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  • Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI)

    Why in the News

    According to the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), the Department of Financial Services’ Insurance Division topped the Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) rankings in the Group A category for March 2026.

    About Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI)

    • The Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) is an evaluation framework developed by Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances to assess the performance of Ministries and Departments in handling public grievances.
    • The first edition, GRAI 2022, was released on 21 June 2023.

    Objective

    • To measure the effectiveness and efficiency of grievance redressal mechanisms.
    • To improve accountability and citizen-centric governance.
    • To evaluate how quickly and effectively ministries resolve grievances through the CPGRAMS platform.

    Four Major Dimensions

    • Efficiency
    • Feedback
    • Domain
    • Organisational Commitment
      • These dimensions are measured using 11 indicators.

    Significance of GRAI

    • Encourages timely disposal of grievances.
    • Promotes transparency in administration.
    • Improves public service delivery.
    • Creates competition among departments for better governance standards.
    • Strengthens citizen trust in government institutions.

    Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)

    • CPGRAMS is an online grievance redressal platform that allows citizens to lodge complaints regarding public service delivery.
    • It is Available 24×7
    • A single integrated portal linked with Central Ministries, Departments, and States
    • Developed and monitored by: Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
    [2021] With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 
    1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 
    2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge. 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
    [A] 1 only [B] 2 only [C] Both 1 and 2 [D] Neither 1 nor 2
  • Solar Power Curtailment in India 

    Why in the News

    India witnessed record electricity demand in April 2026, yet large amounts of solar power had to be curtailed due to grid stress, transmission bottlenecks, and surplus daytime generation.

    What is Solar Curtailment?

    • Solar curtailment refers to the reduction of electricity generation from solar plants by grid operators to maintain grid stability and prevent overload.
    • Even though renewable energy has “must-run” status in India, it can still be reduced under emergency or technical conditions.

    Record Curtailment

    • April 2026 solar curtailment:
      • 693.81 GWh
    • January to March 2026 combined:
      • 399.34 GWh
    • This means April alone recorded around 74% higher curtailment than the previous three months combined.

    Main Reasons Behind Curtailment

    • Grid Stability Concerns: Rapid increase in solar generation during daytime created excess electricity supply. The grid struggled to absorb this sudden surge.
    • Transmission Constraints: Major solar-producing States like Rajasthan and Gujarat Faced:
      • Transformer overloading
      • Transmission congestion
      • Heavy underdrawal of electricity
    • Demand-Supply Timing Mismatch
      • Daytime: Electricity prices crashed to nearly ₹1.5/unit
      • Night-time: Solar unavailable. Prices rose close to ₹10/unit ceiling
    • This highlights the need for energy storage systems.

    What is Emergency TRAS (Tertiary Reserves Ancillary Services)?

    • It is a mechanism used by the power grid operator to maintain stability during emergency situations.
    • Under Emergency TRAS:
      • Renewable energy plants are instructed to reduce generation temporarily.
      • They receive financial compensation for the lost generation.
    [2025] Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’: 
    I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. 
    II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. 
    III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building. 
    Which of the statements given above are correct? 
    [A] I and II only [B] I and III only [C] II and III only [D] I, II and III
  • India–Trinidad and Tobago Agreements 

    Why in the News

    S. Jaishankar visited Trinidad and Tobago, and both countries signed eight Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) in sectors including tourism, healthcare, infrastructure, and Ayurveda.

    Key Agreements Signed

    The MoUs covered areas such as:

    • Tourism cooperation
    • Healthcare and prosthetics
    • Infrastructure development
    • Vector control
    • Ayurveda promotion
    • Solarisation projects

    Important Projects

    • National Prosthetics Centre: Inaugurated jointly in Penal, Trinidad and Tobago
    • Indian Chair on Ayurveda: To be established at University of the West Indies
    • Nelson Island Infrastructure Upgrade
      • Restoration and infrastructure support for Nelson Island
      • Historically linked to Indian indentured immigrants
    • Agro Processing Facility: Machinery support worth:
      • 1 million US dollars provided by India
    • Laptop Distribution Initiative: India handed over the first batch of 2,000 laptops to schoolchildren

    About Trinidad and Tobago

    • Island nation in the Caribbean Sea
    • Capital: Port of Spain
    • Member of: CARICOM

    About CARICOM

    • Regional grouping of Caribbean countries
    • Objective: Economic integration and cooperation
  • Hypersonic Cruise Missile Scramjet Test 

    Why in the News

    Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully tested the actively cooled scramjet combustor of a new hypersonic cruise missile at the Scramjet Connect Pipe Test facility in Hyderabad.

