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  • UPSC CSE Prelims 2015 – History Solutions

    1. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?
      1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’
      2.  In Rowlatt Satyagraha Gandhiji tried to use the Home Rule League
      3. Demonstrations against the Simon Commission coincided with the Rowlatt Satyagraha

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

    1. Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?
      1. Dadabhai Naoroji
      2. Subramania Iyer
      3. C. Dutt

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

    1. With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:
      1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
      2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
      3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) None

     

    1. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined

    (a) the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
    (b)the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
    (c)the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
    (d)None of the above

     

    1. Consider the following pairs:

    Medieval Indian State : Present Region
    1. Champaka : Central India
    2. Durgara : Jammu
    3. Kuluta : Malabar

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3
    (d) 3 only

     

      1. Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of Buddha?

    1. Avanti
    2. Gandhara
    3. Kosala
    4. Magadha

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a)1,2 and 3
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1,3 and 4
    (d) 3 and 4 only

     

    1. Consider the following :

    The arrival of Babur into India led to the
    1. introduction of gunpowder
    2. introduction of the arch and dome in the regions’s architecture
    3. establishment of Timurid dynasty

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1,2 and 3

     

    1. Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?

    (a) V.O Chidambaram Pillai
    (b) C. Rajagopalachari
    (c) K. Kamaraj
    (d) Annie Besant

     

    1. Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong?

    (a) Amoghavarsha I
    (b) Ballala II
    (c) Harihara I
    (d) Prataparudra II

     

    1.  Consider the following statements :

    1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.

    2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

    1. With reference to cabinet mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It recommended a federal government.
    2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
    3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3
    (c) 1 and 3
    (d) None

     

    1. With reference to art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?

    (a) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
    (b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
    (c) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
    (d) Varaha Image at Udayagiri

     

    1. With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential elementary elements of the feudal system?

    1. A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority
    2. Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land
    3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and. his overlord

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c)  3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

    1. Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the
      Indian National Congress resulting in emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?

    (a) Swadeshi Movement
    (b) Quit India Movement
    (c) Non-Cooperation Movement
    (d) Civil Disobedient Movement

     

    1. Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?

    (a) Odia
    (b) Konkani
    (c) Bhojpuri
    (d) Assamese

     

    1. Kalamkari painting refers to

    (a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India
    (b) a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India
    (e) a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India
    (d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India

  • Examination Framework and Action Strategy – Prelims Stage

    It is my pleasure to share whatever little I have and opine that the purpose is served if it helps the aspirants to whatever extent possible.

    Before starting the preparation, it is very important to have a complete understanding about the exam process, its structure and the various aspects related to the preparation.

    Prelims stage:

    The following points should be kept in mind while doing preparation:

    1. The focus should be on gaining basic clarity in each topic, which will come only through lot of logical questioning. This is most important for clearing the prelims stage.
    2. For any topic, try to do a horizontal and vertical reading of all the related topics which will definitely help to cover any topic holistically.
    3. A thorough analysis of the previous year’s question papers and the recent trends so that one is in tune with UPSC recent trends.
    4. Discussing elaborately with teachers, successful candidates and seniors so that one is on track during preparations.

    General Studies – Newspapers, Magazines, Journals, Internet (Most Important), and books of general reading. NCERT school books of history, geography, polity, economics, sociology and all humanities and arts (excluding languages, mathematics and science) from class 7th to 12th. Science NCERT school books of only class 9th and 10th.

    History – NCERT textbooks, history of modern India – Bipin Chandra and Spectrum publications and any other books on Indian history of general interest.

    Geography – NCERT textbooks of class 11th and 12th, physical geography by Go Cheng Leong and an ATLAS. Referring maps is very important.

    Polity – Indian Constitution by Laxmikanth or D.D.Basu, NCERT school texts.

    Science and Technology – The Hindu S&T page (weekly), Science Reporter by C.S.I.R., What, How & Why by C.S.I.R., Internet, NCERT 8th to 12th science textbooks.

    Economics – NCERT 10th, 11th & 12th texts, Economic Survey, Indian Budget, Sriram Class notes, Mrunal.org, Pratyogita Darpan special edition on Indian economy and any business daily.

    General Knowledge – India year book, Manorama year book (Not to concentrate on unnecessary details).

