chairperson FC would do? FC is not involved in planning. Repeated question next year.

    Learning – FC, Niti Ayog

    1. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
    1. National Development Council
    2. Planning Commission
    3. Zonal Councils

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    NDC and PC easily incorrect. Even zonal councils aren’t in the constitution <they are statutory>

    Learning – Inter state council, Zonal Council

    1. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
    1. To provide self-governance
    2. To recognize traditional rights
    3. To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
    4. To free tribal people from exploitation
    • Common sense – Panchayat is for self governance so 1st has to be correct. 5th schedule and 6th schedule has been asked multiple times and 6th schedule is create autonomous region, so option 3 has to be incorrect.
    • Also option 2 and 4 would have to be correct or incorrect simultaneously as recognize their traditional rights, you free them of exploitation
    1. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
    1. State Forest Department
    2. District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
    3. Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandai Revenue Officer
    4. Gram Sabha

    FRA is addition to PESA. So obviously community i.e Gram Sabha would do it.

    Learning – PESA v/s FRA

    1.  With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :
    1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
    2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

    General knowledge. Appear true. NLSA act 1987. But if you didn’t know, you could mark it incorrect thinking may be not free but at low cost. But remember free legal aid is DPSP.

    • Bottom line – 10/18 absolute joke
    • 4/18 Tricky – AG being member of Committee, Election of president and VP, no procedure for removal of Governor, Zonal council not constitution
    • NLSA, FRA, NDC require some limited knowledge

    Learning – UPSC asks a lot of questions from a few topics every year which are doable

    Pre 2012

    1. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
    1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
    2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
    3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
    4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Solution – CAG is asked again and again.

    • 4th is clearly wrong as obviously only judiciary can prosecute people not CAG or other bodies not even Human rights commission
    • Only options 2 and 3 left i.e statement 3, Cummon information from any imp report can be used to press charges. Judiciary will determine if charges stick or not <it was the time of 2g scam>
    • CAG -PAC asked multiple times,
    • CAG only audits, he is not comptroller in INdia <statement 1 is wrong>

    Learning – Reading options carefully, applying brain , Again role of CAG, types of audits

    1. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment: 

    (a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the” Houses within six months

    (b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the LokSabha within six months

    (c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament

    (d) must be a member of the LokSabha

    Manmohan Singh was from RS. Ministers can be from either house so can the PM. Ministers can become members w/i 6 months so can PM.

    Learning – Qualification. Disqualification to be elected to LS and RS including recent SC judgement (section 8 (4))

    1. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :
    1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
    2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the LokSabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    You must know oudelimitation commission. Both are true

    Learning – Delimitation commission, composition, powers, last delimitation, next delimitation 

    1. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
    1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
    2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
    3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
    4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 4 only

    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    3rd is obviously incorrect as committee’s report is tabled by the chairperson of the committee. Other 3 bodies would submit the report to president.

    Learning – NCSC – role wrt to OBC and Anglo Indians, UPSC – appointment and removal of members ,  independence of UPSC

    1. A deadlock between the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
    1. Ordinary Legislation
    2. Money Bill
    3. Constitution Amendment Bill

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Has been repeated infinite times. Money bill no role of RS. CAB has to be passed separately by both houses with special majority

    1. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
    1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
    2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
    3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
    4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • Repeated n number of times .
    • Protecting weaker sections is DPSP not FD
    1. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
    1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
    2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
    3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
    4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 3 and 4 only

    (c) 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • 2nd option is obviously incorrect as President removes judges. Repeated ad nauseum that both high court and supreme court judges are appointed and removed by president. 1 is definitely correct, even before 4 judges case <art 124> both in case of supreme court and high court
    • Answer is clear from above. But what about statement 4 – very conveniently reversed, CJI appoints after consulting president not the other way around

    Learning — Appointment, removal. Independence of judiciary

    1. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

    (a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

    (b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

    (c) Government of India Act, 1935

    (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

    Repeated many times. GOI act 1935, 3 lists, provincial autonomy

    Learning – all 4 acts mentioned in the options, Cabinet mission plan

    1. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

    (a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

    (b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers

    (c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant

    (d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

    • Didn’t i say if 3 motions are to be learned – No Confidence, adjournment and calling attention
    • Definite matter of urgent public importance, only in LS, extraordinary device, direct or indirect failure on the part of govt 

    Learning – Learn all 3 motions, Primacy of LS v/s RS

    1. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India 
    1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
    2. Organizing village Panchayats
    3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
    4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

    Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

    (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    How many times will they repeat DPSP. But here they asked Gandhian  2 and 3 are obvious. UCC clearly isn’t Gandhian but liberal.