    Key Achievement

    • DRDO achieved: 1,200 second runtime of the scramjet combustor
    • Previous successful test: 700 plus seconds in January 2026

    About Hypersonic Cruise Missile

    • Missile capable of travelling at:
      • More than Mach 5
      • Over five times the speed of sound
    • Approximate speed:
      • Above 6,100 km per hour

    What is a Scramjet Engine? 

    • Full Form: Supersonic Combustion Ramjet
    • Air breathing engine using:
      • Supersonic airflow during combustion
    • Operates efficiently at hypersonic speeds (Speed:5 Mach) 
    • Uses atmospheric oxygen instead of carrying oxidiser
    • Suitable for:
      • Hypersonic missiles
      • Advanced aerospace systems

    Countries Developing Hypersonic Technology

    • India
    • United States
    • Russia
    • China
    [UPSC 2009] In the context of Indian defence, consider the following statements: 
    1. The Shourya missile flies with a speed of more than 8 Mach. 
    2. The range of Shourya missile is more than 1600 km. 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  • [9th May 2026] The Hindu OpED: A watershed moment in India’s defence posture

    PYQ Relevance[UPSC 2016] The terms ‘Hot Pursuit’ and ‘Surgical Strikes’ are often used in connection with armed action against terrorist attacks. Discuss the strategic impact of such actions.Linkage: Operation Sindoor directly reflects India’s evolving doctrine of calibrated retaliation, cross-border counter-terror operations, and escalation management under a nuclear overhang. The topic links with GS-III microthemes of Internal Security, Border Management, Counter-Terrorism, Defence Preparedness, and Strategic Deterrence.

    Mentor’s Comment

    Operation Sindoor marks a major shift in India’s national security doctrine. The operation reflects the movement from “strategic restraint” to calibrated military retaliation against cross-border terrorism. India reportedly carried out deep, coordinated strikes against terror infrastructure and military assets in Pakistan despite the risks associated with escalation between two nuclear-armed neighbours. It signals the emergence of a new strategic doctrine centred on deterrence, rapid response, military integration, and indigenous defence preparedness.

    How does Operation Sindoor signify a shift from “strategic restraint” to proactive deterrence?

    1. Doctrinal Shift: Replaces India’s earlier “dossier diplomacy” and restrained retaliation approach with direct punitive military action against terror infrastructure.
    2. Zero-Tolerance Policy: Treats cross-border terrorism as an “act of war,” thereby lowering India’s threshold for calibrated retaliation.
    3. Political Resolve: Demonstrates political willingness to undertake high-risk military operations despite nuclear escalation concerns.
    4. Deterrence Signalling: Establishes costs for state-sponsored terrorism through visible and rapid retaliation.
    5. Strategic Messaging: Signals that India will no longer remain constrained by fears of nuclear blackmail.
    6. Pahalgam Trigger: Uses the April 22, 2025 Pahalgam terror attack as the immediate catalyst for doctrinal transformation.

    How did integrated military operations enhance India’s operational effectiveness?

    1. Jointness: Ensures coordinated functioning of the Indian Air Force, Indian Army, and Indian Navy during multi-domain operations.
    2. Air Dominance: Facilitates deep strikes against targets including Nur Khan, Sargodha, Murid, and Bholari.
    3. Naval Deployment: Strengthens maritime deterrence through Indian naval positioning near Karachi.
    4. Drone Neutralisation: Enables interception of Pakistani drone attacks through integrated air-defence systems.
    5. S-400 Deployment: Enhances layered air defence and denies hostile access to Indian airspace.
    6. Escalation Control: Maintains calibrated military pressure while avoiding uncontrolled conflict expansion
    7. Rapid Response Capability: Demonstrates India’s ability to execute simultaneous high-intensity operations across theatres.

    How does the operation reflect evolving escalation management under a nuclear overhang?

