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  • Coastal Zones Management and Regulations

    Shailesh Nayak Committee has recently relaxed norms under coastal regulation zones. It has proposed for allowing housing infrastructure and slum redevelopment activities, tourism, ports and harbor and fisheries-related activities in coastal regulation zone.

    source

    CRZs have been in news at times. Objections have been raised various times to broad the scope of activities that are permitted at these places.

    India has a long coastal line which makes these areas important for the country. Let’s understand this thing in a better way:

    • What are CRZs?
    • Classification of CRZ in India
    • What are the activities permitted and prohibited in these areas?
    • Why are CRZs important for India?
    • Objectives of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2011
    • Achievements of CRZ rules, 2011
    • Drawbacks of CRZ rules, 2011
    • Shailesh Nayak committee on review of coastal regulation zone notification
    • Analysis of new recommendations

    What are CRZs?

    • Coastal Regulation Zones (CRZ) are classified as the region between the outer limits of territorial waters (12 nautical miles) and a specified inward distance (inland) from the high tide line along coasts.
    • These zones are recognised as fragile ecosystems and as such are accorded protection against unregulated human activities such as construction, sand mining etc.
    • As per the notification, the coastal land up to 500m from the High Tide Line (HTL) and a stage of 100m along banks of creeks, estuaries, backwater and rivers subject to tidal fluctuations, is called the Coastal Regulation Zone(CRZ).

    Classification of CRZ in India

    For regulation of developmental activities, the coastal stretches within 500m of HTL on the landward side are classified into four categories, viz.

    • Category I (CRZ-I)
    • Category II (CRZ – II)
    • Category III (CRZ-III)
    • Category IV (CRZ-IV)

    Category I (CRZ -I):

    a) Areas that are ecologically sensitive and important, such as national parks/marine parks, sanctuaries, reserve forests, wild habitats, mangroves, corals/coral reefs, areas likely to be inundated due to rise in sea level consequent upon global warming and such areas as may be declared by the authorities.

    b) Areas between the Low Tide Line and High Tide Line

    Category II (CRZ -II):

    The area that have already been developed up to or the shoreline.

    Category III (CRZ -III):

    Areas that are relatively undisturbed and those which do not belong to either Category I or II. These include coastal zone in the areas (developed and undeveloped) and also areas within Municipal limits or in other legally designated urban areas which are not substantially built up.

    Category IV (CRZ-IV):

    Coastal stretches in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep and small islands, except those designated as CRZ I, CRZ II and CRZ III.

    What are the activities permitted and prohibited in these areas?

    CRZ I: Regulations

    No new constructions shall be permitted within 500m of the HTL.
    CRZ II: Regulations

    • Buildings shall be permitted neither on the seaward side of the existing road or on the seaward side of the existing and proposed road
    • Reconstruction of the authorized building to be permitted subject to the existing FSI/FAR norms and without change in the existing use
    • The design and construction of buildings shall be consistent with the surrounding landscape and architectural style 

    CRZ III: Regulations

    • The area up to 200m from the HTL is be earmarked as ‘No Development Zone’.
    • No construction shall be permitted in this zone except for repairs of existing authorized structures not exceeding existing FSI, existing plinth area and existing density.
    • However, the following uses may be permissible in this zone-agriculture, horticulture, gardens, pastures, parks, play fields, forestry and salt manufacture from sea water.

    Why are CRZs important for India?

    • India has a long coastline of 7516 km, ranging from Gujarat to West Bengal, and two island archipelagos (Andaman Island and Lakshadweep).
    • Our coastal ecosystems provide protection from natural disasters such as floods and tsunamis.
    • Coastal waters provide a source of primary livelihood to 7 million households.
    • Our marine ecosystems are a treasure trove of biodiversity, which we are only beginning to discover and catalogue.
    • Thus, our coastline is both a precious natural resource and an important economic asset, and we need a robust progressive framework to regulate our coast.

    Objectives of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2011

    The main objectives of the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2011 were:

    • To ensure livelihood security to the fishing communities and other local communities living in the coastal areas;
    • To conserve and protect coastal stretches and;
    • To promote development in a sustainable manner based on scientific principles, taking into account the dangers of natural hazards in the coastal areas and sea level rise due to global warming.

    Achievements of CRZ rules, 2011

    • It widens the definition of CRZ to include the land area from HTL to 500 m on the landward side, as well as the land area between HTL to 100 m or width of the creek, whichever is less, on the landward side along tidal influenced water bodies connected to the sea.
    • The concept of a ‘hazard line’ has been introduced.
    • Clearances for obtaining CRZ approval have been made time-bound. Further, for the first time, post-clearance monitoring of projects has been introduced
    • Introduction of the Coastal Zone Management Plans, which will regulate coastal development activity and which are to be formulated by the State Governments or the administration of Union Territories.
    • The 2011 Notification also lists out certain measures that have to be taken to prevent pollution in the coastal areas/coastal waters.

