The Ministry of Coal notified the Coal Exchange Rules, 2026 on 4 June 2026, paving the way for the establishment of Coal Exchanges in India. The initiative aims to modernise coal marketing through transparent, competitive, and market-driven trading.
Background
Legal Basis: The concept of Coal Exchanges emerged from the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2025
The amendment:
Introduced the concept of a Mineral Exchange.
Empowered the Central Government to facilitate transparent mineral trading.
Covers: Coal, Processed forms of coal, Other notified minerals.
What is a Coal Exchange?
A Coal Exchange is an organised electronic marketplace where multiple buyers and sellers can trade coal through transparent mechanisms.
Traditional System: One seller → Many buyers to Exchange-Based System: Many sellers ↔ Many buyers
Coal Exchanges will be authorised by the Coal Controller Organisation (CCO).
Registration validity: 25 years
Establish and operate trading platforms.
Frame market rules and bye-laws.
Facilitate coal transactions.
Ensure compliance with regulations.
Role of Coal Controller Organisation (CCO)
Established in 1945.
Functions under the Ministry of Coal.
Headquarters Kolkata.
Functions
Regulates coal quality.
Collects and disseminates coal statistics.
Ensures compliance with coal grading standards.
Registers and regulates Coal Exchanges under the 2026 Rules.
[2022] In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? 1.CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in Government of India. 2.It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. 3.It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4.It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
According to the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), the Department of Financial Services’ Insurance Division topped the Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) rankings in the Group A category for March 2026.
About Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI)
The Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) is an evaluation framework developed by Department of Administrative Reformsand Public Grievances to assess the performance of Ministries and Departments in handling public grievances.
The first edition, GRAI 2022, was released on 21 June 2023.
Objective
To measure the effectiveness and efficiency of grievance redressal mechanisms.
To improve accountability and citizen-centric governance.
To evaluate how quickly and effectively ministries resolve grievances through the CPGRAMS platform.
Four Major Dimensions
Efficiency
Feedback
Domain
Organisational Commitment
These dimensions are measured using 11 indicators.
Significance of GRAI
Encourages timely disposal of grievances.
Promotes transparency in administration.
Improves public service delivery.
Creates competition among departments for better governance standards.
Strengthens citizen trust in government institutions.
Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)
CPGRAMS is an online grievance redressal platform that allows citizens to lodge complaints regarding public service delivery.
It is Available 24×7
A single integrated portal linked with Central Ministries, Departments, and States
Developed and monitored by: Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
[2021] With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [A] 1 only [B] 2 only [C] Both 1 and 2 [D] Neither 1 nor 2
PYQ Relevance[UPSC 2022] The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 remains inadequate in promoting incentive-based system for children’s education without generating awareness about the importance of schooling. Analyse.Linkage: The PYQ directly connects to Section 12(1)(c) by questioning effectiveness vs intent of RTE, especially in inclusion and awareness. The article strengthens this PYQ by showing that the issue is now implementation gaps (costs, compliance, access) rather than policy inadequacy.
Mentor’s Comment
The January 2026 judgment of the Supreme Court has reaffirmed the constitutional purpose of Section 12(1)(c) of the Right to Education Act, 2009. This comes at a time when declining enrolment in government schools and rising private schooling had triggered concerns about a silent shift toward privatization. The ruling is significant because it rejects the narrative that the provision dilutes public education and instead frames it as a tool for social integration, not welfare.
What is Section 12(1)(c) of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009?
It mandates that private unaided and special category schools reserve at least 25% of their entry-level seats (Class I or pre-school) for children from economically weaker sections (EWS) and disadvantaged groups. It ensures free, compulsory elementary education to these students, with states reimbursing schools for costs.
Key Details of Section 12(1)(c)
Mandate: Private non-minority schools must reserve 25% of entry-level seats for EWS and disadvantaged group children, such as those from SC/ST, OBC, or with disabilities.
Free Education: The provision covers tuition and fees until the completion of elementary education (typically up to Class 8).
Reimbursement: State governments are responsible for reimbursing private schools for the fees of these students based on their actual cost or government school expenditure, whichever is lower.
Purpose: The provision, often referred to as the “25% quota for weaker sections in private schools” or “RTE inclusion mandate,” seeks to promote social integration and equity, reducing the education gap between the privileged and underprivileged.
Scope: This applies to Class I or pre-school, whichever is the entry point, and lasts throughout the elementary education cycle.
Why is Section 12(1)(c) seen as a tool of social integration rather than welfare?
Equality of Status: Ensures children from diverse socio-economic backgrounds study together, reducing social segregation.
