💥UPSC 2027,2028 Mentorship (June Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

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  • UPSC Prelims Polity Trend Analysis part 4

    Pre 2011

    1. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?
    1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
    2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

    Which of the statements; given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

    • Vote on account is passed every year, used by both regular and caretaker govt
    • Vote on account deals only with expenditure while interim budget both revenue and expenditure <see titbits for more>

    Learnings – Can’t repeat enough, learn passage of budget

    1. In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
    1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
    2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to LokSabha.
    3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only’

    (c.) 1 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

    2 is obviously wrong, there is no communal representation, seats in LS for anglo indians that too not automatic

    Learning – Learns FRs by heart

    1. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the- Consolidated Fund of India must come from:

    (a.) The President of India

    (b.) The Parliament of India

    (c.) The Prime. Minister of India

    (d.) The Union Finance, Minister

    REpeated infinite times, parliamentary approval required, president recommendation before introducing the money bill

    Learning – Learn 3 funds, CFI, Contingency, Public accounts , Parliamentary control over finances

    1. All revenues received by the Union. Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the:

    (a.) Contingency Fund of India

    (b.) Public Account

    (c.) Consolidated Fund of India

    (d.) Deposits and Advances Fund

    Internal repeat, Everything goes and comes out of Consolidated fund of India

    1. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the LokSabha 

    (a.) the Budget is modified and presented again

    (b.) the Budget is referred to the RajyaSabha for suggestions

    (c.) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign,

    (d.) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

    Simple resignation, money bill rejected, govt resigns

    Learning – Passage of Budget

    1. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

    (a.) To vote in public elections

    (b.) To develop the scientific temper

    (c.) To safeguard public property

    (d.) To abide by me Constitution and respect its ideals

    Repeated ad nauseam, voting not a FD

    1. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

    (a.) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

    (b.) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings

    (c.) It ensures transparency in financial administration

    (d.) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

    FC repeated, it deals with distribution of taxes b/w union and states

    Learning – Role of FC, FCv/s PC, article 275, 282 and 280

    1. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?

    (a.) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households

    (b.) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households

    (c.) Adult members of households of all backward communities

    (d.) Adult members of any household

    There is no BPL/APl, SC/ST, though ⅓ should go to women, it should be adult member of rural households

    1. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
    1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
    2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
    3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

    2 and 3 are easily correct. Statement 1 is very tricky as DPC is under 74th amendment

    Learning – Evolution of local planning <MAyo, Rippon to 3 committees post independence>, Mandatory v/s optional provisions, schedule 11 and 12

    1. Consider the following statements :

    In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee

    1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
    2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
    3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 and 2 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) 1 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

    Similar to DPC. Statement 3, sole responsibility gives it away. Can not be the only body responsible for development. 1nd 2 easily correct

    Learning – DPC and MPC

    1. Consider the following :
    1. Right to education.
    2. Right to equal access to public service.
    3. Right to food.

    Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2 only

    (c.) 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

    Obviously all are human rights

    Pre 2010

    1. .With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
    1. Fundamental Rights
    2.  Fundamental Duties
    3. Directive Principles of State Policy

    Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?

    1. 1 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    Repeated infinite times, social assistance = welfare = socio economic democracy = DPSP

    1. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
    1. The President of India
    2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
    3. The Prime Minister of India
    4. The Union Finance Minister
    • Repeated again – FC, UPSC, CAG, NVSC, NCST etc submit reports to president who cause them to be laid before parliament.
    • On the other hand in case of committees of parliament like PAC, chairperson submits report to the house
    1. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
    1. Department of Revenue
    2. Department of Economic Affairs
    3. Department of Financial Services
    4. Department of Expenditure

    Repeated in 2015,

    4,Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?

    1. District Planning Committees
    2. State Finance Commission
    3. Finance Ministry of that State
    4. Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State

    Simple – Repeat, Role of Finance commission is to distribute taxes. Observe that DPC was asked next year in other format

    1. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
    1. Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigation stage and not those matters pending before any court
    2. Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
    3. Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
    4. None of the statements given above is correct
    • Why not pending cases, in fact courts encourage mediation and ADR. 3rd statement only gives it away. Even petty criminal cases can be tried here <compoundable offences>
    • Imp.- Order can not be challenged in any court of law once it has been accepted by both the party

    Learning – Lok Adalat, Gram Nyayalay, ADR, Arbitration amendment act

    1. .With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
    1. A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit
    2. One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman
    3. The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs
    4. A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be tiled with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general

    Repeated question from consumer protection act

    Learning – Consumer protection act, amendment, FSSAI

    1. .With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following:

    1. The Right to Development

    2. The Right to Expression

    3. The Right to Recreation.

    Which of the above is / are the Rights of the child?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    All are rights . Common sense. Earlier question on human right was asked

    8.The ”Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as

    1. Fundamental Rights
    2. Directive Principles of State Policy
    3. Extent of executive power of State
    4. Conduct of business of the Government of India