    Reading – Learn DPSPs. FDs, FRs, Preamble by heart plus broad classification of DPSP <covered in titbits>

    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Union Territories are not represented in the RajyaSabha.
    2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
    3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha only.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1 and 3

    (d) None

    We know Delhi is represented in RS. 3rd statement, only gives it away, president is also part of parliament, has to sign bills for them to become act. You can mark even if you don’t know about statement 2. What bout election dispute? Answer in comments please

    Learning – Election Commission appointment, removal and independence, Election disputes

    1. Regarding the office of the LokSabha Speaker, consider the following statements: 
    1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
    2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
    3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 3 only

    (c) 1, 2 and 3

    (d) None

    • 3rd is so innocuous has to be correct, deputy writes to speaker, speaker writes to deputy. We know the removal procedure, has been asked multiple times (effective majority). Even if you don’t know about option 2, you can mark it correct.
    • Has to be a member as he has to conduct the proceedings unlike minister who can function without being present in the house.
    1. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
    1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
    2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
    3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
    4. A dispute between two or more States

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 and 2

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1 and 4

    (d) 3 and 4

    Repeat – Original jurisdiction. Original meaning originating in the supreme court, not on appeal. So obviously federal provisions i.e 1 and 4 <UT is not under federal relationship>

    Learning – Writ of SC v/s high court, Original and advisory jurisdiction of SC

    1. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
    1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
    2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
    3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Repeat. 2 is definitely incorrect, Morley Minto introduced it. Statement 3 would be the clincher. If there was dyarchy meaning some powers to elected ministers so definitely some legislative authority also <autonomy in 1935 only>

    Learning – Repeating nth time, 3 acts plus cabinet mission

    1. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the RajyaSabha by the Constitution of India? 

    (a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

    (b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

    (c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

    (d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

    Simple

    Learning – Repeating nth time Primacy of LS v.s RS

    1. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
    1. Directive Principles of State Policy
    2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
    3. Fifth Schedule
    4. Sixth Schedule
    5. Seventh Schedule

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 3, 4 and 5 only

    (c) 1, 2 and 5 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    • DPSP – Early Childhood care and education, Rural and Urban – Primary education,  7th schedule- 3 lists, education in concurrent
    • 5th and 6th schedule deals with schedule and tribal areas. No direct relationship to education

    Learning – Learn all schedules, DPSPs

    1. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 
    1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
    2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
    3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
    4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
    5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

    (c) 3, 4 and 5 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    There is no Parliamentary Budget Office in INdia

    Learning – Passage of Budget, 3 Statements consequent to FRBM act

    1. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
    1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
    2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
    3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • PESA and FRA repeated again next year. Look at the statement 3, any gives it away. If under statement 2, Gram sabha has ownership over Minor forest produce, how is it possible for gram sabha to have ownership over any mineral. It should also be minor mineral, right.  Any is too sweeping. Pause and Think.
    • Statement 1 is obviously correct

    Learning – PESA and FRA

    1. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
    1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
    2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
    3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    1 is obviously correct, seems correct.  What has NGT to do with scheduled areas, gram sabha etc. It’s for all India.

    1. With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 
    1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
    2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
    3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    You must know about this. Earlier we learnt free legal aid under NLSA but here it’s not free. 3 can not be wrong so answer 1 and 3 <in the next blog you would know that question related to consumer protection act had been asked earlier, importance of solving question papers>

    Learning – Consumer protection act, amendment proposed, Food safety laws, FSSAI

    Bottom Line – Most of the questions absolute joke

  • 16 Polity questions from the most imp topics

    In the blogs, I have analysed Polity section of last 7 years. Questions with solutions and right approach has been posted in the blogs. Here are the 16 questions to evaluate whether you have just read the analysis or have also revised these most imp. topics

    Solve these questions with open mind. Most of the questions can be solved if you have read prelims titbits. Apply elimination method. Use all the knowledge at your disposal. Write your thought process in doubtful questions in the comments below.

    Best luck

    1. The functions of the Committee on Estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to

    1. report what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency or administrative reform may be effected

    suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in 2. administration

    3. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates

    4. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 and 2 only

    b. 2 and 3 only

    c. 1, 2 and 3

    d. 3 and 4

    2. The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution of India is meant for

    1. The examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of the Government of India

    2. scrutinizing report of the Comptroller and Auditor General

    3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. 1 and 2 only

    d. 1,2 and 3

    3. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the Parliament

    1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government

    2. may involve failure of the Government of India to perform its duties in Accordance with the Constitution

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    4. The principle of ‘collective responsibility’ under parliamentary democracy implies that

    1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister

    2. No person shall be nominated to the Cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister

    3. No person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he shall be dismissed.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1

    b. 2 only

    c. 3 only

    d. 2 and 3

    5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India?

    1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses.

    2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting.