    Current Affairs – The Hindu, A business daily, InsightsonIndia, Mrunal.org, Gktoday website, Frontline, Yojana, Any competitive magazine, Websites – India.gov.in, India development gateway, Pib.nic.in, UNO website, Ministry websites, RBI, SEBI, etc websites, Indian Embassy websites and whatever other sites you can source authentic and concise information from.

    Make use of Google Documents, Google Reader, News and such other internet tools to prepare notes online and for greater, better and easy accessibility. Making notes online helps in cutting down time and must be done on a regular basis without fail.

    Let’s take a look at the mains strategy in the coming blog posts. Let me know of any doubts, concerns. Would be glad to help.

  • Post Prelims – Do’s & Don’ts

    Over the years I have witnessed many changes in IAS examination in terms of pattern, trend & nature of questions, cut-offs, composition of aspirants, etc. But one thing remains same, that is – tension & pressure. Even today especially during exams all my memories get refreshed and my BP slightly goes to higher side!!

    Anyways , finally your pressure might be eased off  now , at least for the time being.

    Till now you must have read so much on Do’s & don’ts before exams. But I would like share some post exam do & don’t s –

    1. Just take 2-3 days break. Go home, party around, see movies. Just be away from studies environment.

    2. Do not extend this break beyond this. Get back to your business immediately after break. You need to understand that it is only first stage of exam , two more stages are yet to come. So, there is not much liberty to extend break.

    3. I strongly believe that real competitive edge lies in the period between exam & result. This is the most crucial time. After exam everybody studies a lot. If you want to take lead over others , stop worrying about result and finish major portion so that after result you could revise no of times.

    4. Don’t waste time in tallying your answer sheets again & again. See 2-3 authentic sources and take average.

    That night-mares of those silly mistakes will continue to haunt you but you have to ignore them and continue to focus on preparation.

    5. Start preparing irrespective of your score. Just tell me “ If you don’t get through prelims  then will you stop preparing and drop your childhood dream & switch over to other options ?”
    If “No” , then what you are waiting for ? You are serious aspirant. Stop diversions. Continue preparing seriously.

    6. Be careful about propagandists. Such people spread rumors , they boast of getting very high scores. But once result comes out they are the one who are out and then they start cursing ,abusing UPSC.

    7. I have often said that key to success especially in IAS is “Revisions & Writing practice “. Writing practice does not means – sitting in library and making notes from 10 books. Rather, it is solving previous years’ questions , getting evaluated by your concerned teacher, working on the feedback  and again writing to remove shortfalls.

    Good luck!

  • UPSC CSE Prelims 2015 – Polity Solutions

    1. Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
      1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
      2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

    Which of the statements given below are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 & 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

    1. Consider the following statements :
      1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
      2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
      3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Article 112 President causes the Annual Financial Statement to be put before both the Houses of the Parliament so it means Rajya Sabha can discuss it. Voting on Demands for Grants is prerogative of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill.

     

    1. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by

    (a) a simple majority of member present and voting
    (b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting
    (c) two-thirds majority of the House
    (d) absolute majority of the House

     

    1. Consider the following statements:
      1. The Executive Power of the union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
      2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Executive power of the Union Vested in the President. And the Chairman of Civil Services Board is the Cabinet Sec.

     

    1. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

    (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

    (b) determine the boundaries between states

    (c) determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities
    of Panchayats

    (d) protect the interests of all the border States

     

    1. With reference to the Union Government consider the following
      statements.

      1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation
        of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
      2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India
        without the authorization of Parliament of India.
      3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization from the Parliament of India

    Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 2 only

    (d) 1, 2, and 3

    Department of Economic Affairs prepares the Budget.

    Provident Fund deposits, savings bank deposits, remittances etc are credited to the Public Account and this account is operated by the executive action i.e. payment from this account can be made without Parliamentary appropriation.

     

    1. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?

    (a) The President of India

    (b) The Prime Minister of India

    (c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat

    (d) The Supreme Court of India

    A confusion of sorts seems to been created due to the following article. But all said and done, the Custodian of the Constitution is the Supreme Court.

    http://www.hindustantimes.com/chandigarh/to-work-as-custodian-of-constitution-pranab/article1-889619.aspx

    Any other explanation?