    1. Escalation Dominance: Demonstrates India’s ability to impose military costs while controlling conflict intensity.
    2. Calibrated Retaliation: Ensures proportional targeting focused on terror and strategic infrastructure.
    3. Coercive Diplomacy: Pressurises Pakistan into requesting a ceasefire after sustained military setbacks.
    4. Nuclear Threshold Management: Challenges the earlier assumption that nuclear deterrence would prevent conventional retaliation.
    5. Strategic Signalling: Communicates India’s willingness to act despite risks associated with nuclear adversaries.
    6. Termination Timing: Concludes operations after achieving limited strategic objectives, thereby preventing prolonged escalation.
    7. Military Preparedness: Reflects enhanced readiness for high-tempo warfare under complex strategic conditions.

    Why is Operation Sindoor considered a major strategic and psychological signal?

    1. New Normal: Institutionalises rapid punitive retaliation as part of India’s future counter-terror doctrine.
    2. Psychological Deterrence: Increases uncertainty for terrorist groups and their state backers.
    3. Global Signalling: Demonstrates India’s military capability before the international strategic community.
    4. Narrative Shift: Challenges Pakistan’s long-standing use of proxy warfare under nuclear cover.
    5. Domestic Confidence: Reinforces public confidence in India’s military and political leadership.
    6. Transparency Era: Limits information control through digital scrutiny, satellite imagery, and global defence analysis.
    7. Civil-Military Synergy: Highlights coordination between political leadership and military command structures.

    How can Operation Sindoor accelerate indigenous defence reforms and Atmanirbharta?

    1. Defence Industrialisation: Strengthens the need for rapid expansion of indigenous defence manufacturing.
    2. Atmanirbharta: Encourages domestic production under the “Innovate, Design and Manufacture” framework.
    3. Private Sector Participation: Expands the role of MSMEs, startups, and private firms in defence ecosystems.
    4. Technological Innovation: Boosts investments in aerospace, cyber systems, Artificial Intelligence, and drones.
    5. DRDO Integration: Reinforces the role of Defence Research and Development Organisation laboratories in defence modernisation.
    6. Public-Private Collaboration: Enhances integration between Defence Public Sector Undertakings and private industry.
    7. Operational Readiness: Ensures sustained military preparedness through indigenous supply chains.
    8. Innovation Ecosystem: Encourages startup-led military innovation following operational success of indigenous systems.

    What are the broader geopolitical and strategic implications for India?

    1. Regional Deterrence: Strengthens India’s credibility as a decisive regional power.
    2. Counter-Terror Framework: Reframes terrorism as a direct national security threat requiring military response.
    3. Strategic Autonomy: Demonstrates independent decision-making without excessive external dependence.
    4. Military Modernisation: Accelerates reforms relating to theatre commands and integrated warfare.
    5. Global Perception: Positions India as a state willing to defend strategic red lines.
    6. Hybrid Warfare Preparedness: Highlights the growing role of drones, cyber capability, and precision systems.
    7. Civil Defence Awareness: Underlines the importance of societal preparedness during high-intensity conflicts.

    Conclusion

    Operation Sindoor marks a structural evolution in India’s national security doctrine. The operation reflects a transition toward integrated, technology-driven, and deterrence-oriented warfare. It also reinforces the importance of indigenous capability, political resolve, and civil-military coordination in addressing contemporary security threats. The long-term significance of the operation lies in its attempt to redefine strategic thresholds and establish a credible deterrence framework against cross-border terrorism.

  • Why 2023 law to appoint CEC came about, the legal challenges it faces

    Why in the News?

    The Supreme Court, while hearing challenges to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, revived debate on the independence of the Election Commission. The controversy emerged after the 2023 law overturned the Supreme Court’s Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) framework by removing the Chief Justice of India from the selection committee and replacing the position with a Union Cabinet Minister. The core issue concerns whether an executive-dominated appointment process affects the constitutional independence of the Election Commission and the principle of free and fair elections.

    Timeline: Evolution of the CEC Appointment Controversy

    1. 1950: The Constitution of India comes into force. Article 324(2) empowers Parliament to enact a law governing the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs).
    2. 1950-1991: No parliamentary law regulates appointments to the Election Commission of India (ECI). Appointments remain under executive discretion.
    3. 1991: Parliament enacts the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991.
      1. Regulates salary, tenure, and service conditions of Election Commissioners.
      2. Does not provide a framework for appointments.
    4. 2022: Petitioners file the Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India case before the Supreme Court, challenging executive dominance in appointments to the ECI.
    5. March 2023: Supreme Court delivers judgment in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023). Creates an interim appointment mechanism comprising:
      1. Prime Minister
      2. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
      3. Chief Justice of India (CJI)
    6. March 2023: Supreme Court states that the interim mechanism will continue until Parliament enacts a law under Article 324(2).
    7. December 2023: Parliament passes the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023. Key Change under 2023 Act:
      1. Replaces the Chief Justice of India in the selection committee with a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
      2. Creates a 2:1 executive majority in the committee.
    8. 2024: Multiple petitions challenge the constitutional validity of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 before the Supreme Court.
    9. 2025: Supreme Court begins detailed hearings on whether the 2023 law undermines the independence of the Election Commission and the principle of free and fair elections under the Constitution.