    3. It is being notified by the President.

    4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 and 2 only

    b. 1, 2 and 3

    c. 2 and 3 only

    d. 3 and 4

    6. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws

    1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List

    2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable

    3. for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 2 only

    b. 1 and 2 only

    c. 1 and 3 only

    d. 1,2 and 3

    7. Which of the following statements in the context of structure of the Parliament is/are correct?

    1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States and the House of the People.

    2. The President of India is directly elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament only.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    8. Certain Bills cannot be introduced or proceeded with unless the recommendation of the President is received. However, no recommenda­tion is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such recommendation is not required?

    a. For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters

    b. For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new States or of alteration of areas of existing States

    c. For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax

    d. For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting taxation in which States are interested

    9. There are provisions in the constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include

    1. any law under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new States)

    2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new States)

    3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule

    Select the answer.

    a. 1 and 2 only

    b. 2 and 3

    c. 1,2,3

    d. None

    10. The Rajya Sabha can withhold its consent to a Money Bill for :

    a. 14 days

    b. 15 days

    c. 30 days

    d. 18 days

    11. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can be removed from office only by :

    a. President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.

    b. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

    c. President of India after an address in both Houses of Parliament.

    d. President on the advice of Chief Justice of India.

    12. The National Human Rights Commission has :

    1. a Chairperson who has been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court or a High Court of India

    2. one Member who is or has been a Judge of Supreme Court

    3. one Member who is, or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court

    4. two Members to be appointed from amongst persons having knowledge of or practical experience in matters relating to human rights

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    b. 1, 2 and 3 only

    c. 1 and 4 only

    d. 2, 3 and 4 only

    13. The locus standi rule to move the court was liberalized by the case of:

    a. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

    b. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

    c. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India

    d. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

    Which one of the following statements regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women is correct?

    a. The Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only

    b. A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committee

    c. The term of office of the members of the Committee shall not exceed two years

    d. It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women

    15. The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the Welfare of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and  the Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall

    1. examine whether the Union Government has secured due representation of the SCs and the STs in the services and posts under its control

    2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    16. Which of the following committee/committees submitted reports on Electoral reforms?

    1. Dinesh Goswami Committee

    2. Tarkunde Committee

    3. Indrajit Gupta Committee

    4. Balwantrai Mehta Committee

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    a. 1, 3 and 4

    b. 2 and 4

    c. 1,2 and 3

    d. 3 and 4 only

  • [Solved] Open discussion for Prelims Mocks #6

    Update:

    The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. We have tried to make them as detailed as possible. Download

    What’s this?

    Discussion blog page for those who just attempted prelims mock #6. Discussion is open for any question which you had a doubt about, brainstorming on ways to arrive at a particular answer, any other interesting tit bit that you may share etc.

    Where are the prelims mocks held?

    Go to the link and start attempting the mocks. Click here. 25 questions each.

    When will the detailed explanations be uploaded?

    Every weekend (on sunday). Look out for this blog again and you will find a google drive link from where you can download the explanation pdfs.

  • Censor Board

    Does Censor Board in India also certify ad films, serials and theatre plays? Thanks in advance.

  • IAS Prelims tit-bits- Polity part 9

    1. Most imp. Articles of Constitution

    1. Art 2admission or establishment of new states <earlier not states, Sikkim for instance>
    2. Art 3 – formation or changes in the  existing states <Telangana for instance>
    3. Art 51 A – 11 fundamental duties
    4. Art 72 – Pardoning power of president
    5. Art 108 – Definition of money bill
    6. Art 112 – annual Financial statement (BUdget)
    7. Art 123 – Ordinance by President, 213 – By governor
    8. Art 143 – Advisory Jurisdiction
    9. Art 226 High court writ, 32 supreme court writes
    10. Art 335 – Claims of SC & ST to services
    11. Article 350 A -instruction in the mother tongue at local level
    12. Art 351 – Duty of Union to promote spread of Hindi Language

    Note – Articles of FRs should be learned by heart.

    • Discuss – Pardoning powers of president v/s governor
    • Discuss – Federal safeguards under article 3
    • Discuss – Berubari Union case and article 2 and 3

    2. Article 355, 356 and 365

    1. Art 355 Duty of the Union to protect States against any external aggression and the internal disturbance and ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution

    2. Art 356 : President’s rule in the event of failure of constitutional machinery

    3. Art 365 : Failure of state to comply with the directives of the Union

    So because it is Union’s responsibility under article 355 to see to it that Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, President imposes President’s rule on two grounds – art 356 and art 365

    Issues related to emergency have been discussed in detail in this blog and in this tit- bit

