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  • Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2026

    Why in News?

    NITI Aayog has released the second edition of the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2026, providing a comprehensive assessment of the fiscal performance of Indian States during FY 2023–24. The report expands its coverage to include 10 North-Eastern and Himalayan States, in addition to the 18 major States assessed in the inaugural edition.

    Key Highlights

    • Expanded coverage: Evaluates 28 States (18 major States + 10 North-Eastern and Himalayan States).
    • Purpose: Measures the fiscal health of States using a transparent and data-driven framework.
    • Fiscal significance: States account for nearly two-thirds of public expenditure and about one-third of the general government debt.
    • Key finding: Most States recorded moderate fiscal performance, with significant variations across regions.
    • Recommendations: Improve own tax revenue, rationalise committed expenditure, strengthen capital expenditure, enhance public financial management, and ensure debt sustainability.

    What is the Fiscal Health Index (FHI)?

    • The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) is an annual report released by NITI Aayog to evaluate the fiscal performance of States using objective indicators. It promotes fiscal discipline, financial sustainability, and evidence-based policymaking while encouraging States to improve public financial management.

    Key Parameters of the Fiscal Health Index

    • Quality of Expenditure
    • Revenue Mobilisation
    • Fiscal Prudence
    • Debt Management

    Significance of the Fiscal Health Index

    • Encourages competitive and cooperative federalism.
    • Helps identify strengths and weaknesses in State finances.
    • Supports informed policy decisions and fiscal reforms.
    • Promotes sustainable public finances and efficient resource allocation.
    • Enhances transparency and accountability in fiscal governance.

    Challenges Highlighted by the Report

    • Low own tax revenue in several States.
    • High committed expenditure on salaries, pensions, and interest payments.
    • Rising debt burden in some States.
    • Limited fiscal space for developmental expenditure.
    • Regional disparities in fiscal performance.

  • CBSE On Screen Marking crisis exposes gaps in evaluation transparency

    Why in the News

    The Central Board of Secondary Education’s On Screen Marking system left roughly 18 lakh Class XII students unable to access their evaluated answer scripts, with only about 4 lakh managing to view them. The Supreme Court has flagged this as a source of frustration of young minds, exposing a gap between the Board’s digital evaluation push and its duty to let students verify their own results.

      What is On Screen Marking (OSM)?

      1. Definition: On Screen Marking is a digital evaluation method where scanned answer scripts are marked by examiners on a screen instead of on paper.
      2. Objective: The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) adopted it to standardise evaluation and speed up result processing.
      3. Access problem: Students are meant to view their own scanned, marked scripts after results, but the current system does not guarantee this access at scale.
      4. CIC role: The Central Information Commission (CIC) had already advised CBSE to frame a standard operating procedure (SOP) for script access before this crisis became public.

      Why has script access broken down for most students?

      1. Capacity gap: The Board built a system that could evaluate scripts digitally but did not build matching capacity to let all students retrieve their own scripts afterward.
      2. Verification denied: Without script access, students cannot check whether their marks were recorded and totalled correctly.
      3. Court intervention: The Supreme Court’s intervention signals that the current process fails a basic due process test for an examination body.
      4. Trust deficit: The gap between the promise of a transparent digital system and the reality of restricted access has deepened student distrust in board evaluation.

      What are the challenges to CBSE’s On Screen Marking system?

      1. Server capacity: Providing 18 lakh students simultaneous access to scanned scripts requires infrastructure the Board has not demonstrated it has built.
      2. Re-evaluation load: A universal access policy will likely increase re-evaluation requests, straining CBSE’s examination machinery further.
      3. Accountability gap: No fixed timeline currently binds CBSE to release scripts or resolve discrepancies once a student flags one.
      4. Precedent for other boards: State boards using similar digital evaluation systems face the same access question, but have no shared standard to follow.
      5. Data security: Wider script access at scale raises the risk of manipulation or leakage of evaluation data if access controls are weak.

      What are the Core Safeguards Used Globally?

      1. Item-Level Marking: Slicing whole papers into isolated questions, sending each question to a different subject specialist to minimize bias or fatigue.
      2. Seed Scripts: Silently injecting pre-marked test scripts into an evaluator’s queue; failing to match the benchmark locks the user out for recalibration.
      3. Centralized Tracking: Real-time dashboards tracking marker progress, turnaround times, and statistical consistency across distributed pools.

      Conclusion

      The central issue is not the shift to digital evaluation itself but the absence of a guaranteed, time bound right for students to view their own scripts. A proposed seven day transparency framework standard operating procedure would fix the access gap, but only if CBSE is bound to a deadline rather than treating disclosure as discretionary.