    Repaeted an nauseum

    1. Consider the following statements:

    The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact

    1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
    2. if he seeks such an advice.
    3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1 and 2

    Obviously only if he seeks. Then too only in case is supreme court bound to tender advice

    Learning  Original and advisory jurisdiction

    Pre 2009

    1.  If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
    1. 1 month     
    2. 3 months
    3. 6 months     
    4. 1 year

    Learning – Compulsory and optional provision of 73rd and 74th amendment including reservation requirement

    1. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh

    2 The Governor of Kerala is’ concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep

    Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. 1,2 and 3

    Covered in titbits

    3.Consider the following statements:

    1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
    2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

    Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only     
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2     
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Why would advocate general be appointed by president, he is appointed by governor, fired by governor. <high court judges are appointed and removed by president>. Ad G is employee of state govt
    • High courts have no advisory jurisdiction

    Learning – Repeated ad nauseum, Original and advisory jurisdiction of courts , writ of high court v/s supreme court

    1. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?
    1. Calcutta
    2. Madras
    3. Bombay     
    4. Delhi

    Learning – evolution of Local Bodies, 1st Panchayat in nagaur, rajasthan

    1. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
    1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.
    2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only     
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2     

    Family disputes are commonly resolved. Lok adalat repeated next year

    1.  With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:

    1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.

    2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only     
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2     
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Repeat, can be member of either house or become member in 6 months. Cabinet secretariat is not concerned with parliament so why with Ministry of parliamentary affairs but with
    • Questions related to cabinet secretariat and cabinet secretary repeated
    1.  Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?
    1. 90th     
    2. 91st
    3. 92nd     
    4. 93rd

    91st, amendment of anti defection law

    Learning – 10th schedule, repeated again and again

    1. Consider the following statements:

    1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Minister ship of Lal Bahadur Shastri.

    2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.

    Which of the statements given above is are correct?

    1. 1 only     
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2     
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

    CAT with 42nd amendment act i.e Indira Gandhi, 2nd is obviously true

    Learn – CAT, Jurisdiction, Appeal against CAT decision

    1. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:

    1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.

    2 The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.

    Which of the statements given above is are correct?

    1. 1 only     
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2     
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

    Obviously rubbish question

    1. With reference to Union Government consider the following statements:

    1. The Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.

    2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only     
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2     
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

    Obviously even ministries would then be created by President on advice of Pm

    1.  In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
    1. Prime Minister
    2. Minister of Water Resources
    3. Minister of Environment and Forests
    4. Minister of Science and Technology

    Learning – PM is chairperson of ???? councils / bodies

    1. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
    1. Prime Minister’s Office
    2. Cabinet Secretariat
    3. Ministry of Power
    4. Ministry of Science and Technology

    Learning – PMO and cabinet secretariat

  • please start prelims tit-bits for science and environment also

    Hii, as prelims is coming here my request to dr.v and civil digest team to include science and environment in tit-bits.

  • The Habits That Will Help You Build a Strong Mindset for IAS Prelims

    Every day, it seems there are a thousand things pulling at our attention and energy – chapters left to revise, subjects we did not pay any attention to, test series which are dangling on our heads like those menacing daggers and of course the D-Date of the IAS Prelims.


    What routines can we practice to help us stave off these unwanted fears, nagging uncertainties and remain focussed for the next month and a half?

    #1. Take 3 minutes every morning and focus on 3 things that you are deeply grateful for and 3 that you strive to accomplish in life.

    Think big – don’t think of the immediate exam, don’t think of the next task at hand but think of the ideal future that you dreamt of. The finish line and beyond to this marathon which has been ON for an year or so. Feel the warm glow, the soft brush of the sunflower field as you walk through it.

    This is the psychology of positive reinforcement and this will ensure that your subconscious works towards making that dream a reality.

    #2. When you are depressed and feeling like there is no way out, how do you keep moving? 

    • Shun the useless motivational crap. When you are down, you are down. Period. The point #1 works as positive reinforcement only when you commit to it as a daily habit NOT as a knee jerk – feel good trick to fool your mind.
    • Do this – Sit down. Take up a blank page. And start writing 50 things which need to happen to make things right for you. This may sound stupid but it is not. Trust us. When you start writing things, after the first 10 generic, stupid ideas you will get into the zone of problem solver

    The first 10 will be the most obvious ideas – the next 20 will seem vague and random but the last 20 or last 10 will have the most nuanced wisdom which you can give to yourself. These will be the most actionable items and will help you let go of the fear of unknown and get back to action.

    #3. Stop being commitment phobic. Don’t wait for the right time to test yourself. Don’t wait for the ideal number of revisions before you attempt those mocks. Any mocks will do. Be the smart one here. It’s okay to feel embarrassed at your low scores NOW than to feel dejected after the exam. It’s okay to learn from your peers now than to sit in the crowd and take in gyaan from the rankers an year later.

    There is a chinese proverb, “The best time to plant a tree was 20 years ago. The second best time is now.”

