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  • CPGRAMS Report for States/UTs (June 2026)

    Why in News?

    The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) released the 47th monthly report on the Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) for States/UTs for June 2026.

    Key Highlights

    • Public Grievances Received: 96,190
    • Grievances Redressed: 93,170
    • Pending Cases (30 June 2026): 2,16,032
    • 23 States/UTs have over 1,000 pending grievances.
    • Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest disposals (31,460), followed by Maharashtra (7,619).

    CPGRAMS

    • CPGRAMS is an online grievance redress platform of the Government of India.
    • Developed and monitored by DARPG.
    • Enables citizens to submit and track grievances against government departments.
    • Integrated with over 5 lakh Common Service Centres (CSCs) through 2.5 lakh Village Level Entrepreneurs (VLEs).

    Sevottam Scheme

    • Capacity-building initiative to improve public service delivery and grievance redress.
    • FY 2022-23 to FY 2026-27 (till June): 1,196 training programmes conducted. Around 39,509 officers trained.

    Other Highlights

    • 83,544 new users registered on CPGRAMS in June 2026.
    • Feedback Call Centre collected 75,318 feedbacks, including 33,092 from States/UTs.
    • 6,262 grievances were registered through CSCs.
    • A dedicated Review Module for senior-level monitoring has been operational since 6 June 2025.

    Prelims Facts

    • DARPG: Department under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
    • CPGRAMS: National online portal for public grievance redressal.
    • Sevottam Scheme: Focuses on improving service delivery and grievance redress mechanisms in government.

    [2021] With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
    1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
    2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • Celebrating 25 Years of the Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT)

    Why in News?

    The Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT) at Hanle, Ladakh, completed 25 years of operation. The occasion was marked by a conference highlighting its scientific achievements and future expansion plans.

    Key Highlights

    • Location: Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), Hanle, Ladakh (4,517 m).
    • Managed by: Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) under the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
    • First Light: 26 September 2000; dedicated to the nation in 2001.
    • Named after Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar.
    • Operated remotely from Bengaluru via INSAT-3B since 2001.

    Why is Hanle Important?

    • Over 250 clear nights annually.
    • Very low atmospheric water vapour and minimal light pollution.
    • Ideal for optical and near-infrared astronomy.
    • Protected under the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve.

    Major Scientific Contributions

    • Studies of gamma-ray bursts, comets, exoplanets, supernovae, variable stars, galaxies, and active galactic nuclei (AGN).
    • Contributed to the discovery of TRAPPIST-1b.

    Key Instruments

    • HFOSC – Optical camera and spectrograph.
    • uTIRSPEC – Near-infrared spectrometer.
    • HESP – High-resolution Echelle spectrograph.

    Future Plans

    The Union Budget announced:

    • 3.7-m Upgraded Himalayan Chandra Telescope (UHCT).
    • 13.7-m National Large Optical-Infrared Telescope (NLOT) at Hanle.

    Prelims Facts

    • HCT: 2-m optical telescope at Hanle, Ladakh.
    • Nodal Agency: Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA).
    • Administrative Ministry: Department of Science and Technology (DST).
    • Hanle Dark Sky Reserve: India’s first Dark Sky Reserve.

    [2016] With reference to ‘Astrosat’,’ the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.
    2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • Pollens Help Trace Why the Harappan Civilization Shrank

    Why in News?

    A study by the Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences (BSIP) has used pollen preserved in lake sediments from Deoria Tal (Garhwal Himalaya) to reconstruct past climate. The findings suggest that a prolonged weakening of the Indian Summer Monsoon (ISM) and the 4.2 ka climatic event contributed to the decline and eastward migration of the Harappan Civilization.

    Key Findings

    • Analysis of pollen and spores reconstructed vegetation and monsoon history over the last ~5,100 years.
    • Around 4200 years BP [Before Present](4.2 ka event), the region experienced an abrupt cool and dry climate with a weakened ISM.
    • Reduced monsoon weakened the perennial river systems of the Indus and Ghaggar-Hakra, making agriculture difficult.
    • This likely triggered the migration of Harappan populations towards the Ganga plains, contributing to the shrinking of the civilization.
    • The study establishes a strong link between abrupt climate change and changes in ancient human settlements.

    How Did Scientists Reconstruct the Past?

    • Sediment core collected from Deoria Tal in Uttarakhand.
    • Pollen analysis (Palynology) reconstructed past vegetation and climate.
    • Chronology established using 10 AMS Radiocarbon (¹⁴C) dates on Trapa (water chestnut) seed cases.
    • Changes in the Oak/Pine pollen ratio served as an indicator of changing temperature and monsoon strength.