    How Were Election Commissioners Appointed Before 2023?

    1. Constitutional Vacuum: Article 324(2) permitted Parliament to regulate appointments through legislation, but no law was enacted for decades.
    2. Executive Dominance: Appointments remained under executive control through recommendations routed by the Union Law Ministry to the Prime Minister and President.
    3. Bureaucratic Preference: Election Commissioners were largely selected from senior civil servants, with the senior-most Election Commissioner usually elevated as CEC.
    4. 1991 Act Limitation: The Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991 regulated salaries, tenure, and service conditions but did not govern appointments.
    5. Institutional Concern: Petitioners in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India argued that executive-led appointments compromised institutional neutrality and electoral fairness.

    Why Did the Supreme Court Intervene in the Anoop Baranwal Case?

    1. Institutional Independence: The Court emphasized that free and fair elections require an independent Election Commission insulated from political interference.
    2. Legislative Inaction: The Court criticized Parliament’s prolonged failure to enact a law despite explicit constitutional mandate under Article 324(2).
    3. Constitutional Morality: The judgment reinforced democratic accountability and separation of powers.
    4. Interim Appointment Mechanism: The Court directed that appointments would be made by a committee comprising:
      1. Prime Minister
      2. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
      3. Chief Justice of India
    5. Judicial Safeguard: Inclusion of the CJI ensured neutrality and reduced risks of partisan appointments.
    6. Institutional Strengthening: The Court made a “fervent appeal” for strengthening the Election Commission institutionally and financially.

    What Changes Did the 2023 Law Introduce?

    1. Selection Committee Revision: The 2023 law replaced the CJI with a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
    2. Executive Majority: The selection committee now consists of:
      1. Prime Minister
      2. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM
      3. Leader of Opposition
    3. Numerical Dominance: The executive effectively controls two out of three seats in the committee.
    4. Legal Protection Clause: The Act states that appointments cannot be invalidated merely due to vacancy or defects in the committee’s composition.
    5. Legislative Override: Parliament effectively replaced the Supreme Court’s interim mechanism with a statutory framework favoring executive primacy.

    Why Is the 2023 Law Facing Constitutional Challenge?

    1. Electoral Neutrality Concern: Petitioners argue that executive dominance undermines the independence of the Election Commission.
    2. Basic Structure Question: Challenges invoke principles of free and fair elections, judicial independence, and democracy as part of the Constitution’s basic structure.
    3. Conflict with Judicial Spirit: Critics contend that the law dilutes safeguards established in the Anoop Baranwal judgment.
    4. Separation of Powers Issue: Removal of the CJI is viewed as reducing institutional checks on executive discretion.
    5. Democratic Credibility: Concerns persist regarding public trust in electoral administration.

    How Does This Debate Affect India’s Democratic Framework?

    1. Electoral Legitimacy: Independent election management ensures acceptance of electoral outcomes.
    2. Constitutional Governance: The issue tests the balance between Parliament’s legislative authority and constitutional safeguards.
    3. Institutional Trust: Public confidence in the Election Commission affects democratic participation.
    4. Global Democratic Image: India’s standing as the world’s largest democracy depends significantly on perceived electoral integrity.
    5. Precedent for Other Institutions: The case may influence future debates on appointments to constitutional bodies such as:
      1. CBI
      2. Lokpal
      3. Information Commissions

    What Are the Key Constitutional and Legal Provisions Involved?

    1. Article 324: Vests superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission.
    2. Article 324(2): Allows Parliament to enact a law regulating appointment of Election Commissioners.
    3. Basic Structure Doctrine: Protects democracy, rule of law, judicial review, and free and fair elections.
    4. 1991 Act: Governs salaries and conditions of service but originally excluded appointment procedures.
    5. 2023 Act: Introduces statutory framework for appointments and committee structure.