    Or better, this


    So, commit to the CD Mocks today

    5,000+ students have already registered their attempts and are filling their knowledge gaps. The leaderboard is LIVE and your ranks will give you a ready reckoner of your improvement areas.

    Here’s the link to the mocks.

    • The mock #6 to #10 are FREE to give you the runway for the FINAL Mocks
    • The last 4 Full Length tests are PAID and will help you evaluate your overall growth for the final lap!

    Go, Go , Goo.

  • Notifications for comments and replies

    Is there a way to receive notifications for replies to doubts asked on various pages? Checking the pages time and again is sort of cumbersome. Ive noticed that in some blogs, the comment section has a ‘notify me’ option, while in others it doesnt.

    Anyone else noticed this?

  • UPSC Prelims Polity Trend Analysis: Part 3

    Prelims 2013

    1. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
    1. directly elected by the people of those Provinces
    2. nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
    3. elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
    4. selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

    Easy question, Read in modern history. They were elected by provincial assemblies, princes nominated them.

    Learning – Evolution of constitutional scheme esp. Morley Minto, GOI act 1919, GOI act 1935, Cabinet mission plan, Constituent assembly, interim govt and interim parliament <cabinet mission has been asked infinite times>

    1. ‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in
    1. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
    2. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    3. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
    4. None of the above

    Repeat question.

    Preamble – justice -social, economic and political, DPSP is all about socio economic democracy, welfare state

    Learning – Can’t repeat, learn DPSP, FRs, FDs, Preamble by heart

    1. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
    1. Fundamental Rights
    2. Fundamental Duties
    3. Directive Principles of State Policy
    4. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

    Repeat. DPSPs like instrument of instruction of GOI 1935. Not enforceable but fundamental to governance

    Learning – can’t repeat enough but FRs v/s DPSP , Conflict b/w FRs and DPSPs

    1. Consider the following statements
    1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
    2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Indirect Repeat – Primacy of RS v/s LS, LS prevails only in cases of money bill and type 1 financial bill and in ordinary bill in joint sittings. CAB can be introduced in either house but not in states
    • Statement 2, all gives it away, consent of half the states is required

    Learning – Repeating again primacy of LS v/s RS, passage of different bills, Art 368, cases where assent of states required, amendments not considered under article 368, Parliamentary legislation on state list 

    1. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
    1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
    2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
    3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Repeat. All 3 options repeated.
    • Statement 3 is wrong. Cabinet headed by PM, remove it and answer. Actions taken in the name of President. Statement 1 repeat, Cabinet members of legislature , ministers responsible to LS (not parliament )

    Learning – Presidential v/s parliamentary system, Cabinet v/s CoM, different categories of ministers

    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
    2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
    3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.
    1. only 1
    2. only 2 and 3
    3. only 1 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    Internal repeat <same paper> right.

    CoM responsible to LS not parliament. Eliminate it, you get the answer. Yes pleasure but PM recommends when to remove the pleasure. Statement 2 is too innocuous to be false.

    Learning – Solve question papers, read titbits

    1. Attorney General of India can
    1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
    2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
    3. speak in the Lok Sabha
    4. vote in the Lok Sabha

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 3 only
    • Option 4 is obviously incorrect as only members can vote <even VP can’t vote as he is not a member >.
    • Doubt rests on statement 2 as it’s obvious if he can sit in the house, he would not sit there to observe, he can observe on the TV. Obviously he would sit there to speak if required.
    • Whoever can take part in proceeding can be a member but without again right to vote

    Learning – AG qualification, appointment, removal, reference to AG

    1. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    1. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
    2. The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
    3. No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
    4. In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
    • Option 3 common knowledge – Governor till pleasure of president. But it’s a difficult question if you don’t directly reach this option.
    • Can be appointed governor of 2 states, in fact even LG of UTs, High court judges appointed as well as removed by president, CM appointed by President not LG <in states governor appoint>

    Learning – again Discretionary powers of governor appointment and removal, LG v/s governor, Qualification, Appointment and Removal of Judges

    1. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
    1. with the consent of all the States
    2. with the consent of the majority of States
    3. with the consent of the States concerned
    4. without the consent of any State

    Common sense – India is not that federal to require state permission here

    Learning – Instances where parliament can make laws on state list with or without their permission <discussed in titbits>. Has been asked multiple times i.e Parliamentary legislation on state list

    1. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC)
    1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
    2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of Government
    3. Examines the report of CAG.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct? `

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    Repeat. Only Committee on estimates has members only of LS. All others have members both of LS and RS. Isn’t it clear from the name it would scrutinize accounts. Statement 2 correct, 1 incorrect

    Learning – Again committees are imp. 3 committee , PAC, CoE, CoPU. Appointment, removal and independence of CAG. Types of audits conducted by CAG

    1.  Consider the following statements:
    1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
    2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Chairman VP not a member, Vice Chairman from amongst the members
    • Presidential election – Only elected members of both the houses plus legislative assemblies, VP election – all the members of both the houses

    Learning – Powers, appointment and removal of chairperson and speaker, Appointment and removal of President and VP <discussed in titbits>

    1.  What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
    1. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
    2. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
    3. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
    4. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

    Repeated n number of times. RS can’t amend the money bill.