      PYQ Relevance

      [UPSC 2020] National Education Policy 2020 is in conformity with the Sustainable Development Goal-4 (2030). It intends to restructure and reorient education system in India. Critically examine the statement.

      Linkage: The PYQ evaluates reforms aimed at improving quality, equity and governance in education. The OSM controversy underscores that digital reforms in education must be accompanied by transparency, accountability and robust grievance redressal to achieve quality education.

    1. Style and substance of the Saudi Arabia nuclear deal

      Why in the News

      1. The United States and Saudi Arabia have concluded a civil nuclear cooperation agreement while the wider region remains unsettled by the US Iran conflict.
      2. Saudi Arabia has not adopted the IAEA Additional Protocol, raising the question of how much oversight this new nuclear relationship actually carries.

      What is the IAEA Additional Protocol?

      1. Definition: The Additional Protocol is a legal instrument that gives the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) expanded rights to inspect and verify a country’s nuclear activities beyond its baseline safeguards agreement.
      2. Effect: A state that signs it must declare a wider range of nuclear related activities and permit broader IAEA access to sites.
      3. India’s position: India’s own Additional Protocol with the IAEA entered into force in 2014, covering only its civilian nuclear facilities.
      4. Saudi status: Saudi Arabia has not adopted the Additional Protocol, leaving its nuclear activities under a narrower verification regime than India’s.

      Why does the absence of the Additional Protocol matter here?

      1. Verification gap: Without the Additional Protocol, the IAEA has narrower legal access to confirm that Saudi nuclear material is not diverted toward weapons use.
      2. Weaponisation risk: Critics read the deal, agreed without this safeguard, as tolerating a higher proliferation risk in a volatile region.
      3. Precedent concern: Allowing a partner state nuclear cooperation without the stricter protocol could weaken the norm that such protocols are a baseline expectation.
      4. Political linkage: The Trump administration has separately linked nuclear cooperation to shifting conditions on Saudi Arabia joining the Abraham Accords.

      Conclusion

      1. The deal proceeds without the stronger IAEA verification standard that a comparable agreement, such as India’s own, already carries.
      2. Whether the absence of the Additional Protocol becomes a lasting proliferation risk depends on whether Saudi Arabia is later pressed to adopt it.

      “[2018] In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

      (b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.

      (c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

      (d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Answer: (a)”

    2. Editorial: US forced labour tariff framing as trade deal pressure

      PYQ Relevance
      [UPSC 2018]       What are the key areas of reform if the WTO has to survive in the present context of ‘Trade War’, especially keeping in mind the interest of India?
      Linkage: The PYQ examines trade wars, tariffs and their implications for India’s trade interests. The US forced-labour tariffs reflect the growing use of unilateral trade measures, highlighting the challenges posed to India amid weakening multilateral trade rules.

      Mentor’s Comment

      The United States has introduced a new tariff justified on forced labour grounds, applied unevenly across trading partners, days after halting a broader trade negotiation with India. This illustrates how trade policy is increasingly being used as a geopolitical instrument rather than solely to enforce labour standards. For India, the challenge is to protect its export interests while resisting pressure to accept unfavourable trade concessions and continuing to uphold a rules-based multilateral trading system.

      What are the Trump administration’s new tariffs imposed for forced labour concern?

      1. The Trump administration has imposed new tariffs under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974, which is designed to address unfair foreign practices affecting US commerce.
      2. Effective from July 24, the US imposed 10 per cent or 12.5 per cent tariffs on all the 60 economies, which were subject to the investigation.
      3. India and 16 other countries are subject to the lower 10 per cent tariff, while 12.5 per cent tariffs have been imposed on the remaining 43 economies.

      Why is the tariff read as pressure rather than a labour standards measure?

      1. Uneven application: Countries that already hold a trade deal with the United States receive more favourable tariff treatment, regardless of their actual labour practices.
      2. Timing: The tariff surfaced shortly after trade talks with India stalled, suggesting it functions as leverage to revive negotiations.
      3. No independent audit trail: The tariff does not rest on a published, verifiable forced labour finding specific to Indian sectors.
      4. Selective targeting: Sectors and countries without existing US trade agreements bear a disproportionate share of the tariff’s impact.

      What is at stake for India in responding to this pressure?

      1. Negotiating posture: Accepting a hasty deal under this pressure risks locking India into terms it would not otherwise accept.
      2. Sectoral exposure: Indian export sectors named under the tariff face immediate cost pressure regardless of the tariff’s actual justification.
      3. Precedent: Conceding to a tariff based on an unverified standard invites similar leverage tactics in future negotiations.