    Drawbacks of CRZ rules, 2011

    • Although the no-development zone of 200 metres from the HTL is reduced to 100 metres, the pro­vision has been made applicable to “traditional coastal communities, including fisher-folk”, thereby giving the chance for increased construction on the coast and higher pressure on coastal resources
    • Disallowing Special Economic Zone(“SEZ”) projects in the CRZ
    • There are no restrictions for expansion of housing for rural communities in CRZ III

    Shailesh Nayak committee on review of coastal regulation zone notification

    The main recommendations of this new committee are:

    • Need to demarcate precisely: There exists ambiguities in key baseline data, including the demarcation of high and low tide lines and the coastal zone boundary, which has affected the preparation of Coastal Zone Management Plans.
    • Shift in Governance: Transferring control of development in the CRZ-II zone, the existing built-up area close to the shoreline, from the Environment Department to State Town Planning authorities, as proposed, would mark a radical shift in governance.
    • Construction Activities: Proposed lightly regulated tourism in “no development zones”. Construction and other activities could be taken up in CRZ-III zones just 50 m from the high tide line in densely populated rural areas under State norms (with the responsibility to rescue and rehabilitate during natural calamities left to local authorities) could be based on an over-estimation of the capacity in such bodies.
    • Pollution Control: The plan should be to identify specific areas for such activity, assess its environmental impact, demarcate the area under the State’s management plans, and fix responsibility for enforcement, particularly for pollution control.
    • Make it participatory: Involving the local communities in the betterment of these areas has yet not been achieved and incorporating a community-based approach should be made a priority.

    Analysis of new recommendations

    The recommendation by committee has tried to establish a balance between development and coastal conservation. However there are certain areas of concern-

    • The demarcation of high tide and low tide lines and coastal zone boundary affected the coastal zone management plans which are crucial for CRZ.
    • The transfer of developmental control of CRZ 2 from environmental department to town planning committee encourages local participation but it may disturb the whole system of governance.
    • Construction and other activities in CRZ 3 which is in the densely populated zone will hazards human settlement.
    • The proposed lightly tourism activity in the “No development zone” would suffocate further biodiversity conservation.

    Way ahead

    The new recommendations have tried to address issues such as time-bound clearances, enforcement measures, special provisions for specific coastal stretches etc. There is a significant change in the new notification but there is always need for further improvement.

  • Approaching CD mocks in a different way

    UW has been conducting prelims mini mocks for a while now. Users have been posting their answers (some their thought process also) and every Sunday UW comes out with solutions and explanation. User response has been great and we hope, you learned a lot not only about the topics and your weak areas but the art of answering questions.

    I had explained in an earlier blog – how to approach prelims 2016- that keeping an open mind, reading all options and using logic is very important in this examination. We have now started a series starting with polity in which we are proving solutions of last 7 years in a way one would approach the questions in exam and also the learning objectives.

    Now that UW has already framed for you such wonderful 99 questions (1 question bahut waahiyat tham sorry UR), I thought of solving a few with our approach.

    Let’s look at them

    Mock 4

    1. Consider the following statements:

    1. Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) is a not-for-profit Public Sector Enterprise.
    2. It has been set up by the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research as an interface agency to empower emerging biotech enterprises.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    • Most of us wouldn’t know if statement 2 is right or not but we would tend to think it’s correct as it seems correct but the art of intelligent informed guessing is that you think of alternative plausible explanations and if that’s rules out, you mark seemingly correct statement as right.
    • So if not by deptt of Scientific and Industrial research by whom? It’s biotech so what about deptt of biotech? Seems plausible. Does this deptt exist? Yess. Under the same ministry.  

    And with this you get +2 instead of -0.67

    2. Consider the following statements on Global Positioning System (GPS):

    1. GPS allows accurate time-stamping on ATM transactions.
    2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring signals worldwide.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d)  Neither 1 nor 2

    So people were confused if statement 1 was correct. GPS tells about time and position. everyone knows it. So it can tell about time in atm transactions. It has to be correct.

    3. Which of the following is/are among the ‘micro-elements’ required for plant growth?

    1. Copper
    2. Zinc
    3. Potassium
    4. Sulphur
    5. Manganese

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1, 2 and 5

    (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

    (c) 1, 3 and 4

    (d) 1, 2, 3,  4 and 5

    I don’t like such questions. MIcro/Macro/trace as different books mention different things. But still, you can easily understand examiner’s mind. You know N, P, K are major elements i.e micro. Remove Potassium, you reach the answer

    4. Consider the following statements?

    1. Vitamins assist the body in utilizing the nutrients.
    2. Vitamins help in transporting the minerals to required places.
    3. No vitamin can be synthesized in the body.