    Learning – Money bill v.s finance bill. Passage of different bills. Primacy of LS v/s RS

    1.  Consider the following statements:
    1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
    2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
    3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1,2 and 3
    • NDC and PC have been abolished now. NDC used to advise PC on planning and included all CMs and union ministers etc. Eliminate statement 1, only option left
    • Statement 2 and 3 are common sense, planning has to be in the concurrent list

    Learning – Niti Ayog

    1. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
    1. The Prime Minister
    2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
    3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
    4. Chief Ministers of the States

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    What would chairperson FC would do? FC is not involved in planning. Repeated question next year.

    Learning – FC, Niti Ayog

    1. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
    1. National Development Council
    2. Planning Commission
    3. Zonal Councils

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    NDC and PC easily incorrect. Even zonal councils aren’t in the constitution <they are statutory>

    Learning – Inter state council, Zonal Council

    1. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
    1. To provide self-governance
    2. To recognize traditional rights
    3. To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
    4. To free tribal people from exploitation
    • Common sense – Panchayat is for self governance so 1st has to be correct. 5th schedule and 6th schedule has been asked multiple times and 6th schedule is create autonomous region, so option 3 has to be incorrect.
    • Also option 2 and 4 would have to be correct or incorrect simultaneously as recognize their traditional rights, you free them of exploitation
    1. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
    1. State Forest Department
    2. District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
    3. Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandai Revenue Officer
    4. Gram Sabha

    FRA is addition to PESA. So obviously community i.e Gram Sabha would do it.

    Learning – PESA v/s FRA

    1.  With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :
    1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
    2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

    General knowledge. Appear true. NLSA act 1987. But if you didn’t know, you could mark it incorrect thinking may be not free but at low cost. But remember free legal aid is DPSP.

    • Bottom line – 10/18 absolute joke
    • 4/18 Tricky – AG being member of Committee, Election of president and VP, no procedure for removal of Governor, Zonal council not constitution
    • NLSA, FRA, NDC require some limited knowledge

    Learning – UPSC asks a lot of questions from a few topics every year which are doable

    Pre 2012

    1. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
    1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
    2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
    3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
    4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Solution – CAG is asked again and again.

    • 4th is clearly wrong as obviously only judiciary can prosecute people not CAG or other bodies not even Human rights commission
    • Only options 2 and 3 left i.e statement 3, Cummon information from any imp report can be used to press charges. Judiciary will determine if charges stick or not <it was the time of 2g scam>
    • CAG -PAC asked multiple times,
    • CAG only audits, he is not comptroller in INdia <statement 1 is wrong>

    Learning – Reading options carefully, applying brain , Again role of CAG, types of audits

    1. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment: 

    (a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the” Houses within six months

    (b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the LokSabha within six months

    (c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament

    (d) must be a member of the LokSabha

    Manmohan Singh was from RS. Ministers can be from either house so can the PM. Ministers can become members w/i 6 months so can PM.

    Learning – Qualification. Disqualification to be elected to LS and RS including recent SC judgement (section 8 (4))

    1. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :
    1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
    2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the LokSabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    You must know oudelimitation commission. Both are true

    Learning – Delimitation commission, composition, powers, last delimitation, next delimitation 

    1. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
    1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
    2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
    3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
    4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 4 only

    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    3rd is obviously incorrect as committee’s report is tabled by the chairperson of the committee. Other 3 bodies would submit the report to president.

    Learning – NCSC – role wrt to OBC and Anglo Indians, UPSC – appointment and removal of members ,  independence of UPSC

    1. A deadlock between the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
    1. Ordinary Legislation
    2. Money Bill
    3. Constitution Amendment Bill

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Has been repeated infinite times. Money bill no role of RS. CAB has to be passed separately by both houses with special majority

    1. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
    1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
    2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
    3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
    4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • Repeated n number of times .
    • Protecting weaker sections is DPSP not FD
    1. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
    1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
    2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
    3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
    4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 3 and 4 only

    (c) 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • 2nd option is obviously incorrect as President removes judges. Repeated ad nauseum that both high court and supreme court judges are appointed and removed by president. 1 is definitely correct, even before 4 judges case <art 124> both in case of supreme court and high court
    • Answer is clear from above. But what about statement 4 – very conveniently reversed, CJI appoints after consulting president not the other way around

    Learning — Appointment, removal. Independence of judiciary

    1. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

    (a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

    (b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

    (c) Government of India Act, 1935

    (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

    Repeated many times. GOI act 1935, 3 lists, provincial autonomy

    Learning – all 4 acts mentioned in the options, Cabinet mission plan

    1. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

    (a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

    (b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers

    (c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant

    (d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

    • Didn’t i say if 3 motions are to be learned – No Confidence, adjournment and calling attention
    • Definite matter of urgent public importance, only in LS, extraordinary device, direct or indirect failure on the part of govt 

    Learning – Learn all 3 motions, Primacy of LS v/s RS

    1. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India 
    1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
    2. Organizing village Panchayats
    3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
    4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

    Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

    (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    How many times will they repeat DPSP. But here they asked Gandhian  2 and 3 are obvious. UCC clearly isn’t Gandhian but liberal.