    3. Most imp. Constitutional Amendments

    1. 1st amendment – 9th schedule
    2. 7th amendment -Abolished 4 fold classification of states, extended jurisdiction of high courts to UTs, Common high courts for >1 states
    3. 24th – Compulsory for president to give assent to CABs
    4. 42nd – Mini constitution, added FDs <Swaran Singh Committee>, 3 new words -socialist, secular and integrity to the preamble , Tribunals
    5. 44th – Abolished right to property, Internal disturbance replaced by armed rebellion under article 352, National emergency only on written recommendation of president <only use of the word cabinet in the constitution>
    6. 52 – 10th schedule, anti defection law
    7. 91st – anti defection law amended, not >15% of LSin CoM
    8. 80th – Alternate scheme of devolution, all taxes except cess and surcharges to be shared b/w union and states
    9. 97th Cooperative societies
    10. 100th Land boundary agreement b/w India and B’desh
    • Discuss – Amendment of anti defection law by 91st amendment
    • DiscussKihoto Hollohan judgement
    • Discuss -Whether or not cooperative societies under RTI

    4. Bills with prior recommendation of President

    1. 1. Bill that seek to alter the boundaries of the states and names of the states. (Article 3)
    2. 2. Money Bill (Article 110) & Finance Bill type 1
    3. 3. Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are interested (Article 274)
    4. 4. State Bills which impose restriction upon freedom of trade (Article 304).
    5. 5. Any matter relating to a law for acquisition by the state of any ‘estate’ or other intermediate interest in land means matters relating to article 31(A)

    Bill involving expenditure from consolidated fund of India but not a money bill i.e Finance bill type 2 do not require recommendation while introducing but recommendation s necessary before bill is taken up for passage

    • Discuss – Parliament can not propose increase in taxes but can propose reduction
    • Discuss – Appropriation bill can not be amended but Finance bill can be

    5. Random Trivia

    • NHRC is the only body whose chairperson has to be retired CJI and in state HRC, retired Chief Justice of high Court <any exception?>
    • In every appointment, where a committee appoints members of constitutional and statutory bodies, PM and LoP (LS) always are the members
    1. 1. NHRC – 6 member committee (2 + Speaker LS, Deputy CP RS , LoP, RS, Home Minister)
    2. 2. CVC – 3 member committee (2 + home minister)
    3. 3. CIC – 3 member committee (2 + any cabinet minister nominated by PM)
    4. 4. Director CBI – (2+ CJI)
    • Discuss – Qualification of Lokpal chairperson, appointment committee
    • Discuss – Process of removal of above authorities (NHRC, CVC, CIC) and CAG, EC, UPSC members
  • Coastal Zones Management and Regulations

    Shailesh Nayak Committee has recently relaxed norms under coastal regulation zones. It has proposed for allowing housing infrastructure and slum redevelopment activities, tourism, ports and harbor and fisheries-related activities in coastal regulation zone.

    source

    CRZs have been in news at times. Objections have been raised various times to broad the scope of activities that are permitted at these places.

    India has a long coastal line which makes these areas important for the country. Let’s understand this thing in a better way:

    • What are CRZs?
    • Classification of CRZ in India
    • What are the activities permitted and prohibited in these areas?
    • Why are CRZs important for India?
    • Objectives of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2011
    • Achievements of CRZ rules, 2011
    • Drawbacks of CRZ rules, 2011
    • Shailesh Nayak committee on review of coastal regulation zone notification
    • Analysis of new recommendations

    What are CRZs?

    • Coastal Regulation Zones (CRZ) are classified as the region between the outer limits of territorial waters (12 nautical miles) and a specified inward distance (inland) from the high tide line along coasts.
    • These zones are recognised as fragile ecosystems and as such are accorded protection against unregulated human activities such as construction, sand mining etc.
    • As per the notification, the coastal land up to 500m from the High Tide Line (HTL) and a stage of 100m along banks of creeks, estuaries, backwater and rivers subject to tidal fluctuations, is called the Coastal Regulation Zone(CRZ).

    Classification of CRZ in India

    For regulation of developmental activities, the coastal stretches within 500m of HTL on the landward side are classified into four categories, viz.

    • Category I (CRZ-I)
    • Category II (CRZ – II)
    • Category III (CRZ-III)
    • Category IV (CRZ-IV)

    Category I (CRZ -I):

    a) Areas that are ecologically sensitive and important, such as national parks/marine parks, sanctuaries, reserve forests, wild habitats, mangroves, corals/coral reefs, areas likely to be inundated due to rise in sea level consequent upon global warming and such areas as may be declared by the authorities.

    b) Areas between the Low Tide Line and High Tide Line

    Category II (CRZ -II):

    The area that have already been developed up to or the shoreline.

    Category III (CRZ -III):

    Areas that are relatively undisturbed and those which do not belong to either Category I or II. These include coastal zone in the areas (developed and undeveloped) and also areas within Municipal limits or in other legally designated urban areas which are not substantially built up.