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Statement 3, too sweeping. Pause and think. Are you sure it’s correct. Vitamin D synthesized in the body in the presence of sunlight. Vit K, B12 by bacteria.

    5. Consider the following statements:

    1. Neutrinos are massless particles filling up most of the empty space.
    2. They are easy to detect as they can be deflected even by weak forces like gravity.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    If it was so easy to detect them, why would anyone get nobel prize for discovering it.

    Mock 3

    6. Which of the region/grouping of countries has the highest share in overall remittances to India?

    (a) EU

    (b) North America

    (c) GCC

    (d) East Asia

    You would have to make a guess. Gulf right. GCC. The whole economy of Kerala is dependent on GCC.

    7. Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian political system:

    1. The Cabinet is responsible to the Lok Sabha only.
    2. The President is the Head of the State.
    3. Every state has equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Only too sweeping. Pause and think. It’s true. Cabinet/CoM is responsible to LS only not parliament. So don’t mark without thinking.

    8. Which one of the following statements is/are not correct?

    1. Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is released on a monthly basis only.
    2. IIP is released by the Central Statistics Office.
    3. Electricity has highest weightage among the indicators used to calculate IIP.

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 3 only

    (b) 1 and 3 only

    (c) 2 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    1st statement only. Too sweeping. Pause and think. Obviously statistics would be released monthly/ weekly/ fortnightly/quarterly/ annually. Monthly it’s true.

    9. Which of the following departments is/are engaged in the protection of intellectual property rights in India?

    1.  Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
    2. Department of Higher Education
    3. Department of Information Technology
    4. Department of Agriculture and Cooperation

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

    (c) 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    IPRs are too broad. Associated with education, industry, agriculture, It, space etc. So all these ministries, deptt would be included.

    Mock 2

    10. Assertion (A) : The Rig Veda does not mention any officer for administering justice.

    Reason (R) : The Rig Vedic society was free of any unsocial activity.

    R is too sweeping. Free of any anti social activities. Pause and think, this can not be true. Cummon every society would have evil.

    11. Which one of the following temple was built in a different architectural design compared to the other three?

    (a) Kandarya Mahadeo Temple, Khajuraho

    (b) Kailasanatha Temple, Kanchipuram

    (c) Sun Temple, Konark

    (d) Jagannatha Temple, Puri

    Kanchipuram in south, other three in East – central India

    12. Consider the following statements:

    1. Arches and domes, which were Turkish inventions, were used by them on a wide scale in their buildings in India.
    2. The arches were decorated with human or animal figures and scrolls of flowers.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c)  Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Human, animal figures haram in Islam. Remember ISIS destroying idols, ancient mausoleums.

    13. Which of the following statements about the Charter Act of 1833 is/are correct?

    1. The trading activities of East India Company were to be abolished.
    2. A law member was to be appointed to the Governor-General’s Council.
    3. All law-making power was vested in the law member appointed to the Council.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • All law making power vested in law member. Isn’t it too sweeping? Pause and think. Who would vest all law making power in Law member? Obviously Governor general would keep at least some power. Right. So statement wrong.
    • Infact, 1833 was culmination of centralizing tendency where all law making power was vested in governor general. Governor general of Bengal became, Governor General of India.

    14. Narmada River does not have many tributaries primarily because

    1. It flows through the region of scanty rainfall.
    2. The hard rock surface and non-alluvial nature of the peninsular plateau permits little scope for the development of tributaries.
    3. It flows through a narrow valley confined by precipitous hills.

    Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • Statement 2 is BS. Aise to there won’t be any tributaries below great plains of India i,e in south.
    • Statement 1 is also BS. If Narmada is flowing through a region of scanty rainfall, why can’t other rivers. And if they can. There can also be tributary.
    • You know Narmaad and Tapi flow through rift valley. That’s why drain into Arabian ocean despite slope.

    15. Which of the following regions is conspicuous for the absence of many active volcanoes in comparison to other regions?

    (a) Indonesian Archipelagos

    (b) Western Coast of North America

    (c) Brazilian Coast

    (d) Chilean Coast

    Brazilian coast in on Atlantic. Other 3 on pacific. Easy Peasy. Need not know anything else. Cummn it was the easiest question.

    16. “Trees are adapted to withstand the dry summer without shedding of leaves.  Plants have spiny, waxy or small leaves to reduce transpiration. Trees have deep roots to tap water from depths. Thick bark also prevent loss of moisture.”

    Which of the following types of forests have been described above?