    Reading – Learn DPSPs. FDs, FRs, Preamble by heart plus broad classification of DPSP <covered in titbits>

    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Union Territories are not represented in the RajyaSabha.
    2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
    3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha only.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1 and 3

    (d) None

    We know Delhi is represented in RS. 3rd statement, only gives it away, president is also part of parliament, has to sign bills for them to become act. You can mark even if you don’t know about statement 2. What bout election dispute? Answer in comments please

    Learning – Election Commission appointment, removal and independence, Election disputes

    1. Regarding the office of the LokSabha Speaker, consider the following statements: 
    1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
    2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
    3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 3 only

    (c) 1, 2 and 3

    (d) None

    • 3rd is so innocuous has to be correct, deputy writes to speaker, speaker writes to deputy. We know the removal procedure, has been asked multiple times (effective majority). Even if you don’t know about option 2, you can mark it correct.
    • Has to be a member as he has to conduct the proceedings unlike minister who can function without being present in the house.
    1. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
    1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
    2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
    3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
    4. A dispute between two or more States

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 and 2

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1 and 4

    (d) 3 and 4

    Repeat – Original jurisdiction. Original meaning originating in the supreme court, not on appeal. So obviously federal provisions i.e 1 and 4 <UT is not under federal relationship>

    Learning – Writ of SC v/s high court, Original and advisory jurisdiction of SC

    1. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
    1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
    2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
    3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Repeat. 2 is definitely incorrect, Morley Minto introduced it. Statement 3 would be the clincher. If there was dyarchy meaning some powers to elected ministers so definitely some legislative authority also <autonomy in 1935 only>

    Learning – Repeating nth time, 3 acts plus cabinet mission

    1. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the RajyaSabha by the Constitution of India? 

    (a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

    (b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

    (c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

    (d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

    Simple

    Learning – Repeating nth time Primacy of LS v.s RS

    1. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
    1. Directive Principles of State Policy
    2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
    3. Fifth Schedule
    4. Sixth Schedule
    5. Seventh Schedule

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 3, 4 and 5 only

    (c) 1, 2 and 5 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    • DPSP – Early Childhood care and education, Rural and Urban – Primary education,  7th schedule- 3 lists, education in concurrent
    • 5th and 6th schedule deals with schedule and tribal areas. No direct relationship to education

    Learning – Learn all schedules, DPSPs

    1. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 
    1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
    2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
    3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
    4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
    5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

    (c) 3, 4 and 5 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    There is no Parliamentary Budget Office in INdia

    Learning – Passage of Budget, 3 Statements consequent to FRBM act

    1. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
    1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
    2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
    3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • PESA and FRA repeated again next year. Look at the statement 3, any gives it away. If under statement 2, Gram sabha has ownership over Minor forest produce, how is it possible for gram sabha to have ownership over any mineral. It should also be minor mineral, right.  Any is too sweeping. Pause and Think.
    • Statement 1 is obviously correct

    Learning – PESA and FRA

    1. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
    1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
    2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
    3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    1 is obviously correct, seems correct.  What has NGT to do with scheduled areas, gram sabha etc. It’s for all India.

    1. With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 
    1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
    2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
    3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    You must know about this. Earlier we learnt free legal aid under NLSA but here it’s not free. 3 can not be wrong so answer 1 and 3 <in the next blog you would know that question related to consumer protection act had been asked earlier, importance of solving question papers>

    Learning – Consumer protection act, amendment proposed, Food safety laws, FSSAI

    Bottom Line – Most of the questions absolute joke

  • 16 Polity questions from the most imp topics

    In the blogs, I have analysed Polity section of last 7 years. Questions with solutions and right approach has been posted in the blogs. Here are the 16 questions to evaluate whether you have just read the analysis or have also revised these most imp. topics

    Solve these questions with open mind. Most of the questions can be solved if you have read prelims titbits. Apply elimination method. Use all the knowledge at your disposal. Write your thought process in doubtful questions in the comments below.

    Best luck

    1. The functions of the Committee on Estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to

    1. report what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency or administrative reform may be effected

    suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in 2. administration

    3. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates

    4. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 and 2 only

    b. 2 and 3 only

    c. 1, 2 and 3

    d. 3 and 4

    2. The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution of India is meant for

    1. The examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of the Government of India

    2. scrutinizing report of the Comptroller and Auditor General

    3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. 1 and 2 only

    d. 1,2 and 3

    3. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the Parliament

    1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government

    2. may involve failure of the Government of India to perform its duties in Accordance with the Constitution

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    4. The principle of ‘collective responsibility’ under parliamentary democracy implies that

    1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister

    2. No person shall be nominated to the Cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister

    3. No person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he shall be dismissed.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1

    b. 2 only

    c. 3 only

    d. 2 and 3

    5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India?