    What is the 4.2 ka Event?

    • A major global climatic event that occurred around 4200 years ago.
    • Characterized by:
      • Weak Indian Summer Monsoon.
      • Cooler and drier climate.
      • Widespread droughts across several ancient civilizations.
    • Linked to the decline of civilizations such as Harappan Civilization, Akkadian Empire, and Old Kingdom of Egypt

    Why Did the Monsoon Weaken?

    Researchers attribute the weakened ISM to multiple interacting climatic factors:

    • Southward shift of the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).
    • Strong El Niño conditions.
    • Strong negative phase of the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD).
    • Reduced Northern Hemisphere summer insolation.

    Other Climate Phases Identified

    • Roman Warm Period (2500 to 1450 cal yr BP): Strong ISM and higher agricultural productivity.
    • Medieval Climate Anomaly (1050 to 650 cal yr BP): Strong monsoon due to northward ITCZ.
    • Little Ice Age (650 to 100 cal yr BP / CE 1350 to 1850): Weak ISM associated with stronger westerlies, ENSO and southward ITCZ.

    [2026] Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:
    I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
    II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
    III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.
    Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
    1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
    2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
    3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.
    Select the answer using the code given below :

    [A] 1 and 2 only

    [B] 2 and 3 only

    [C] 1 and 3 only

    [D] 1, 2 and 3

  • Industrial growth hits 23 month high of 7.3% in June, IIP data shows

    Why in News?

    The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) recorded 7.3% growth in June, a 23 month high, driven by manufacturing, electricity and capital goods, per Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) data.

      Key Highlights

      1. Headline growth: Industrial growth reached 7.3% in June, its highest in 23 months.
      2. Sectoral drivers: Manufacturing grew 7.8%, electricity 10.6%, and capital goods 14.2%.
      3. Breadth: 19 of 23 manufacturing groups posted growth.
      4. Risk flags: Analysts cite a weak monsoon and the West Asia war as risks to sustaining this growth pace.

      What is the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?

      1. The IIP is a monthly indicator measuring the volume of industrial production in the economy.
      2. It is compiled and released by the National Statistics Office (NSO) under MoSPI.
      3. It reflects the performance of the mining, manufacturing and electricity sectors.
      4. Base Year: 2022-23.

      Components of IIP

      1. Manufacturing: Largest contributor with about 77% weight.
      2. Mining: Around 14% weight.
      3. Electricity: Around 8% weight.
      4. Use-Based Classification: Primary Goods, Capital Goods, Intermediate Goods, Infrastructure/Construction Goods, Consumer Durables, and Consumer Non-Durables

      [2012] In India the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eighth Core Industries have combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
      1. Cement
      2. Fertilizers
      3. Natural Gas
      4. Refinery products
      5. Textiles
      Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      [A] 1 and 5 only

      [B] 2, 3 and 4 only

      [C] 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

      [D] 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    1. India’s Record Exports in FY 2025-26

      Why in News?

      India recorded its highest-ever exports of US$ 863.1 billion in FY 2025-26, driven by strong merchandise and services exports and growing benefits from recent Free Trade Agreements (FTAs), particularly with the UAE, UK, Australia, Oman and EFTA.

      Key Highlights

      • Record exports: India’s total exports reached US$ 863.1 billion in FY 2025-26.
        • Merchandise exports: US$ 441.8 billion
        • Services exports: US$ 421.3 billion
      • Top FTA export destinations:
        • ASEAN: US$ 38.4 billion
        • UAE (CEPA): US$ 37.4 billion
        • SAFTA: US$ 25.8 billion
        • UK (CETA): US$ 13.4 billion
        • Singapore (CECA): US$ 11.9 billion
      • Recent FTAs boosted exports:
        • UAE CEPA: 4.45 lakh Certificates of Origin issued; export tariff lines increased from 7,546 to 8,053.
        • Australia ECTA: Certificates of Origin rose from 1,482 (FY21) to an average 45,500+ annually after implementation.
        • Mauritius CECPA: Export tariff lines increased by 20.9%.
        • Oman CEPA: June 2026 exports grew 54.7% month-on-month and 189.6% year-on-year.
        • India-EFTA TEPA: Over 7,885 Certificates of Origin issued since October 2025.
      • Labour-intensive sectors benefited most: Textiles & apparel, Leather & footwear, Gems & jewellery, Marine products, Carpets, Handicrafts, Agricultural products
      • Trade facilitation initiatives:
        • Trade e-Connect: Provides market intelligence, tariff information, Rules of Origin guidance and FTA advisory.
        • Trade Intelligence & Analytics (TIA) Portal: Offers commodity-wise trade analytics and real-time export monitoring.