    (a) Tropical Deciduous forests

    (b) Mediterranean forests

    (c) Tropical Evergreen forests

    (d) Mid-latitude Evergreen forests

    Deciduous forest shed leaves. No dry summer in tropical evergreen. What about mid latitude evergreen? I have forgotten whether coniferous or broad leaf. But did i not mention in titbits only Mediterranean has Dry summer and warm winter!

    17. Consider the following statements about the Census 2011:

    1. The density of population increased in all states and union territories except Arunachal Pradesh.
    2. Male-Female gap in literacy rate has been lowest in the last five decades.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2 only

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Statement 1. Think why would population density decline in Arunachal. I can’t think of any reason. Already so lowly populated. It should only increase.

    18. Consider the following statements:

    1. Winter rainfall over the plain areas of north-west India is caused by western disturbances.
    2. The rainfall caused by western disturbances increases from north and north-west to the east.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2  only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Western disturbances means coming from west. Will lose moisture as they move east so obviously rainfall would decline.

    19. The winter rainfall over the plain areas of the north western region of India is largely due to

    (a) South-west monsoon

    (b) North-east monsoon

    (c) Western disturbances

    (d) Convection currents

    Internal repeat. See last question

    20. Consider the following statements:

    1. Isotherms are more regular and widely spaced in Northern hemisphere compared to the Southern Hemisphere.
    2. Isotherms bend slightly while crossing from land masses to oceans.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2  only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    If landmass is more regular everything would be regular. In north, land ocean land ocean. In south vast expanse of ocean so more regular distribution

    21. Waves in the open seas are largely caused by

    (a) gravitational pull of the sun

    (b) gravitational pull of the moon

    (c) undulating surface of the oceans

    (d) wind blowing over the sea surface

    If it’s due to sun, it would also be due to the moon. But both can’t be correct simultaneously. Only plausible explanation left is wind

    22. The large difference in rainfall received at Mahabaleshwar and Pune, which are only a few kilometres away, is largely because

    (a) Pune has dry air conditions all the year round

    (b) Mahabaleshwar is situated at a higher altitude than Pune

    (c) Pune is situated in a rain shadow region

    (d) None of the options (a), (b) or (c) sufficiently explains the phenomenon

    • Statement 2 is BS. rainfall does not depend on altitude directly.
    • No rainfall hence dry condition, dry condition hence no rainfall??

    Now the one Wahiyaat question

    1. Consider the following statements:

    1. Rural Employment Generation Programme was launched during 1985-86 to provide self-employment  opportunities in rural areas.

    2. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched during 1995-96 to bring assisted poor families above the poverty line.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Don’t worry if you get it wrong even if it’s asked in exam. Nobody can and even if one can should remember launch years of 20 years old schemes.

    • But let’s consider statement 2 – Swarnjayanti i.e golden jubilee i.e 50 years so it should be either 1997 or 2000 but it was actually 1st April 1999
    • 1st statement, 86-87 was the time of Rajiv Gandhi. He was a tech guy, why would he launch such schemes?

    Not a convincing explanation I know. But hey, Question hi wahiyaat tha

    Disclaimer – As I have said umpteen times, there’s no substitute for hard work and smart work. This is just to supplement your hard work so that you reap maximum reward out of your sweat and blood.

    Let us know, how many of you would have been able to increase your score by at least +5. And you know the importance of +5, there would be at least 5000 candidates b/w 102.34 and 107.34 last year.

    For Prelims mocks login here 

  • UPSC Prelims Polity Trend Analysis: Part 2

    IAS Prelims 2014

    Q1. Consider the following statements:

    1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
    2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Ain’t statement 2, executive action in the name of PM / president same as power vesting in president/ pm <question prelims 2015>
    • Statement 1 is obviously correct as all actions are taken in the name of president and he would obviously do it on the recommendations of PM.

    Learning – Powers of president esp discretionary powers, Veto

    1. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
    1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
    2. Appointing the Ministers
    3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
    4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only.
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only.
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Statement 2 is obviously incorrect as appointment of ministers has to be on the advice of CM. Eliminate statement 2, it’s the only option left

    Learning – Discretionary powers of governor vis a vis president, Appointment and removal of governor

    1. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
    1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
    2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Statement 2 is obviously correct as we discussed above CoM is collectively responsible to LS only.
    • Statement is factual, must know this <even zero hour has no mention in the constitution > <we discussed all such things in prelims titbits>

    Learning – If you have to remember 3 motions they would be – No confidence motion, Adjournment motion, calling attention motion

    1. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
    1. The Committee on Public Accounts
    2. The Committee on Estimates
    3. The Committee on Public Undertakings
    4. The Committee on Petitions

    Has been asked n number of times, 30 members in CoE, all from LS

    Learning – Classification of committee, election v/s nomination is imp. 3 must remember  committees are CoE, PAC, CoPU