    Conclusion

    The controversy surrounding the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 highlights the larger constitutional challenge of balancing executive authority with institutional independence. Since free and fair elections form part of the Constitution’s basic structure, the credibility of the Election Commission remains central to democratic legitimacy. The Supreme Court’s decision in the ongoing challenge will shape the future of electoral reforms, constitutional governance, and public trust in democratic institutions.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2022] Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct.

    Linkage: The PYQ is directly linked to the independence, neutrality, and constitutional status of the Election Commission of India (ECI). The 2023 CEC Appointment Act and Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India debate examine whether executive-controlled appointments can affect free and fair elections and ECI credibility.

  • How the charkha came to embody Gandhi and Tagore’ deepest disagreements

    Why in the News?

    Rabindranath Tagore’s 165th birth anniversary has renewed focus on his intellectual disagreements with Mahatma Gandhi, particularly over the symbolism of the charkha during the freedom movement. The debate remains highly relevant because contemporary politics across the world increasingly invokes civilisational nationalism, cultural identity, and economic self-reliance in ways similar to early 20th-century anti-colonial movements. 

    Why did the Gandhi-Tagore relationship evolve into an ideological conflict?

    1. Nationalism Debate: Gandhi prioritised mass mobilisation against colonialism, while Tagore feared aggressive nationalism could suppress universal humanism.
    2. Different Intellectual Foundations: Gandhi drew from ethical politics, rural reconstruction, and civil resistance; Tagore emphasised cosmopolitanism, creativity, and intellectual freedom.
    3. Post-Jallianwala Context: The divide widened after the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
    4. Renunciation of Knighthood: Tagore renounced his British knighthood after the massacre, signalling moral opposition to colonialism while still differing with Gandhi’s methods.
    5. Mass Politics vs Individual Freedom: Gandhi viewed collective discipline as necessary for anti-colonial struggle; Tagore warned against suppression of independent thought.

    How did the charkha become the centre of their disagreement?

    1. Political Symbolism: Gandhi transformed the charkha into a symbol of swadeshi, self-reliance, and resistance to British industrial goods.
    2. Congress Institutionalisation: In 1924, Gandhi proposed compulsory spinning for Congress workers and required members to wear khadi.
    3. Economic Resistance: Hand-spinning challenged British textile imports and revived rural employment.
    4. Moral Discipline: Gandhi linked spinning with simplicity, dignity of labour, and ethical citizenship.
    5. Tagore’s Critique: Tagore argued that excessive emphasis on spinning reduced creativity and narrowed the broader goals of freedom.

    Why did Tagore oppose the centrality of the charkha?

    1. Intellectual Freedom: Tagore rejected the idea that one activity should define patriotism or national participation.
    2. Critique of Mechanical Uniformity: He argued that compulsory spinning encouraged conformity over creativity.
    3. Essay ‘The Cult of the Charkha’: Tagore criticised the elevation of spinning into a quasi-religious national ritual.
    4. Fear of Isolationism: Tagore warned that rejection of modern industrial civilisation could isolate India economically and intellectually.
    5. Universal Humanism: He believed nationalism should not undermine openness to global knowledge and cultural exchange.

    How did Gandhi defend the charkha against Tagore’s criticism?

    1. Mass Employment: Gandhi argued that spinning addressed rural unemployment and poverty.
    2. Symbol of Equality: The charkha enabled participation across caste, class, and gender lines.
    3. Ethical Economics: Gandhi viewed decentralised production as morally superior to exploitative industrial capitalism.
    4. Response through ‘The Poet and the Charkha’ (1925): Gandhi replied that Tagore misunderstood the suffering of India’s villages.
    5. Constructive Programme: Gandhi linked spinning with village upliftment, self-respect, and national discipline.

    What larger philosophical differences emerged from the debate?

    1. View of Modernity: Gandhi criticised industrial modernity for creating inequality and exploitation; Tagore accepted modern science and international engagement.
    2. Role of the Individual: Tagore prioritised artistic freedom and diversity of thought; Gandhi emphasised collective sacrifice.
    3. Economic Vision: Gandhi advocated village-centred decentralised economies; Tagore supported balanced engagement with modern industry.
    4. Approach to Nationalism: Gandhi used nationalism as a mobilising force; Tagore warned against chauvinism and cultural rigidity.
    5. Educational Philosophy: Tagore’s Visva-Bharati model promoted global learning and creativity, contrasting with Gandhi’s emphasis on craft-centred education.