      Significance

      • Diversifies export markets and products.
      • Enhances global value chain integration.
      • Boosts manufacturing and employment in labour-intensive industries.
      • Improves India’s competitiveness through preferential tariff access.

      [2023] Consider the following statements:
      Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
      Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
      Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

      [A] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-ll is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

      [B] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-l is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

      [C] Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

      [D] Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

    2. Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2026

      Why in News?

      NITI Aayog has released the second edition of the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2026, providing a comprehensive assessment of the fiscal performance of Indian States during FY 2023–24. The report expands its coverage to include 10 North-Eastern and Himalayan States, in addition to the 18 major States assessed in the inaugural edition.

      Key Highlights

      • Expanded coverage: Evaluates 28 States (18 major States + 10 North-Eastern and Himalayan States).
      • Purpose: Measures the fiscal health of States using a transparent and data-driven framework.
      • Fiscal significance: States account for nearly two-thirds of public expenditure and about one-third of the general government debt.
      • Key finding: Most States recorded moderate fiscal performance, with significant variations across regions.
      • Recommendations: Improve own tax revenue, rationalise committed expenditure, strengthen capital expenditure, enhance public financial management, and ensure debt sustainability.

      What is the Fiscal Health Index (FHI)?

      • The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) is an annual report released by NITI Aayog to evaluate the fiscal performance of States using objective indicators. It promotes fiscal discipline, financial sustainability, and evidence-based policymaking while encouraging States to improve public financial management.

      Key Parameters of the Fiscal Health Index

      • Quality of Expenditure
      • Revenue Mobilisation
      • Fiscal Prudence
      • Debt Management

      Significance of the Fiscal Health Index

      • Encourages competitive and cooperative federalism.
      • Helps identify strengths and weaknesses in State finances.
      • Supports informed policy decisions and fiscal reforms.
      • Promotes sustainable public finances and efficient resource allocation.
      • Enhances transparency and accountability in fiscal governance.

      Challenges Highlighted by the Report

      • Low own tax revenue in several States.
      • High committed expenditure on salaries, pensions, and interest payments.
      • Rising debt burden in some States.
      • Limited fiscal space for developmental expenditure.
      • Regional disparities in fiscal performance.

    3. CBDT issues crypto asset reporting note aligned with OECD framework

      Why in News?

      The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) issued a 198 page guidance note on crypto asset reporting under the Income tax Act, 2025, aligned with the OECD’s Crypto Asset Reporting Framework (CARF).

      Key Highlights

      1. The guidance note runs to 198 pages and is issued under the Income tax Act, 2025.
      2. It aligns India’s crypto asset reporting with the OECD’s Crypto Asset Reporting Framework (CARF).
      3. The framework enables automatic global information exchange on crypto asset holdings starting next year.

       [2016] With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
      1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries.
      2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address.
      3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.

      [A] 1 and 2 only

      [B] 2 and 3 only

      [C] 3 only

      [D] 1, 2 and 3

    4. Investment Friendliness Index (IFI)

      Why in News?

      NITI Aayog launched the Investment Friendliness Index (IFI) to assess and improve the investment ecosystem across States and UTs through competitive and cooperative federalism.

      What is IFI?

      • A data driven index that benchmarks how effectively States and UTs attract and sustain investments by evaluating their policy, regulatory, institutional, and infrastructure ecosystem.

      Background

      • Proposed after the 9th NITI Aayog Governing Council Meeting (2024).
      • Announced in the Union Budget 2025-26.

      Key Features

      • Covers 28 States and 8 UTs.
      • Based on 84 indicators using: Secondary data and Investor perception survey.

      Eight Pillars

      • Infrastructure. Business Climate, Resources, Government Policy, Regulatory Ease, Institutional Environment, Financial Health, and Environmental Resilience

      Performance Categories

      • Top Performers: Above 50
      • Frontrunners: 45 to 50
      • Emerging Performers: 40 to <45
      • Aspiring States: Below 40

      Top Performers

      • Overall: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Goa, Odisha.
      • Hilly & NE States: Uttarakhand.
      • UTs & City States: Goa.

      Significance

      • Promotes competitive and cooperative federalism.
      • Encourages State level reforms and ease of investment.
      • Supports Viksit Bharat @2047 and Viksit Rajya @2047.

      [2019] Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?

      [A] Maintenance of law and order

      [B] Paying taxes

      [C] Registering property

      [D] Dealing with construction permits

    5. Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) Mechanism for Biodiversity Conservation

      Why in News?

      The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) has released ₹6.67 crore under the Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanism to 11 cotton-growing States for biodiversity conservation and livelihood enhancement. The funds were realised from Bayer Science & Innovation Pvt. Ltd. for research involving 25,431 cotton (Gossypium hirsutum) varieties.