Shared Learning Spaces: Facilitates interaction across class lines; example, child of a judge studying with a street vendor’s child.
Constitutional Morality:Operationalizes Article 14 and 21A of the Constitution of India through lived equality, not symbolic guarantees.
Non-zero-sum Framework:Integrates public and private schooling systems instead of replacing one with the other.
Does Section 12(1)(c) dilute the State’s responsibility towards public education?
State Obligation: Retains primary duty to provide free and compulsory education.
Complementary Role: Positions private schools as participants in achieving constitutional goals.
Misplaced Criticism: Declining government school enrolment linked to infrastructure and teacher issues, not RTE
Empirical Evidence: ASER 2006 highlights shift to private schools due to perceived quality gaps.
What evidence exists on the ground regarding its impact?
Scale of Reach: Over 5 million children benefited since rollout.
Inclusive Norms: Ensures experiential equality, not just access.
Administrative Focus: Shifts policy debate from ideology to execution.
Conclusion
The reaffirmation of Section 12(1)(c) marks a shift from ideological contestation to administrative responsibility. The core challenge lies in ensuring that access translates into meaningful inclusion, thereby fulfilling the constitutional promise of social integration.
Government has constituted the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) under a new legal framework to regulate the online gaming ecosystem.
What is OGAI
Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) is a central regulatory body for online gaming
Established under: Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act 2025
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Operational from: May 1, 2026
Key Functions
Acts as: Central authority for online gaming
Covers: Online games and Esports
Categorises games into: Money games and Non-money games
Maintains: Official registry of games
Handles: User complaints and Public grievances
Enforcement Coordination Works with: Financial institutions and Law enforcement agencies
[2019] In India, which of the following bodies/mechanisms review the functioning of independent regulators like PFRDA, IBBI, AERA, and PNGRB? 1.Ad Hoc Committees appointed by the Parliament. 2.Parliamentary Standing Committees. 3.NITI Aayog. 4.Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC). 5.Finance Commission. Select the correct answer using the code given below: [A] 1 and 2 only [B] 1, 3, and 4 [C] 2, 4, and 5 [D] 2 only
CSR spending by listed companies rose by 23% in FY25, reaching about ₹22,212 crore, driven by strong profit growth.
What is CSR
Corporate Social Responsibility refers to:
Companies investing in social, environmental, and developmental activities
Mandated under:
Companies Act, 2013 (effective April 2014)
CSR Legal Framework
Mandatory Requirement
Eligible companies must spend: At least 2% of average net profits (last 3 years)
Applicability Criteria
Applies to companies with:
Net worth ≥ ₹500 crore
Turnover ≥ ₹1,000 crore
Net profit ≥ ₹5 crore
Key Trends (FY25)
CSR spending: ₹22,212 crore (up 23%)
Companies spending CSR: 98% compliance
Increase due to: Higher corporate profits
Sector-wise Allocation
Highest spending: Education
Second: Healthcare
Low spending:
Slum development
Disaster management
Armed forces welfare
[2024] With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements: 1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. 2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [A] 1 only [B] 2 only [C] Both 1 and 2 [D] Neither 1 nor 2
The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority has constituted a Committee of Investment Experts for Strategic Asset Allocation and Risk Governance (SAARG) to review and modernise the National Pension System investment framework.
What is SAARG?
A high level expert committee constituted by PFRDA
Mandate: Review, recommend and strengthen the investment architecture of NPS
Objective: Support long term retirement wealth creation, diversification, risk management and subscriber choice
Tenure: The Committee to submit its report within 9 months to PFRDA
Core Objectives of SAARG
Strengthen NPS investment framework in line with
Global pension best practices
Indian investment ecosystem
Improve Portfolio diversification, Risk governance, Liquidity management and Subscriber outcomes
Significance
Enhances resilience and credibility of NPS
Aligns pension investments with
Long term demographic needs
Global best practices
Supports retirement security for a growing subscriber base
Prelims Pointers
SAARG is an expert committee, not a statutory body
NPS is regulated by PFRDA, not RBI or SEBI
Focus on strategic asset allocation and risk governance
Sustainability and climate risk integration included in pension investments
[2017] Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
(a) Resident Indian citizens only
(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
(d) All Central Governments Employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004
Shri Praveen Vashista, IPS (Bihar cadre, 1991 batch), has been appointed as Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission and took oath on 16 January 2026.
About Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
Apex integrity and vigilance institution of the Government of India
Mandated to promote integrity, transparency and accountability in public administration
Prevents corruption in Central Government organisations
Established in
1964 through an executive resolution of the Government of India
Granted statutory status under the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
Historical background
Originated from recommendations of the Santhanam Committee (1962 to 1964)
Initially functioned without statutory backing, limiting enforcement authority
Became an independent statutory body in 2003, strengthening supervisory and advisory powers
Composition and members
Central Vigilance Commissioner as Chairperson
Up to two Vigilance Commissioners as Members
Appointed by the President of India on recommendation of a high level committee
Tenure of four years or up to 65 years of age, whichever is earlier
UPSC Prelims Pointers
Statutory body since 2003
Superintendence over CBI limited to corruption cases
Chairperson and Members appointed by the President
Fixed tenure with age limit
Nodal authority for whistleblower protection
[2025] Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) III only (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) None of the above statements is correct
The Union Minister launched PANKHUDI, an integrated digital portal to improve ease of living for women and children by streamlining CSR and voluntary partnerships.
About PANKHUDI Portal
A single window integrated digital platform
Facilitates CSR and voluntary contributions for women and child development
Enables transparent funding, proposal tracking, and outcome monitoring
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development
Objectives
Strengthen coordination among government, citizens, NRIs, NGOs, and corporates
Improve transparency and accountability in social investments
Enhance service delivery and outcomes for women and children nationwide
Key Features
Unified CSR Interface
Single platform for individuals, NRIs, NGOs, corporates, and government agencies
Simplifies collaboration with government programmes
Priority Focus Areas: Nutrition, Health, Early Childhood Care and Education,Child welfare and protection, Women’s safety and empowerment
Support to Flagship Missions
Digitally strengthens
Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0
Mission Vatsalya
Mission Shakti
End-to-End Transparency
Online registration and proposal submission
Digital approvals and real time monitoring
Non cash contributions only to ensure traceability
Scale of Impact
Covers more than 14 lakh Anganwadi Centres
Around 5,000 Child Care Institutions
Nearly 800 One Stop Centres
About 500 Shakhi Niwas
Around 400 Shakti Sadan
Significance
Reduces procedural friction in government partnerships
Enhances monitoring and convergence of welfare schemes
Improves measurable impact of CSR and voluntary funding
Strengthens digital governance in social sector delivery
Prelims Pointers
PANKHUDI is a CSR facilitation portal
Focused on women and child development
Operates through non cash contributions
Linked with major flagship missions
[2024] With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The 79th Foundation Day of the Bureau of Indian Standards was celebrated, where the Union Minister highlighted BIS’s transition from a regulatory role to a facilitative and enabling institution, aligned with ease of doing business and promotion of a quality culture.
Bureau of Indian Standards
India’s National Standards Body
Responsible for standardisation, certification, hallmarking, and quality assurance
Protects consumer interests and enhances global competitiveness of Indian products
Establishment and Legal Framework
Established in 1987
Came into force on 1 April 1987
Governed by the BIS Act, 2016
Headquarters at New Delhi
Historical Evolution
1947 Indian Standards Institution established
1952 to 1956 ISI Certification Marks Scheme launched
1987 ISI transformed into BIS with expanded mandate
2016 BIS Act strengthened consumer participation and international alignment
Significance
Strengthens quality infrastructure in India
Supports Make in India and export competitiveness
Promotes consumer safety and trust
Aligns Indian standards with global best practices
Prelims Pointers
BIS is India’s national standards authority
ISI mark originated before BIS
BIS Act 2016 expanded consumer role
Hallmarking is mandatory for precious metals
Digital standardisation is a recent reform focus
[2017] Consider the following statements:
1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Controller General of Communication Accounts (CGCA) has inaugurated the onboarding of all Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) pensioners onto the SAMPANN portal, marking a major step in modernizing pension administration under the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
About the MTNL Pensioners
The onboarding covers 45,939 MTNL pensioners from Delhi and Mumbai.
Includes both current retirees (November 2025) and past pensioners.
Event held at the Office of Principal CCA, Delhi.
Pensioners received E-PPOs (Electronic Pension Payment Orders) during the event.
About SAMPANN
System for Accounting and Management of Pension (SAMPANN)
A centralized, comprehensive telecom pension management platform of the DoT.
Enables fully digital processing of pension cases.
Key Features of SAMPANN
Accurate, rule-based pension calculations.
Integrated case processing with end-to-end digital workflow.
PFMS-linked timely pension disbursements.
Multi-modal grievance redressal system.
Mobile app support (Android and iOS).
Real-time dashboards for monitoring and transparency.
Reduction of paperwork and delays.
Consider the following statements: (2020)
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only