    1. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
    1. Second Schedule
    2. Fifth Schedule
    3. Eighth Schedule
    4. Tenth Schedule

    Again schedules (repeat), 10th schedule anti defection law, 52nd and 91st amendment

    Learning – All the schedules esp. 5th v/s 6th, 9th and 10th, 11th and 12th, amendment of schedules, Read up provisions of anti – defection law

    1. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
    1. advisory jurisdiction
    2. appellate jurisdiction.
    3. original jurisdiction  
    4. writ jurisdiction

    Common sense – No advice is sought, can’t be advisory, Federal disputes can’t be filed in other courts so can’t be appellate, has to be original, writ is for enforcement of writs

    Learning – Advisory jurisdiction (Art 143), Writ of high court v/s supreme court

    1. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
    1. the President of India
    2. the Parliament
    3. the Chief Justice of India
    4. The Law Commission
    • Slightly difficult question. Option 4 the law commission and option 3 the chief justice can be easily eliminated. It has to be the role of legislature or executive.
    • Number of judges in supreme court is written in the constitution and only parliament can increase it and this is not considered amendment to the constitution.

    Learning – Appointment of judges (process), Qualification of judges of supreme court and high court, Measures to secure independence of judiciary

    1. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?
    1. The Finance Commission
    2. The National Development Council
    3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
    4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
    5. The Parliament

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 5 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Finance commission is concerned with distribution of taxes not planning. Eliminate it, only option left

    Learning – Niti Ayog, Governance structure, FC role, qualification of members

    1. Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
    1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
    2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
    3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    Statement 3 is clearly incorrect. It’s the function of finance ministry. Other 2 options seem correct, are logically correct, in fact correct

    Learning – Functions of Cabinet secretariat, Role of Cabinet secretary (question asked in 2015, chairman of civil services board), Functions and evolution of Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)

    1.  In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
    1. Preamble to the Constitution
    2. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
    3. Fundamental Duties
    4. Ninth Schedule

    Repeat questions, has to be directive to the state. Can’t be duty of citizens

    Learning – Memorize by Heart FDs, DPSPs, FRs and Preamble

    11.Consider the following statements : A Constitutional Government is one which

    1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
    2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

    Constitution places restriction on the authority of state so that it does not become autocratic <that’s why FRs n all>. Rights are actually given to citizens.

    Learning – Meaning of terms mentioned in the preamble, Republic, Democratic, Secularism, Social Justice, Fraternity etc.

    • Bottom line – Many repeats, no surprises
    • 9/11 absolute joke
    • 1 question parliament to increase number of judges moderate, 1 no confidence motion not mentioned in the constitution moderately difficult

  • Forest Conservation Efforts – NFP, Western Ghats, etc.

    Also Read: Evolution of Forest Rights in India from 1856 to 2006 | In Depth Analysis of FRA & Its Issues

    The environment ministry came out with a draft National Forest Policy (NFP). The policy has been prepared by the Bhopal-based Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM) and is aimed at facilitating ecologically responsible behaviour among stakeholders.

    source

    The proposed NFP is going to be third such document after India’s independence with first in 1952 followed by the second in 1988.

    Why is there a need for Forest Policy?

    • Forests and trees constitute nearly one fourth of the geographic area of the country.
    • Protection of this vast and valuable resource, improving and increasing the forest and tree cover requires adequate investment keeping in view the pressures on these forests, and the ecosystem services that they provide to the nation.
    • Large tracts of forest area in the country have degraded due to immense biotic pressure and lack of adequate investment.
    • The crux of the problem in India’s existing forest policy — the Forest Policy of 1988 — has been that it made the forest department the manager of the forests and the people lost their rights over it.
    • But as the Uttarakhand forest fires showed recently, a few hundred forest officials and a few thousand employees of the department can do nothing when a calamity strikes. They need community support in such emergencies.