    Category IV (CRZ-IV):

    Coastal stretches in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep and small islands, except those designated as CRZ I, CRZ II and CRZ III.

    What are the activities permitted and prohibited in these areas?

    CRZ I: Regulations

    No new constructions shall be permitted within 500m of the HTL.
    CRZ II: Regulations

    • Buildings shall be permitted neither on the seaward side of the existing road or on the seaward side of the existing and proposed road
    • Reconstruction of the authorized building to be permitted subject to the existing FSI/FAR norms and without change in the existing use
    • The design and construction of buildings shall be consistent with the surrounding landscape and architectural style 

    CRZ III: Regulations

    • The area up to 200m from the HTL is be earmarked as ‘No Development Zone’.
    • No construction shall be permitted in this zone except for repairs of existing authorized structures not exceeding existing FSI, existing plinth area and existing density.
    • However, the following uses may be permissible in this zone-agriculture, horticulture, gardens, pastures, parks, play fields, forestry and salt manufacture from sea water.

    Why are CRZs important for India?

    • India has a long coastline of 7516 km, ranging from Gujarat to West Bengal, and two island archipelagos (Andaman Island and Lakshadweep).
    • Our coastal ecosystems provide protection from natural disasters such as floods and tsunamis.
    • Coastal waters provide a source of primary livelihood to 7 million households.
    • Our marine ecosystems are a treasure trove of biodiversity, which we are only beginning to discover and catalogue.
    • Thus, our coastline is both a precious natural resource and an important economic asset, and we need a robust progressive framework to regulate our coast.

    Objectives of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2011

    The main objectives of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2011 were:

    • To ensure livelihood security to the fishing communities and other local communities living in the coastal areas;
    • To conserve and protect coastal stretches and;
    • To promote development in a sustainable manner based on scientific principles, taking into account the dangers of natural hazards in the coastal areas and sea level rise due to global warming.

    Achievements of CRZ rules, 2011

    • It widens the definition of CRZ to include the land area from HTL to 500 m on the landward side, as well as the land area between HTL to 100 m or width of the creek, whichever is less, on the landward side along tidal influenced water bodies connected to the sea.
    • The concept of a ‘hazard line’ has been introduced.
    • Clearances for obtaining CRZ approval have been made time-bound. Further, for the first time, post-clearance monitoring of projects has been introduced
    • Introduction of the Coastal Zone Management Plans, which will regulate coastal development activity and which are to be formulated by the State Governments or the administration of Union Territories.
    • The 2011 Notification also lists out certain measures that have to be taken to prevent pollution in the coastal areas/coastal waters.

    Drawbacks of CRZ rules, 2011

    • Although the no-development zone of 200 metres from the HTL is reduced to 100 metres, the pro­vision has been made applicable to “traditional coastal communities, including fisher-folk”, thereby giving the chance for increased construction on the coast and higher pressure on coastal resources
    • Disallowing Special Economic Zone(“SEZ”) projects in the CRZ
    • There are no restrictions for expansion of housing for rural communities in CRZ III

    Shailesh Nayak committee on review of coastal regulation zone notification

    The main recommendations of this new committee are:

    • Need to demarcate precisely: There exists ambiguities in key baseline data, including the demarcation of high and low tide lines and the coastal zone boundary, which has affected the preparation of Coastal Zone Management Plans.
    • Shift in Governance: Transferring control of development in the CRZ-II zone, the existing built-up area close to the shoreline, from the Environment Department to State Town Planning authorities, as proposed, would mark a radical shift in governance.
    • Construction Activities: Proposed lightly regulated tourism in “no development zones”. Construction and other activities could be taken up in CRZ-III zones just 50 m from the high tide line in densely populated rural areas under State norms (with the responsibility to rescue and rehabilitate during natural calamities left to local authorities) could be based on an over-estimation of the capacity in such bodies.
    • Pollution Control: The plan should be to identify specific areas for such activity, assess its environmental impact, demarcate the area under the State’s management plans, and fix responsibility for enforcement, particularly for pollution control.
    • Make it participatory: Involving the local communities in the betterment of these areas has yet not been achieved and incorporating a community-based approach should be made a priority.

    Analysis of new recommendations

    The recommendation by committee has tried to establish a balance between development and coastal conservation. However there are certain areas of concern-

    • The demarcation of high tide and low tide lines and coastal zone boundary affected the coastal zone management plans which are crucial for CRZ.
    • The transfer of developmental control of CRZ 2 from environmental department to town planning committee encourages local participation but it may disturb the whole system of governance.
    • Construction and other activities in CRZ 3 which is in the densely populated zone will hazards human settlement.
    • The proposed lightly tourism activity in the “No development zone” would suffocate further biodiversity conservation.

    Way ahead

    The new recommendations have tried to address issues such as time-bound clearances, enforcement measures, special provisions for specific coastal stretches etc. There is a significant change in the new notification but there is always need for further improvement.