      What is Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS)?

      • Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) is a mechanism under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, ensuring that benefits arising from the commercial use of biological resources are shared fairly with biodiversity conservation efforts and local communities.
      • It implements the principle of fair and equitable sharing of benefits under the Nagoya Protocol.

      Why was the Amount Released?

      • ₹7.62 crore was realised from Bayer Science & Innovation Pvt. Ltd.
      • Since cotton germplasm was accessed through traders and intermediaries, individual benefit claimers could not be identified.
      • Hence, the funds were allocated to State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) based on the geographical distribution of cotton cultivation.

      Allocation Criteria

      • Based on data from the All India Coordinated Research Project on Cotton (AICRP) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
      • Distributed proportionately according to each State’s cotton cultivation area.
      • ₹6.67 crore released to 11 cotton-growing States, while ₹0.95 crore was retained by the NBA as per the Biological Diversity Rules.

      Utilisation of Funds

      The funds will support:

      • On-farm and ex-situ biodiversity conservation.
      • Preparation and updation of People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs).
      • Ecosystem restoration and Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
      • Documentation of traditional knowledge.
      • Biodiversity research and digital databases.
      • Capacity building of Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs).
      • Livelihood enhancement and awareness programmes.

      Significance

      • Promotes conservation of India’s rich cotton genetic diversity.
      • Ensures benefits from commercial use of biological resources reach biodiversity-rich regions.
      • Supports implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, especially:
        • Target 13: Fair and equitable benefit sharing.
        • Target 4: Conservation of genetic diversity.

      About National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)

      • Established under: Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
      • Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
      • Nature: Statutory body.
      • Functions: Regulates access to India’s biological resources. Advises on biodiversity conservation. Implements the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing.

      [2023] Consider the following statements:
      1. In Biodiversity the India, Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
      2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
      Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

      [A] 1 only

      [B] 2 only

      [C] Both 1 and 2

      [D] Neither 1 nor 2

    6. Commercialisation and Transfer of Government-Developed Technologies

      Why in News?

      The Government informed Parliament about the institutional framework, technology transfer mechanisms, and commercialization of technologies developed by public-funded research institutions such as the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), Department of Science and Technology (DST), Department of Biotechnology (DBT), and National Research Development Corporation (NRDC).

      National Research Development Corporation (NRDC)

      • NRDC is an autonomous organization under the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR).
      • It is the nodal agency for technology transfer, licensing, commercialization, and Intellectual Property (IP) management.
      • Has licensed technologies to 5,100+ entrepreneurs and facilitated filing of 2,100+ Intellectual Properties (IPs).
      • Supports patenting, prototyping, pilot plants, feasibility studies, and export of indigenous technologies.

      Institutional Framework

      • Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR): Technology Transfer and Utilisation of Knowledgebase Guidelines.
      • Department of Biotechnology (DBT): Intellectual Property (IP) Guidelines, 2023, enabling institutions to own and license IP through exclusive or non-exclusive agreements.
      • Technology Development Board (TDB) under the Department of Science and Technology (DST): Provides financial assistance for commercialization of indigenous technologies.

      Startup & Industry Support

      • Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) has established:
        • 7 Technology Transfer Offices (TTOs) under the National Biopharma Mission (NBM).
        • 94 biotechnology incubation/pre-incubation centres across 25 States and Union Territories (UTs).
      • Department of Science and Technology (DST) has established 22 Technology Enabling Centres (TECs) to connect researchers with industry.
      • Incubation centres at IITs and NRDC provide mentorship, testing facilities, funding support, and Technology Readiness Level (TRL) assessment.

      Commercialisation Performance (2023–2025)

      • CSIR: 707 technologies licensed/developed and 452 technologies commercialized/transferred.
      • DBT: 120 technologies licensed/developed and 18 technologies commercialized/transferred.
      • DST: 185 technologies licensed/developed and 36 technologies commercialized/transferred.

      Startup Creation

      • CSIR: Supported 148 startups, generating royalty income and employment for about 7,200 people.
      • DBT: Facilitated 34 startups in healthcare, agritech, diagnostics, and biomanufacturing.
      • NRDC: Supported 13 startups under the Technology Development, Validation and Commercialisation (TDVC) programme.

      [2017] With reference to the “National Intellectual Property Rights Policy” consider the following statements:

      1. It reiterates India’s commitment to Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement.
      2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating Intellectual Property Rights in India.

      Which of the above statements is/are correct?
      a) Only 2
      b) Neither 1 nor 2
      c) Only 1
      d) Both 1 and 2