    Key highlights

    • Less forest on hilly areas: Although the policy continues with the national goal of maintaining a minimum of one-third of the geographical area under forest or tree cover, Hills and mountainous regions may not be required to maintain two-thirds of the geographical area under forest cover.
    • Board to monitor management of forests: The policy states that a National Board of Forestry and State Boards of Forestry are to be established to ensure monitoring of the spread of the forest areas and management of forest cover.
    • Technology to minimize damage to forests: The policy states that forest land diversion projects related to mining, quarrying, construction of dams, roads and other linear infrastructure need to adopt special caution. Use of state-of-the-art technology which causes minimum pollution and damage should be promoted.
    • Green tax on citizens: The draft National Forest Policy (NFP) proposes the levy of a green tax for facilitating ecologically responsible behaviour and supplementing financial resources essential to address forestry woes.
    • Undermines FRA 2006: NFP ignores Forests Rights Act, 2006, which empowers local gram panchayats, especially in tribal areas close to India’s forests, and proposes a joint forest management-like mechanism to enhance agro-forestry.
    • New Mission: The policy proposes to launch a new Community Forest Management Mission, bringing government, community and private land under the new proposed management system.
    • Provisions for responsible tourism: It calls for developing “sound ecotourism models” with the focus on conservation while supplementing the livelihood needs of local communities.
    • Climate change to emerge as important factor in policy: It states that Climate change concerns should be effectively factored into all the forest and wildlife areas management plans and community ecosystem management plans.
    • Purchase of wildlife corridors: The draft policy indicates that CAMPA funds from diversion of forest land by industry are to be used for purchasing wildlife corridors from people.
    • Maintaining Urban forest: The policy also asks for management plans for city forests, parks, garden and woodlands to nurture and sustain urban health, clean air and related benefits.
    • Supports the Government Vermin Policy: In a nod to the Union government’s controversial decision to declare certain animals as “vermin” and implicitly sanctioning the slaughter of nilgai, wild pigs and monkeys in certain States, the forest policy recommends mitigating human-wildlife conflicts by taking up habitat enrichment, providing adequate and timely compensation in case of injury or loss of human life, property, crop damage or livestock casualties and developing teams of well-equipped and trained forest personnel.

    Significance of the policy

    • The policy recommendation for the launch of a national forest streams revival programme in a mission mode to tackle intensifying water crisis in India in the last few decades is a good step.
    • The levy of a green tax for facilitating ecologically responsible behaviour, supplementing financial resources essential to address forestry woes will act as a step to mitigate the effects of pollution.
    • Besides specifying how to manage forests, the draft policy said, “Other ecosystems such as alpine meadows, grasslands, deserts, marine and coastal areas should be protected and managed as well” and this will help to make it comprehensive.
    • It calls for developing sound ecotourism models with the focus on conservation while supplementing the livelihood needs of local communities which is a commendable move.

    Criticism of the policy

    • NFP ignores Forests Rights Act, 2006, which empowers local gram panchayats, especially in tribal areas close to India’s forests, and proposes a joint forest management-like mechanism to enhance agro-forestry. This move will bring back the forest department as the final authority over using forest resources instead of forest dwellers and communities dependent on them.

    Way forward

    • After facing much criticism from the Civil society the centre has withdrawn the draft policy recently. The criticism is not misplaced as the draft policy proposes to dilute the Forests Rights Act (FRA), do away with requirement of having two-third geographical area of mountainous and hill regions under forests, and for allowing industry to have commercial plantations on the forest land , increase the power of the forest bureaucracy and keep local communities out of the decision-making process.
    • While devising a new policy, the ministry must not only focus on increasing the forest area and bettering the quality of the forests but also ensure that the connection between forest-dependent communities and forests is not lost.

    References:

  • Feedback on prelims titbits

    We started prelims titbit with the objective of providing you most important pointers related to prelims. We also discussed confusing issues. To make the learning more engaging questions were asked in the form of discuss.

    But after initial excitement, user response fizzled out. So tell us if you appreciate prelims titbits. What more would you like to see in that. And if you don’t appreciate titbits, what would you like us to take as a priority matter?

    P.S. Analysis of last 7 years polity questions will be published tomorrow and that would probably say a lot abt the importance of this initiative.

    P.P.S. We will publish only what you apreciate so feel free to give your valuable suggestions.

    Thanks

  • UPSC Prelims Polity Trend Analysis: Part 1

    In an earlier blog post (How to approach prelims 2016) I discussed the importance of solving test papers, making educated guesses, analysis of mistakes etc. I also emphasized on solving past year question papers and analyzing the trend.

    In this series, I shall discuss questions and explanations of last 7 years (2015 to 2009) prelims polity section. Attempt has been made to solve the questions as one would do in exam hall i.e using elimination method, pausing and thinking at red flags (all, none, only, weird statements), applying some tikdams where necessary.

    After every question, I have mentioned some learning objectives – things which are the most important  from exam point of view, things which have been asked again and again. You have to learn them all without any exception.

    Key insights from the analysis 

    1. Average number of questions asked in last 5 years is 15 and almost every question is solvable with decent knowledge and logic.
    2. Lots of questions and statements are repeated year after year <solve past 15 year papers without fail>
    3. More than questions, topics are repeated year after year
    4. Even when you don’t know all the options, often answer wallh option is clearly visible <importance of reading all the options>
    5. UPSC don’t ask article numbers. Not a single question with article number was asked in past 7 years <don’t worry about remembering all the articles or don’t get depressed if you can’t solve such questions of various test series>
    6. UPSC doesn’t ask questions which need remembering very intricate yet very useless details. For instance – reservation in local bodies is at least 1/3 or as near as 1/3 or something else or which laws are not applicable to J & K <You are getting my point right>
    7. Almost all polity questions are doable i.e if you have read polity and constitution decently enough i.e understood essence of important articles, you would able to solve with >90% accuracy.