  • Approaching CD mocks in a different way

    UW has been conducting prelims mini mocks for a while now. Users have been posting their answers (some their thought process also) and every Sunday UW comes out with solutions and explanation. User response has been great and we hope, you learned a lot not only about the topics and your weak areas but the art of answering questions.

    I had explained in an earlier blog – how to approach prelims 2016- that keeping an open mind, reading all options and using logic is very important in this examination. We have now started a series starting with polity in which we are proving solutions of last 7 years in a way one would approach the questions in exam and also the learning objectives.

    Now that UW has already framed for you such wonderful 99 questions (1 question bahut waahiyat tham sorry UR), I thought of solving a few with our approach.

    Let’s look at them

    Mock 4

    1. Consider the following statements:

    1. Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) is a not-for-profit Public Sector Enterprise.
    2. It has been set up by the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research as an interface agency to empower emerging biotech enterprises.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    • Most of us wouldn’t know if statement 2 is right or not but we would tend to think it’s correct as it seems correct but the art of intelligent informed guessing is that you think of alternative plausible explanations and if that’s rules out, you mark seemingly correct statement as right.
    • So if not by deptt of Scientific and Industrial research by whom? It’s biotech so what about deptt of biotech? Seems plausible. Does this deptt exist? Yess. Under the same ministry.  

    And with this you get +2 instead of -0.67

    2. Consider the following statements on Global Positioning System (GPS):

    1. GPS allows accurate time-stamping on ATM transactions.
    2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring signals worldwide.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d)  Neither 1 nor 2

    So people were confused if statement 1 was correct. GPS tells about time and position. everyone knows it. So it can tell about time in atm transactions. It has to be correct.

    3. Which of the following is/are among the ‘micro-elements’ required for plant growth?

    1. Copper
    2. Zinc
    3. Potassium
    4. Sulphur
    5. Manganese

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1, 2 and 5

    (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

    (c) 1, 3 and 4

    (d) 1, 2, 3,  4 and 5

    I don’t like such questions. MIcro/Macro/trace as different books mention different things. But still, you can easily understand examiner’s mind. You know N, P, K are major elements i.e micro. Remove Potassium, you reach the answer

    4. Consider the following statements?

    1. Vitamins assist the body in utilizing the nutrients.
    2. Vitamins help in transporting the minerals to required places.
    3. No vitamin can be synthesized in the body.

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Statement 3, too sweeping. Pause and think. Are you sure it’s correct. Vitamin D synthesized in the body in the presence of sunlight. Vit K, B12 by bacteria.

    5. Consider the following statements:

    1. Neutrinos are massless particles filling up most of the empty space.
    2. They are easy to detect as they can be deflected even by weak forces like gravity.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    If it was so easy to detect them, why would anyone get nobel prize for discovering it.

    Mock 3

    6. Which of the region/grouping of countries has the highest share in overall remittances to India?

    (a) EU

    (b) North America

    (c) GCC

    (d) East Asia

    You would have to make a guess. Gulf right. GCC. The whole economy of Kerala is dependent on GCC.

    7. Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian political system:

    1. The Cabinet is responsible to the Lok Sabha only.
    2. The President is the Head of the State.
    3. Every state has equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Only too sweeping. Pause and think. It’s true. Cabinet/CoM is responsible to LS only not parliament. So don’t mark without thinking.

    8. Which one of the following statements is/are not correct?

    1. Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is released on a monthly basis only.
    2. IIP is released by the Central Statistics Office.
    3. Electricity has highest weightage among the indicators used to calculate IIP.

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 3 only

    (b) 1 and 3 only

    (c) 2 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    1st statement only. Too sweeping. Pause and think. Obviously statistics would be released monthly/ weekly/ fortnightly/quarterly/ annually. Monthly it’s true.

    9. Which of the following departments is/are engaged in the protection of intellectual property rights in India?

    1.  Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
    2. Department of Higher Education
    3. Department of Information Technology
    4. Department of Agriculture and Cooperation

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

    (c) 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    IPRs are too broad. Associated with education, industry, agriculture, It, space etc. So all these ministries, deptt would be included.

    Mock 2

    10. Assertion (A) : The Rig Veda does not mention any officer for administering justice.

    Reason (R) : The Rig Vedic society was free of any unsocial activity.

    R is too sweeping. Free of any anti social activities. Pause and think, this can not be true. Cummon every society would have evil.

    11. Which one of the following temple was built in a different architectural design compared to the other three?

    (a) Kandarya Mahadeo Temple, Khajuraho

    (b) Kailasanatha Temple, Kanchipuram

    (c) Sun Temple, Konark

    (d) Jagannatha Temple, Puri

    Kanchipuram in south, other three in East – central India

    12. Consider the following statements:

    1. Arches and domes, which were Turkish inventions, were used by them on a wide scale in their buildings in India.
    2. The arches were decorated with human or animal figures and scrolls of flowers.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c)  Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Human, animal figures haram in Islam. Remember ISIS destroying idols, ancient mausoleums.