     

    1. Consider the following statements:
      1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
      2. The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Maximum size of the Council can be 1/3rd of the size of the Assembly. Chairman is chosen from amongst themselves by the members

     

    1. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

    (a) Preamble of the Constitute

    (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

    (c) Fundamental Rights

    (d) Fundamental Duties

    Article 51A(c)

     

    1. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
      1. People’s participation in development
      2. Political accountability
      3. Democratic decentralization
      4. Financial mobilization

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

    (b) 2 and 4 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    This one is open to debate. But the most appropriate seems to be option (c)

     

    1. The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

    (a) Preamble

    (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

    (c) Fundamental Rights

    (d) Seventh Schedule

     

    1. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

    (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

    (b) Parliament can amend the constitution

    (c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

    (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

    Collective Responsibility of the Ministers to the Parliament in general and Lok Sabha in particular is the bedrock principle of the Parliamentary system. (Article 75)

  • UPSC CSE Prelims 2015 – Geography Solutions

    1. In the South Atlantic and South Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?

    (a) Sea Surface temperature are low
    (b) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
    (c) Coriolis force is too weak
    (d) Absence of land in those regions

     

    1. Which of the following pairs of States of India indicates the eastern most and Western most State?

    (a) Assam and Rajasthan
    (b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
    (c) Assam and Gujarat
    (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

     

    1. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

    (a) Bhitarkanika National Park

    (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park

    (c) Keoladeo Ghana National park

    (d) Sultanpur National park

     

    1. What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?
      1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
      2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place
      3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1,2 and 3

     

    1. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?

    (a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis
    (b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents
    (c) Difference in salinity of water
    (d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near equator

     

    1. Consider the following pairs:

    Place of Pilgrimage  Location

    1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
    2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
    3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1,2 and 3

     

    1. The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to

    a) Central Asia
    b) Middle East
    c) South-East Asia
    d) Central Africa

     

    1. Consider the following rivers :
      1. Vamsadhara
      2. Indravati
      3. Pranahita
      4. Pennar

    Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

    (a) 1,2 and 3
    (b) 2,3 and 4
    (c) 1,2 and 4
    (d) 2 and 3 only

     

    1. Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

    (a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
    (b) South-West Bengal
    (c) Southern Saurashtra
    (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

     

    1.  Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?

    (a) Khangchendzonga National park
    (b) Nandadevi National Park
    (c) Neora Valley National Park
    (d) Namdapha National park

     

    1. Consider the following statements
      1. The winds which blow between 30o N and 60o S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
      2. The moist air masses that cause winter rams in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.
      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) Both 1 and 2
      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Exp: Here I have serious doubt that examiner wanted 30N and 60N latitudes but it got misprinted as 30N and 60S covering the entire regions which has trade winds as well as westerlies making first statement incorrect.

    That way only statement 2 should be correct? Any other explanation?

     

    1. Tides occur in oceans and seas due to which among the following?
      1. Gravitational Force of the Sun
      2. Gravitational Force of the Moon
      3. Gravitational Force of the Earth

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2, and 3

     

    1. In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
      1. Assessment of crop productivity
      2. Locating ground water resources
      3. Mineral exploration
      4. Telecommunications
      5. Traffic studies

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

    (b) 4 and 5 only

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

     

    1. Consider the following States:
      1. Arunachal Pradesh
      2. Himachal Pradesh
      3. Mizoram

    In which of the following states do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

    1. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

    (a) Syria

    (b) Jordan

    (c) Lebanon

    (d) Israel

     

    1. In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?

    (a) Tropical moist deciduous forest

    (b) Tropical rain forest

    (c) Tropical thorn scrub forest

    (d) Temperate forest with grasslands

     

    1. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, than rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over.”

    Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

    (a) Savannah

    (b) Equatorial

    (c) Monsoon

    (d) Mediterranean

     

  • UPSC CSE Prelims 2015 – E&B Solutions

    1. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
      1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments
      2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
      3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

    Select the correct using the code given below.
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    IUCN has an observer status at the United Nations. Elimination 1 we get option (b) as answer.

    IUCN is the only international observer organization in the UN General Assembly with expertise in issues concerning the environment, specifically biodiversity, nature conservation and sustainable natural resource use.

     

    1. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
      1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
      2. It is found along the entire coast of India
      3. It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3
    (d) 3 only

    Ref: http://bit.ly/1Rr6sgH

    The article says they feed on seagrass and has been brought under Schedule 1. Only option with both statement 1 and 3 is (c).

     

    1. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?

    (a) Saltwater crocodile

    (b) Olive ridley turtle

    (c) Gangetic dolphin

    (d) Gharial

    Ref: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/river-dolphin-is-indias-national-aquatic-animal/article29391.ece

     

    1. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?