    If you have been consistent with prelims tit-bits, you would realize that apart from discussing confusing things, primary objective was to discuss topics which are most imp. from exam perspective. Initially response was great but as with most endeavors, your response fizzled out and I also lost the motivation to read, analyse and push the tit-bits.

    Must Read Topics

    • Learn FRs, DPSPs, FDs and Preamble by heart, FR v/s DPSP
    • Three committees of parliament – PAC, estimates committee and Committee on public undertakings
    • Three motions – No Confidence motion, adjournment motion, calling attention motion
    • Passage of bills including money bill and constitution amendment bill in Parliament and states, budgetary process
    • Relative powers of LS and RS
    • Discretionary power of president v/s governor
    • Appointment, removal and independence of judiciary,
    • Evolution of local bodies from the time of independence, 73rd, 74th amendment, mandatory and optional provisions

    Let’s look at the question papers now –

    Prelims 2015

    £1. Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:

      1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
      2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

    Which of the statements given below are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 & 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Such questions have been asked n number of times.

    FRs – political democracy v/s DPSP – socio economic democracy, FRs enforceable v/s DPSP not enforceable

    Learning -Difference b/w F.R. and DPSP, Conflict b/w FR and DPSP, Learn all FRs, DPSPs and FDs and preamble by heart

    £2. Consider the following statements :

      1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
      2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
      3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Again asked n number of times.

    RS limited financial power, can discuss but not amend the money bill. Annual financial statement is a money bill, can’t amend hence can’t vote

    Learning – Relative powers of LS and RS i,e instances where LS enjoys primacy, instances where RS enjoys primacy

    £3. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by

    (a) a simple majority of member present and voting

    (b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting

    (c) two-thirds majority of the House

    (d) absolute majority of the House

    again asked n number of times

    Joint sitting requires simple majority

    Learning – Different types of majorities, passage of ordinary bill, money bill, constitution amendment bill in parliament as well as states with bicameral legislatures

    £4. Consider the following statements:

      1. The Executive Power of the union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
      2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    statement 1 is asked n number of times, power vests in president not PM, even if you don’t know about the statement 2, you should attempt this question

    Cabinet secretary is ex officio chairman <Scroll down you would know that questions related to cabinet secretariat have been asked many times in the past>

    £5.The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

    (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

    (b) determine the boundaries between states

    (c) determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities

    of Panchayats

    (d) protect the interests of all the border States

    asked n number of times

    Learning – All 12 schedules esp. 9th and 10th, amendment of schedules, difference b/w 5th and 6th schedule

    £7. With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.

      1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
      2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
      3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization from the Parliament of India

    Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 2 only

    (d) 1, 2, and 3

    Consolidated fund, Public account and Contingency fund have been asked n number of times

    Deptt of economic affairs prepare the budget <scroll down and you would know this question has been asked in the past>. Public accounts not under parliamentary control

    Learning – Consolidated fund, Public account and Contingency fund, Parliamentary oversight over govt finances, passage of budget

    £8. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?

    (a) The President of India

    (b) The Prime Minister of India

    (c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat

    (d) The Supreme Court of India

    controversial, president takes oath to protect, preserve and defend the constitution

    Whatever UPSC says and UPSC said Supreme Court

    1. Consider the following statements:
      1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
      2. The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    logical fallacy, purpose of acts is to limit the size of councils or to tell min. and max number

    Chairman is elected from amongst the members

    Learning – 91st amendment, election and nomination to upper house of states and parliament

    1. To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

    (a) Preamble of the Constitute

    (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

    (c) Fundamental Rights

    (d) Fundamental Duties

    N number of times. Even if don’t remember, it can not be a right <state is meant to protect sovereignty> , it can not be a directive to the state, it has to be the duty of citizens

    Learning – Learn by heart FDs, FRs, DPSPs and preamble

    1. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
      1. People’s participation in development
      2. Political accountability
      3. Democratic decentralization
      4. Financial mobilization

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

    (b) 2 and 4 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    common sense , financial mobilization can not be fundamental objective  <better ways to mobilize finance>, political accountability is again not directly achieved through this  

    Learning – evolution of Local self govt from the time of British <Rippon, Mayo>, Committee on local self govt, 73rd and 74th amendment, 11th and 12th schedule

    1. The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

    (a) Preamble

    (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

    (c) Fundamental Rights

    (d) Seventh Schedule

    Sort of internal repeat, Socio-economic democracy and welfare state one and the same thing.