    Why does the Gandhi-Tagore debate remain relevant today?

    1. Civilisational Politics: Contemporary debates on cultural nationalism mirror earlier tensions between identity and universalism.
    2. Self-Reliance Discourse: Policies centred on economic nationalism revive questions raised during the swadeshi movement.
    3. Democratic Dissent: Their respectful disagreements demonstrate the importance of intellectual pluralism in democracy.
    4. Development Debate: The tension between industrial growth and decentralised sustainability remains unresolved.
    5. Ethics of Nationalism: The debate highlights the need to balance patriotism with openness, diversity, and constitutional values.

    Conclusion

    The Gandhi-Tagore debate transcended the immediate question of the charkha and evolved into a larger conversation on the meaning of freedom, nationalism, and human progress. Gandhi sought moral regeneration through collective discipline and self-reliance, while Tagore defended intellectual freedom and universal humanism. Their disagreement demonstrated that democratic nation-building requires both ethical conviction and openness to dissent.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2023] What was the difference between Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore in their approach towards education and nationalism?

    Linkage: The PYQ directly overlaps with the Gandhi-Tagore debate on charkha, nationalism, modernity, and individual freedom discussed in the article. It helps in understanding ideological diversity within the freedom struggle, a recurring UPSC theme under Gandhian thought and nationalist discourse.

  • Cyphostemma annamalaii 

    Why in the News?

    Researchers from Annamalai University discovered a new plant species named Cyphostemma annamalaii in the southern Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu.

    About Cyphostemma annamalaii

    • Newly discovered plant species belonging to: Vitaceae (grape family)
    • Found in: Tropical dry forests of the southern Eastern Ghats
    • Habitat:
      • Open scrubby vegetation
      • Dry forest ecosystems

    About the Vitaceae Family

    Vitaceae

    • Commonly known as: Grape family
    • Includes climbing plants and vines
    • Economically important due to grape cultivation

    About Eastern Ghats

    • Discontinuous mountain range along eastern India
    • Passes through:
      • Odisha
      • Andhra Pradesh
      • Telangana
      • Karnataka
      • Tamil Nadu
    • Known for rich biodiversity and endemic species
    [2016] With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: 
    1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India. 
    2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India. 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
    a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
  • JANANI Platform 

    Why in the News?

    The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the JANANI Platform to strengthen digital maternal and child healthcare monitoring in India.

    About JANANI (Journey of Antenatal, Natal and Neonatal Integrated Care) Platform

    • A service-oriented digital platform for monitoring maternal and child healthcare services. 
    • Upgraded version of the existing: Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Portal

    Objective

    • Comprehensive digital tracking of women during reproductive age by QR Enabled Mother and Child Health Cards
    • Covers:
      • Antenatal care
      • Delivery preparedness
      • Postnatal care
      • Newborn care
      • Family planning services
    • Smart Tracking and Alerts of 
      • High risk pregnancies
      • Due health services
      • Immunisation schedules
    • Real time dashboards for monitoring
    [2023] Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : 
    1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 
    2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 
    3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 
    4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. 
    How many of the statements given above are correct? 
    [A] Only one [B] Only two [C] Only three [D] All four
  • Geocell 

    Why in the News

    CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI) and Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) were recognised by the India Book of Records and Asia Book of Records for constructing the first roadblock section using technical textile geocell made from end of life plastic.

    About Geocell

    • A three dimensional cellular confinement system used in geotechnical engineering
    • Designed to improve:
      • Soil stability
      • Load bearing capacity
      • Structural reinforcement

    Structure of Geocell

    • Consists of interconnected honeycomb shaped cells
    • Made from geosynthetic materials such as:
      • High Density Polyethylene (HDPE)
      • Polyester

    Working Mechanism

    • Cells are expanded on site to form a mattress like layer
    • Filled with materials such as: Soil, Sand, Aggregate, and Clay
    • After compaction:
      • The geocell integrates with underlying soil
      • Creates a reinforced and stable structure
    [2020] In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint? 
    1. Copper slag 
    2. Cold mix asphalt technology 
    3. Geotextiles Hot mix asphalt technology 
    4. Portland cement 
    Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
    a) 1, 2 and 3 only 
    b) 2, 3 and 4 only 
    c) 4 and 5 only 
    d) 1 and 5 only

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