    1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses.

    2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting.

    3. It is being notified by the President.

    4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 and 2 only

    b. 1, 2 and 3

    c. 2 and 3 only

    d. 3 and 4

    6. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws

    1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List

    2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable

    3. for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 2 only

    b. 1 and 2 only

    c. 1 and 3 only

    d. 1,2 and 3

    7. Which of the following statements in the context of structure of the Parliament is/are correct?

    1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States and the House of the People.

    2. The President of India is directly elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament only.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    8. Certain Bills cannot be introduced or proceeded with unless the recommendation of the President is received. However, no recommenda­tion is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such recommendation is not required?

    a. For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters

    b. For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new States or of alteration of areas of existing States

    c. For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax

    d. For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting taxation in which States are interested

    9. There are provisions in the constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include

    1. any law under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new States)

    2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new States)

    3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule

    Select the answer.

    a. 1 and 2 only

    b. 2 and 3

    c. 1,2,3

    d. None

    10. The Rajya Sabha can withhold its consent to a Money Bill for :

    a. 14 days

    b. 15 days

    c. 30 days

    d. 18 days

    11. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can be removed from office only by :

    a. President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.

    b. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

    c. President of India after an address in both Houses of Parliament.

    d. President on the advice of Chief Justice of India.

    12. The National Human Rights Commission has :

    1. a Chairperson who has been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court or a High Court of India

    2. one Member who is or has been a Judge of Supreme Court

    3. one Member who is, or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court

    4. two Members to be appointed from amongst persons having knowledge of or practical experience in matters relating to human rights

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    b. 1, 2 and 3 only

    c. 1 and 4 only

    d. 2, 3 and 4 only

    13. The locus standi rule to move the court was liberalized by the case of:

    a. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

    b. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

    c. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India

    d. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

    Which one of the following statements regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women is correct?

    a. The Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only

    b. A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committee

    c. The term of office of the members of the Committee shall not exceed two years

    d. It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women

    15. The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the Welfare of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and  the Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall

    1. examine whether the Union Government has secured due representation of the SCs and the STs in the services and posts under its control

    2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d. Neither 1 nor 2

    16. Which of the following committee/committees submitted reports on Electoral reforms?

    1. Dinesh Goswami Committee

    2. Tarkunde Committee

    3. Indrajit Gupta Committee

    4. Balwantrai Mehta Committee

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    a. 1, 3 and 4

    b. 2 and 4

    c. 1,2 and 3

    d. 3 and 4 only

  • [Solved] Open discussion for Prelims Mocks #6

    Update:

    The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. We have tried to make them as detailed as possible. Download

    What’s this?

    Discussion blog page for those who just attempted prelims mock #6. Discussion is open for any question which you had a doubt about, brainstorming on ways to arrive at a particular answer, any other interesting tit bit that you may share etc.

    Where are the prelims mocks held?

    Go to the link and start attempting the mocks. Click here. 25 questions each.

    When will the detailed explanations be uploaded?

    Every weekend (on sunday). Look out for this blog again and you will find a google drive link from where you can download the explanation pdfs.

  • Censor Board

    Does Censor Board in India also certify ad films, serials and theatre plays? Thanks in advance.

  • IAS Prelims tit-bits- Polity part 9

    1. Most imp. Articles of Constitution

    1. Art 2admission or establishment of new states <earlier not states, Sikkim for instance>
    2. Art 3 – formation or changes in the  existing states <Telangana for instance>
    3. Art 51 A – 11 fundamental duties
    4. Art 72 – Pardoning power of president
    5. Art 108 – Definition of money bill
    6. Art 112 – annual Financial statement (BUdget)
    7. Art 123 – Ordinance by President, 213 – By governor
    8. Art 143 – Advisory Jurisdiction
    9. Art 226 High court writ, 32 supreme court writes
    10. Art 335 – Claims of SC & ST to services
    11. Article 350 A -instruction in the mother tongue at local level
    12. Art 351 – Duty of Union to promote spread of Hindi Language

    Note – Articles of FRs should be learned by heart.