    13. Which of the following statements about the Charter Act of 1833 is/are correct?

    1. The trading activities of East India Company were to be abolished.
    2. A law member was to be appointed to the Governor-General’s Council.
    3. All law-making power was vested in the law member appointed to the Council.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • All law making power vested in law member. Isn’t it too sweeping? Pause and think. Who would vest all law making power in Law member? Obviously Governor general would keep at least some power. Right. So statement wrong.
    • Infact, 1833 was culmination of centralizing tendency where all law making power was vested in governor general. Governor general of Bengal became, Governor General of India.

    14. Narmada River does not have many tributaries primarily because

    1. It flows through the region of scanty rainfall.
    2. The hard rock surface and non-alluvial nature of the peninsular plateau permits little scope for the development of tributaries.
    3. It flows through a narrow valley confined by precipitous hills.

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • Statement 2 is BS. Aise to there won’t be any tributaries below great plains of India i,e in south.
    • Statement 1 is also BS. If Narmada is flowing through a region of scanty rainfall, why can’t other rivers. And if they can. There can also be tributary.
    • You know Narmaad and Tapi flow through rift valley. That’s why drain into Arabian ocean despite slope.

    15. Which of the following regions is conspicuous for the absence of many active volcanoes in comparison to other regions?

    (a) Indonesian Archipelagos

    (b) Western Coast of North America

    (c) Brazilian Coast

    (d) Chilean Coast

    Brazilian coast in on Atlantic. Other 3 on pacific. Easy Peasy. Need not know anything else. Cummn it was the easiest question.

    16. “Trees are adapted to withstand the dry summer without shedding of leaves.  Plants have spiny, waxy or small leaves to reduce transpiration. Trees have deep roots to tap water from depths. Thick bark also prevent loss of moisture.”

    Which of the following types of forests have been described above?

    (a) Tropical Deciduous forests

    (b) Mediterranean forests

    (c) Tropical Evergreen forests

    (d) Mid-latitude Evergreen forests

    Deciduous forest shed leaves. No dry summer in tropical evergreen. What about mid latitude evergreen? I have forgotten whether coniferous or broad leaf. But did i not mention in titbits only Mediterranean has Dry summer and warm winter!

    17. Consider the following statements about the Census 2011:

    1. The density of population increased in all states and union territories except Arunachal Pradesh.
    2. Male-Female gap in literacy rate has been lowest in the last five decades.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2 only

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Statement 1. Think why would population density decline in Arunachal. I can’t think of any reason. Already so lowly populated. It should only increase.

    18. Consider the following statements:

    1. Winter rainfall over the plain areas of north-west India is caused by western disturbances.
    2. The rainfall caused by western disturbances increases from north and north-west to the east.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2  only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Western disturbances means coming from west. Will lose moisture as they move east so obviously rainfall would decline.

    19. The winter rainfall over the plain areas of the north western region of India is largely due to

    (a) South-west monsoon

    (b) North-east monsoon

    (c) Western disturbances

    (d) Convection currents

    Internal repeat. See last question

    20. Consider the following statements:

    1. Isotherms are more regular and widely spaced in Northern hemisphere compared to the Southern Hemisphere.
    2. Isotherms bend slightly while crossing from land masses to oceans.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2  only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    If landmass is more regular everything would be regular. In north, land ocean land ocean. In south vast expanse of ocean so more regular distribution

    21. Waves in the open seas are largely caused by

    (a) gravitational pull of the sun

    (b) gravitational pull of the moon

    (c) undulating surface of the oceans

    (d) wind blowing over the sea surface

    If it’s due to sun, it would also be due to the moon. But both can’t be correct simultaneously. Only plausible explanation left is wind

    22. The large difference in rainfall received at Mahabaleshwar and Pune, which are only a few kilometres away, is largely because

    (a) Pune has dry air conditions all the year round

    (b) Mahabaleshwar is situated at a higher altitude than Pune

    (c) Pune is situated in a rain shadow region

    (d) None of the options (a), (b) or (c) sufficiently explains the phenomenon

    • Statement 2 is BS. rainfall does not depend on altitude directly.
    • No rainfall hence dry condition, dry condition hence no rainfall??

    Now the one Wahiyaat question

    1. Consider the following statements:

    1. Rural Employment Generation Programme was launched during 1985-86 to provide self-employment  opportunities in rural areas.

    2. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched during 1995-96 to bring assisted poor families above the poverty line.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Don’t worry if you get it wrong even if it’s asked in exam. Nobody can and even if one can should remember launch years of 20 years old schemes.