    Learning – FRv/s DPSP

    1. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

    (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

    (b) Parliament can amend the constitution

    (c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

    (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

    Asked many times , Common sense, in parliamentary system, executive responsible to legislature while in presidential executive not responsible

    Learning – Merits and demerits of 2 system, separation of power in 2 systems  

    • Bottom line – 9/12 absolute joke
    • 1, president v/s supreme court controversial
    • 2, Deptt of economic affairs related to budget and Cabinet secretary ex officio chairperson needed some factual knowledge <but if you had solved past year papers, you would easily have marked DEA and you would have known about the role of cabinet secretary>

  • [Solved] Open discussion for Prelims Mocks #5

    Update:

    The solutions for this mock are now available in a downloadable pdf. We have tried to make them as detailed as possible and included the complete articles wherever possible so you can draw more information from them. Download

    What’s this?

    Discussion blog page for those who just attempted prelims mock #5. Discussion is open for any question which you had a doubt about, brainstorming on ways to arrive at a particular answer, any other interesting tit bit that you may share etc.

    Where are the prelims mocks held?

    Go to the link and start attempting the mocks. Click here. 25 questions each.

    When will the detailed explanations be uploaded?

    Every weekend (on sunday). Look out for this blog again and you will find a google drive link from where you can download the explanation pdfs.

  • Make the best out of your Prelim mock attempts: Here are the solutions

    When we launched the prelims mock series, our plan was not to give you a yet another test series (for the sake of it).

    We guessed that most of you would have already joined or subscribed to one of the many available in the open space out there – institutes, online classes or (sigh!) the xerox shops. So, why bother?

    But the idea was to get our questions to mimic the changing UPSC trends and make sure that the explanations are richer and meaningful (to both – those who solved them correctly and those who took an educated guess).

    Read more on educated guesses on this post by Dr. V – Click here.

    And then, one of the readers (Er S) suggested that the test takers include their comments on their attempts, just in case others can reap some benefits from their approach methodology.

    And it was heartening to see that many of you agreed to that request and have added value to the test series by pitching in with interesting trivia!

    Here’s how the explanation sheets (PDFs) are made richer by including some of your comments –

    Great, so what next?

    1. Sign up for the rest of the prelims mocks by clicking this link
    2. Starting tomorrow, all mocks will be held there BUT a discussion blog would be open here so that you can share your thoughts on questions, answers and additional info
    3. Detailed explanations would be released on the blog page at a later date (every Sunday)
    4. For the 4 mocks already conducted, click here to download their detailed solutions:

     

  • Reagrding new Prelims Site

    Hey,

    I signed up for the new site but I’m not getting my activation mail. I tried with 2 ids just to be sure it wasn’t an issue with my mail. Can someone look into this?

    Thanks 🙂

  • Sign up for the *All New* Prelims Mocks

    Hello,

    We are shifting the Prelims Mocks to an even better environment. We realised that rather than having you guys put out your answers on the comments, it would be better than we automate the exam taking process and let the blogs remain purely for post exam discussion purpose.

    The new platform is available at – prelims.civilsdaily.com

    The Mocks #5 to #10 will be FREE and the final 4 Full Length tests would be PAID

    1. The Mocks #1 to #4 were held FREE for our readers at our blog section. You can find the questions and solutions in the same post. Click here.
    2. Solutions to Mock #4 will be updated on the coming Sunday
    3. Post that, all the mocks and full length tests would be scheduled on the testing platform which we mentioned above. Click here if you missed it and enroll now.

    Where is the future heading to?

    We have been actively experimenting with the best ways of getting news, content and now tests across to you. We started innovating on newscards, then went on to long form explainers, tit bits, MCQ mazes and finally these mocks.

    For the IAS 2016 aspirants – 

    Due care and utmost efforts have been taken in making sure we give you a mix bag of questions in all our tests series. The 4 full length tests are being designed to ensure that we mimic UPSC’s changing flavours and give you the best pre-match flavour 🙂

    For IAS 2017 and beyond – 

    If you think you have covered a good part of the syllabus (~50%), you should be able to attempt all the mocks. Further with the explanations – you will find what you tend to miss out while you cover those standard books.

    We will be announcing our test series for the next year in a few months’ time. The idea is to make an intelligent system which understands your test taking abilities and guides you through similar difficulty level questions so that you can improve with time.

    NOTE: If you have any suggestions around how to make your preparation holistic, shoot a mail to hello@civilsdaily.com – We are always open to suggestions and we have proved that time and again 🙂

    But for now – to remind you again, join the new platform for both the test series. Click here. 

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