    • Discuss – Pardoning powers of president v/s governor
    • Discuss – Federal safeguards under article 3
    • Discuss – Berubari Union case and article 2 and 3

    2. Article 355, 356 and 365

    1. Art 355 Duty of the Union to protect States against any external aggression and the internal disturbance and ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution

    2. Art 356 : President’s rule in the event of failure of constitutional machinery

    3. Art 365 : Failure of state to comply with the directives of the Union

    So because it is Union’s responsibility under article 355 to see to it that Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, President imposes President’s rule on two grounds – art 356 and art 365

    Issues related to emergency have been discussed in detail in this blog and in this tit- bit

    3. Most imp. Constitutional Amendments

    1. 1st amendment – 9th schedule
    2. 7th amendment -Abolished 4 fold classification of states, extended jurisdiction of high courts to UTs, Common high courts for >1 states
    3. 24th – Compulsory for president to give assent to CABs
    4. 42nd – Mini constitution, added FDs <Swaran Singh Committee>, 3 new words -socialist, secular and integrity to the preamble , Tribunals
    5. 44th – Abolished right to property, Internal disturbance replaced by armed rebellion under article 352, National emergency only on written recommendation of president <only use of the word cabinet in the constitution>
    6. 52 – 10th schedule, anti defection law
    7. 91st – anti defection law amended, not >15% of LSin CoM
    8. 80th – Alternate scheme of devolution, all taxes except cess and surcharges to be shared b/w union and states
    9. 97th Cooperative societies
    10. 100th Land boundary agreement b/w India and B’desh
    • Discuss – Amendment of anti defection law by 91st amendment
    • DiscussKihoto Hollohan judgement
    • Discuss -Whether or not cooperative societies under RTI

    4. Bills with prior recommendation of President

    1. 1. Bill that seek to alter the boundaries of the states and names of the states. (Article 3)
    2. 2. Money Bill (Article 110) & Finance Bill type 1
    3. 3. Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are interested (Article 274)
    4. 4. State Bills which impose restriction upon freedom of trade (Article 304).
    5. 5. Any matter relating to a law for acquisition by the state of any ‘estate’ or other intermediate interest in land means matters relating to article 31(A)

    Bill involving expenditure from consolidated fund of India but not a money bill i.e Finance bill type 2 do not require recommendation while introducing but recommendation s necessary before bill is taken up for passage

    • Discuss – Parliament can not propose increase in taxes but can propose reduction
    • Discuss – Appropriation bill can not be amended but Finance bill can be

    5. Random Trivia

    • NHRC is the only body whose chairperson has to be retired CJI and in state HRC, retired Chief Justice of high Court <any exception?>
    • In every appointment, where a committee appoints members of constitutional and statutory bodies, PM and LoP (LS) always are the members
    1. 1. NHRC – 6 member committee (2 + Speaker LS, Deputy CP RS , LoP, RS, Home Minister)
    2. 2. CVC – 3 member committee (2 + home minister)
    3. 3. CIC – 3 member committee (2 + any cabinet minister nominated by PM)
    4. 4. Director CBI – (2+ CJI)
    • Discuss – Qualification of Lokpal chairperson, appointment committee
    • Discuss – Process of removal of above authorities (NHRC, CVC, CIC) and CAG, EC, UPSC members
  • Coastal Zones Management and Regulations

    Shailesh Nayak Committee has recently relaxed norms under coastal regulation zones. It has proposed for allowing housing infrastructure and slum redevelopment activities, tourism, ports and harbor and fisheries-related activities in coastal regulation zone.

    source

    CRZs have been in news at times. Objections have been raised various times to broad the scope of activities that are permitted at these places.

    India has a long coastal line which makes these areas important for the country. Let’s understand this thing in a better way:

    • What are CRZs?
    • Classification of CRZ in India
    • What are the activities permitted and prohibited in these areas?
    • Why are CRZs important for India?
    • Objectives of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2011
    • Achievements of CRZ rules, 2011
    • Drawbacks of CRZ rules, 2011
    • Shailesh Nayak committee on review of coastal regulation zone notification
    • Analysis of new recommendations

    What are CRZs?

    • Coastal Regulation Zones (CRZ) are classified as the region between the outer limits of territorial waters (12 nautical miles) and a specified inward distance (inland) from the high tide line along coasts.
    • These zones are recognised as fragile ecosystems and as such are accorded protection against unregulated human activities such as construction, sand mining etc.
    • As per the notification, the coastal land up to 500m from the High Tide Line (HTL) and a stage of 100m along banks of creeks, estuaries, backwater and rivers subject to tidal fluctuations, is called the Coastal Regulation Zone(CRZ).

    Classification of CRZ in India

    For regulation of developmental activities, the coastal stretches within 500m of HTL on the landward side are classified into four categories, viz.

    • Category I (CRZ-I)
    • Category II (CRZ – II)
    • Category III (CRZ-III)
    • Category IV (CRZ-IV)

    Category I (CRZ -I):

    a) Areas that are ecologically sensitive and important, such as national parks/marine parks, sanctuaries, reserve forests, wild habitats, mangroves, corals/coral reefs, areas likely to be inundated due to rise in sea level consequent upon global warming and such areas as may be declared by the authorities.

    b) Areas between the Low Tide Line and High Tide Line

    Category II (CRZ -II):

    The area that have already been developed up to or the shoreline.

    Category III (CRZ -III):

    Areas that are relatively undisturbed and those which do not belong to either Category I or II. These include coastal zone in the areas (developed and undeveloped) and also areas within Municipal limits or in other legally designated urban areas which are not substantially built up.