    • But let’s consider statement 2 – Swarnjayanti i.e golden jubilee i.e 50 years so it should be either 1997 or 2000 but it was actually 1st April 1999
    • 1st statement, 86-87 was the time of Rajiv Gandhi. He was a tech guy, why would he launch such schemes?

    Not a convincing explanation I know. But hey, Question hi wahiyaat tha

    Disclaimer – As I have said umpteen times, there’s no substitute for hard work and smart work. This is just to supplement your hard work so that you reap maximum reward out of your sweat and blood.

    Let us know, how many of you would have been able to increase your score by at least +5. And you know the importance of +5, there would be at least 5000 candidates b/w 102.34 and 107.34 last year.

    For Prelims mocks login here 

  • UPSC Prelims Polity Trend Analysis: Part 2

    IAS Prelims 2014

    Q1. Consider the following statements:

    1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
    2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Ain’t statement 2, executive action in the name of PM / president same as power vesting in president/ pm <question prelims 2015>
    • Statement 1 is obviously correct as all actions are taken in the name of president and he would obviously do it on the recommendations of PM.

    Learning – Powers of president esp discretionary powers, Veto

    1. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
    1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
    2. Appointing the Ministers
    3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
    4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only.
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only.
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Statement 2 is obviously incorrect as appointment of ministers has to be on the advice of CM. Eliminate statement 2, it’s the only option left

    Learning – Discretionary powers of governor vis a vis president, Appointment and removal of governor

    1. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
    1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
    2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Statement 2 is obviously correct as we discussed above CoM is collectively responsible to LS only.
    • Statement is factual, must know this <even zero hour has no mention in the constitution > <we discussed all such things in prelims titbits>

    Learning – If you have to remember 3 motions they would be – No confidence motion, Adjournment motion, calling attention motion

    1. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
    1. The Committee on Public Accounts
    2. The Committee on Estimates
    3. The Committee on Public Undertakings
    4. The Committee on Petitions

    Has been asked n number of times, 30 members in CoE, all from LS

    Learning – Classification of committee, election v/s nomination is imp. 3 must remember  committees are CoE, PAC, CoPU

    1. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
    1. Second Schedule
    2. Fifth Schedule
    3. Eighth Schedule
    4. Tenth Schedule

    Again schedules (repeat), 10th schedule anti defection law, 52nd and 91st amendment

    Learning – All the schedules esp. 5th v/s 6th, 9th and 10th, 11th and 12th, amendment of schedules, Read up provisions of anti – defection law

    1. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
    1. advisory jurisdiction
    2. appellate jurisdiction.
    3. original jurisdiction  
    4. writ jurisdiction

    Common sense – No advice is sought, can’t be advisory, Federal disputes can’t be filed in other courts so can’t be appellate, has to be original, writ is for enforcement of writs

    Learning – Advisory jurisdiction (Art 143), Writ of high court v/s supreme court

    1. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
    1. the President of India
    2. the Parliament
    3. the Chief Justice of India
    4. The Law Commission
    • Slightly difficult question. Option 4 the law commission and option 3 the chief justice can be easily eliminated. It has to be the role of legislature or executive.
    • Number of judges in supreme court is written in the constitution and only parliament can increase it and this is not considered amendment to the constitution.

    Learning – Appointment of judges (process), Qualification of judges of supreme court and high court, Measures to secure independence of judiciary

    1. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?
    1. The Finance Commission
    2. The National Development Council
    3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
    4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
    5. The Parliament

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 5 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Finance commission is concerned with distribution of taxes not planning. Eliminate it, only option left

    Learning – Niti Ayog, Governance structure, FC role, qualification of members

    1. Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
    1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
    2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
    3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    Statement 3 is clearly incorrect. It’s the function of finance ministry. Other 2 options seem correct, are logically correct, in fact correct

    Learning – Functions of Cabinet secretariat, Role of Cabinet secretary (question asked in 2015, chairman of civil services board), Functions and evolution of Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)

    1.  In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
    1. Preamble to the Constitution
    2. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
    3. Fundamental Duties
    4. Ninth Schedule

    Repeat questions, has to be directive to the state. Can’t be duty of citizens

    Learning – Memorize by Heart FDs, DPSPs, FRs and Preamble

    11.Consider the following statements : A Constitutional Government is one which

    1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
    2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

    Constitution places restriction on the authority of state so that it does not become autocratic <that’s why FRs n all>. Rights are actually given to citizens.

    Learning – Meaning of terms mentioned in the preamble, Republic, Democratic, Secularism, Social Justice, Fraternity etc.

    • Bottom line – Many repeats, no surprises
    • 9/11 absolute joke
    • 1 question parliament to increase number of judges moderate, 1 no confidence motion not mentioned in the constitution moderately difficult

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