    (a) Bretton Woods Conference
    (b) Montreal Protocol
    (c) Kyoto Protocol
    (d) Nagoya Protocol

    Ref: http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-others/india-embraces-hfc-phase-out-under-montreal-protocol/

     

    1. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?

    (a) It is the United nations Conference on Sustainable Development
    (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
    (c) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change
    (d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity

    “Rio+20” is the short name for the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development which took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 2012 – twenty years after the landmark 1992 Earth Summit in Rio.

     

    1. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
      1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
      2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank
        Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCCC founded as a mechanism to redistribute money from the developed to the developing world, in order to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. The GCF is based in the new Songdo district of Incheon, South Korea.

     

    1. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the

    (a) Asian Development Bank
    (b) International Monetary Fund
    (c) United Nations Environment Programme
    (d) World Bank

    The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gases from land sector, deforestation and forest degradation in development countries(REDD+) and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices. It is a new multilateral facility, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank.

     

    1. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

    (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
    (b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
    (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
    (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

    The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of Environment and Forests under ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

     

    1. In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living tree into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘Living Root Bridges’ are found in

    (a) Meghalaya

    (b) Himachal Pradesh

    (c )Jharkhand

    (d) Tamil Nadu

    The living root bridges of Cherrapunji, Laitkynsew, and Nongriat in Meghalayais a form of tree shaping, which creates these suspension bridges. The useful lifespan of the bridges, once complete, is thought to be 500–600 years. They are naturally self-renewing and self-strengthening as the component roots grow thicker.

     

    1. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
      1. It is global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples
      2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management
      3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ref: https://www.forestcarbonpartnership.org/about-fcpf-0

     

    1. With reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
      1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
      2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
      3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term “biodiversity hotspot” in 1988 as a biogeographic region characterized both by exceptional levels of plant endemism and by serious levels of habitat loss.

    BirdLife’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) Programme aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for the conservation of the world’s birds and other wildlife.

     

    1. Which one of the following is the best description of the term “ecosystem”?

    (a) A community of organisms interacting with one another

    (b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms

    (c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live.

    (d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area.

    The term ‘Ecosystem’ was first used by A G Tansley in 1935 who defined ecosystem as ‘a particular category of physical systems, consisting of organisms and inorganic components in a relatively stable equilibrium, open and of various sizes and kinds’.

    Thus ecosystem includes both the organisms as well the their environment.

     

  • Escaped the bloodbath, did you?

    Hello guys,

    Before we have the mentors take the centre stage and shower the solutions all over the place, we open the floor for the junta-janardan.

    There are 2 possible mental stages for the onwards journey. Pick one & enjoy the rants!

     

     

     

     

  • How I prepared for the GS Paper III – Economy

    The ONLY book I’ve read for Economy part in GS Paper III is the Macroeconomics – NCERT.

    Many people have been asking me about how to prepare for Economics. So, here it goes.

    For the GS Paper III, you don’t need to be an economist to answer the questions that are being asked. You need to be a generalist.

    The ONLY book I’ve read for Economy part in GS Paper III is the Macroeconomics – NCERT. It helped me in getting the basics right. After that I DID NOT refer to any other book at all. I feel that Economy is all about understanding the meanings of various terms correctly. Once you understand what a term really means, the logic that goes around that term isn’t very difficult to understand. So for this purpose I’ve maintained a table of 2 columns, in my notes, consisting of various terms in one column and their definitions + relevant contemporary examples in the other column.

    To get the list of different terms I did 2 things, but before I mention that I based my preparation on one basic assumption. That is, UPSC will not ask for an Economics concept which has not been in news/Union Budget/Economic Survey. I believed that it is rational for me to think that there is no reason why UPSC would ask a question on a topic which doesn’t fit into this criteria. Being an ardent follower of newspapers, I believed that I wouldn’t miss any important topic or issue that comes up in the newspapers. So with this as my base, I did the following 2 things:

    Whenever I see any new Economics related term in newspapers that I don’t know, I would first go and study the definition and try to understand the concept in the context of the newspaper article. This made it easy for me to remember the concept. For example, I read about “Sovereign Debt Crisis” in the context of Greek crisis. It serves me 2 purposes – understanding the concept well and also remembering that concept well because I have the context of some contemporary issue around that concept.