    Category IV (CRZ-IV):

    Coastal stretches in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep and small islands, except those designated as CRZ I, CRZ II and CRZ III.

    What are the activities permitted and prohibited in these areas?

    CRZ I: Regulations

    No new constructions shall be permitted within 500m of the HTL.
    CRZ II: Regulations

    • Buildings shall be permitted neither on the seaward side of the existing road or on the seaward side of the existing and proposed road
    • Reconstruction of the authorized building to be permitted subject to the existing FSI/FAR norms and without change in the existing use
    • The design and construction of buildings shall be consistent with the surrounding landscape and architectural style 

    CRZ III: Regulations

    • The area up to 200m from the HTL is be earmarked as ‘No Development Zone’.
    • No construction shall be permitted in this zone except for repairs of existing authorized structures not exceeding existing FSI, existing plinth area and existing density.
    • However, the following uses may be permissible in this zone-agriculture, horticulture, gardens, pastures, parks, play fields, forestry and salt manufacture from sea water.

    Why are CRZs important for India?

    • India has a long coastline of 7516 km, ranging from Gujarat to West Bengal, and two island archipelagos (Andaman Island and Lakshadweep).
    • Our coastal ecosystems provide protection from natural disasters such as floods and tsunamis.
    • Coastal waters provide a source of primary livelihood to 7 million households.
    • Our marine ecosystems are a treasure trove of biodiversity, which we are only beginning to discover and catalogue.
    • Thus, our coastline is both a precious natural resource and an important economic asset, and we need a robust progressive framework to regulate our coast.

    Objectives of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2011

    The main objectives of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2011 were:

    • To ensure livelihood security to the fishing communities and other local communities living in the coastal areas;
    • To conserve and protect coastal stretches and;
    • To promote development in a sustainable manner based on scientific principles, taking into account the dangers of natural hazards in the coastal areas and sea level rise due to global warming.

    Achievements of CRZ rules, 2011

    • It widens the definition of CRZ to include the land area from HTL to 500 m on the landward side, as well as the land area between HTL to 100 m or width of the creek, whichever is less, on the landward side along tidal influenced water bodies connected to the sea.
    • The concept of a ‘hazard line’ has been introduced.
    • Clearances for obtaining CRZ approval have been made time-bound. Further, for the first time, post-clearance monitoring of projects has been introduced
    • Introduction of the Coastal Zone Management Plans, which will regulate coastal development activity and which are to be formulated by the State Governments or the administration of Union Territories.
    • The 2011 Notification also lists out certain measures that have to be taken to prevent pollution in the coastal areas/coastal waters.

    Drawbacks of CRZ rules, 2011

    • Although the no-development zone of 200 metres from the HTL is reduced to 100 metres, the pro­vision has been made applicable to “traditional coastal communities, including fisher-folk”, thereby giving the chance for increased construction on the coast and higher pressure on coastal resources
    • Disallowing Special Economic Zone(“SEZ”) projects in the CRZ
    • There are no restrictions for expansion of housing for rural communities in CRZ III

    Shailesh Nayak committee on review of coastal regulation zone notification

    The main recommendations of this new committee are:

    • Need to demarcate precisely: There exists ambiguities in key baseline data, including the demarcation of high and low tide lines and the coastal zone boundary, which has affected the preparation of Coastal Zone Management Plans.
    • Shift in Governance: Transferring control of development in the CRZ-II zone, the existing built-up area close to the shoreline, from the Environment Department to State Town Planning authorities, as proposed, would mark a radical shift in governance.
    • Construction Activities: Proposed lightly regulated tourism in “no development zones”. Construction and other activities could be taken up in CRZ-III zones just 50 m from the high tide line in densely populated rural areas under State norms (with the responsibility to rescue and rehabilitate during natural calamities left to local authorities) could be based on an over-estimation of the capacity in such bodies.
    • Pollution Control: The plan should be to identify specific areas for such activity, assess its environmental impact, demarcate the area under the State’s management plans, and fix responsibility for enforcement, particularly for pollution control.
    • Make it participatory: Involving the local communities in the betterment of these areas has yet not been achieved and incorporating a community-based approach should be made a priority.

    Analysis of new recommendations

    The recommendation by committee has tried to establish a balance between development and coastal conservation. However there are certain areas of concern-

    • The demarcation of high tide and low tide lines and coastal zone boundary affected the coastal zone management plans which are crucial for CRZ.
    • The transfer of developmental control of CRZ 2 from environmental department to town planning committee encourages local participation but it may disturb the whole system of governance.
    • Construction and other activities in CRZ 3 which is in the densely populated zone will hazards human settlement.
    • The proposed lightly tourism activity in the “No development zone” would suffocate further biodiversity conservation.

    Way ahead

    The new recommendations have tried to address issues such as time-bound clearances, enforcement measures, special provisions for specific coastal stretches etc. There is a significant change in the new notification but there is always need for further improvement.

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