    Went through Economic Survey and Union Budget, not to get a hold of the numbers scattered in there, but to identify different terms (like ‘tax expenditure’) and then know their meanings (by looking it up in the internet). This year’s economic survey is quite good – especially the First Volume. Several concepts were well explained there and I strongly recommend the aspirants to go through it, from the mains point of view.

    Apart from this, I’ve also read the Fourteenth Finance Commission Report and I’ve written an analysis on it earlier. In summary, the sources that I had followed:

    1. Macroeconomics – NCERT
    2. Newspapers
    3. Economic Survey and Budget for identification of different terms

    NO OTHER SOURCE WHATSOEVER!!

  • 15 Commandments – Final tips for the D Day!

    Dear All,

    By now, you must have been through with your readings and revisions. Now it is time to relax and allow your mind to calm down so it can function optimally on the D-Day. A fatigued mind is the last thing you would want on Sunday.

    After the humdrum, here are some last minute tips which can help you sail through the first hurdle:

    1. Reach the venue well before the scheduled time so you do not enter the examination hall panting. It not only affects your performance, it disturbs others as well.
    2. Enter the Roll Number, Series Code etc. carefully on the OMR sheet. You cannot erase it as it is to be marked with a black ball point pen.
    3. The first page of the question booklet contains the instructions to the candidates and is seldom read by them assuming it to a copy-paste from the previous years. READ IT. You never know when UPSC may add/delete/alter an instruction.
    4. Do count the number of pages as indicated. Never takes more then 30 seconds.
    5. Read the questions carefully.
    6. Read all the answer choices before you zero in on the one you wish to mark as your response on the OMR sheet. Remember UPSC clearly mentions that in case you feel there are more then one correct alternative, mark the ‘most appropriate’ one as your answer i.e. Option (a) may appear to be correct but Option (d) may be the most appropriate. So read all of them before you mark your response.
    7. There are a good number of questions wherein several statements are given and you are asked to choose the correct/incorrect ones.

      • First of all be sure whether you are being asked to choose the statements which are ‘correct’ or ‘not correct’. Thereafter check the statements which you know to be definitely correct or definitely incorrect. Use it to zero in on the answer. Knowing the definitely incorrect statements is as good as knowing the definitely correct ones.

    8. Use elimination method judiciously.
    9. DO NOT indulge in indiscriminate guess work.
    10. Mark the responses carefully in the answer sheet as there is no/little scope of altering it.
    11. Coming to Paper II, even though it has been made qualifying, do attempt all the questions you can.
    12. Most importantly, do not worry about the cut-offs in the examination hall. Focus on the paper. Cut off can be discussed in the evening, even though it is fruitless.
    13. After Paper I, maintain a safe distance from those claiming to have attempted 80, 90 or even 100 in some cases. By evening they will come down to 60 and 40, the next morning when they regain their senses.
    14. Keep the OMR sheet tidy.
    15. Do not forget to carry your roll number and black ball point pens.

    Best of Luck!

  • Why did I choose Mathematics as my optional?

     

    I have been asked this question many times and some people keep asking me which optional is better and why. In this post I’ll try to address these issues.

    To begin with, I strongly believe that UPSC is extremely fair and free from any bias. Every year you’ll find people getting selected from every optional and also getting rejected from every optional. So I conclude that the selections from all the optionals are fair. The given set of optionals had remained pretty much the same and their syllabus had also remained pretty much the same, after evolving over several years (decades may be?). So they must have brought the difficulty level of all the optionals to the same level. I thus conclude that every optional is equally easy/difficult.

    When I had to choose my optional, I wanted to take my graduation subject which is Computer Science and Engineering. But that is not there is the UPSC list of optional subjects. So, I wanted to choose Mathematics as my optional. But then, many people have told me that it is a difficult optional, the syllabus is huge and that the selections are few. I then looked in the internet and found that many people were able to clear the exam with top ranks consistently (AIR 1 – Mutyalaraju and AIR-2 Prakash Rajpurohit). So I have no reason to believe them. And also, I am not familiar with the so called ‘traditional’ optionals like Geography, Public Administration, Sociology etc. as I have never studied them before.

    I had a choice – either take Mathematics based on my own judgement or take one of the traditional optionals based on someone else’s judgement who knows very little/nothing about me. It seemed logical to me to go with the former.

    That’s how I chose Mathematics as my optional. I recommend all the aspirants to choose their optional based on their interest and not on the irrational talk that is in the air from the smoke emitted by the coaching wallahs.

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