      Conclusion

      India should not treat this tariff as a genuine labour compliance issue requiring domestic reform, but as a negotiating tactic requiring a negotiating response. Response through the WTO’s dispute mechanisms remains untested here.

      1. Cabinet’s National Investment Policy for Urea (NIPU) 2026

        Why in the News?

        The Union Cabinet has approved the National Investment Policy for Urea (NIPU) 2026, restructuring the return framework for urea manufacturers to attract fresh investment in domestic capacity. This comes against an annual urea subsidy bill of Rs 1,42,175.74 crore for 2025-26.

          What are the Pillars of the National Investment Policy for Urea (NIPU) 2026?

          1. Aim: The policy aims to encourage the establishment of new gas-based urea manufacturing plants across the country to reduce dependence on imports and bridge the gap between domestic production and demand.
          2. The National Investment Policy for Urea-2026 (NIPU-2026) rests on three core pillars: cost separation, assured returns, and foreign exchange risk mitigation.
          3. Return band: The policy sets a Return on Equity (ROE) band of 12 to 16 percent for new urea manufacturing investment.
          4. Cost restructuring: It restructures how production costs are calculated and reimbursed to manufacturers.
          5. Subsidy delivery: Distribution continues through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), credited after retailers confirm sale to farmers.
          6. Self-reliance objective: The stated goal is to reduce India’s dependence on imported urea by making domestic capacity commercially viable.

          Why does urea self-reliance remain unresolved despite this policy?

          1. Subsidy scale: The current annual subsidy bill of Rs 1,42,175.74 crore reflects the price gap between controlled retail urea prices and actual production cost.
          2. Investment history: Previous urea policy revisions have not sufficiently attracted new private investment in domestic plants.
          3. Import dependence: India continues to import a share of its urea requirement despite decades of subsidy support to domestic units.
          4. Farmer price link: Retail urea prices remain fixed for farmers regardless of the ROE band offered to manufacturers.

          Conclusion

          The National Investment Policy for Urea 2026 targets manufacturer incentives rather than farm gate prices, betting that better returns on investment will draw the domestic capacity that decades of subsidy alone did not. Whether the 12 to 16 percent ROE band is sufficient to shift investment decisions remains to be tested against actual capacity additions.

          Value Addition:

          Urea Subsidy Scheme:

          Urea fertiliser subsidy in India is a central government scheme where the state fixes a low Maximum Retail Price (MRP) of ₹242 per 45-kg bag for farmers, while the government pays the remaining high production or import cost directly to manufacturers.

          Scheme Mechanics

          1. Fixed MRP: Farmers pay a low, controlled price of ₹242 per 45-kg bag (excluding taxes and neem-coating charges).
          2. Government Payout: The center pays the difference between the actual high cost of making or importing urea and the low selling price directly to the factory owners.
          3. Control: The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers manages the policy and distribution across the country.

          PYQ Relevance

          [UPSC 2023] What are the direct and indirect subsidies provided to farm sector in India? Discuss the issues raised by the World Trade Organization (WTO) in relation to agricultural subsidies.

          Linkage: The PYQ examines India’s fertiliser subsidy regime and related WTO concerns. NIPU 2026 reforms urea subsidies to boost domestic production while retaining farmer subsidies, linking directly to agricultural subsidy debates.

          1. Examination reform: Nilekani task force and Radhakrishnan committee implementation under Supreme Court watch

            The Supreme Court will consult the Nandan Nilekani-led task force at its next hearing on 3 August 2026 regarding the proposed transition of NEET-UG from a pen-and-paper examination to Computer-Based Testing (CBT). The Court is also examining the government’s progress in implementing the K. Radhakrishnan Committee’s recommendations on examination reforms.

            Key Highlights

            • Implementation review: The Centre has submitted an affidavit on the implementation status of the 101 recommendations of the K. Radhakrishnan Committee.
            • Committee recommendations:
              • 60 short-term and 35 medium/long-term reforms.
              • Restructuring of the National Testing Agency (NTA).
              • Introduction of Computer-assisted Secure Pen-and-Paper Testing (CPPT).
              • Adoption of DIGI-EXAM for secure candidate authentication.
            • Infrastructure plan: Establishment of 1,000 Secure Testing Centres across the country.
            • Related development: Concerns over examination integrity have also emerged in the Jharkhand Combined Civil Services Examination, highlighting the need for broader examination reforms.

            About the National Testing Agency (NTA)

            • Established in 2017 as an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Education.
            • Conducts major national entrance examinations such as NEET-UG, JEE Main, CUET and UGC-NET.
            • Objective is to ensure fair, transparent, efficient and technology-driven examinations.

            What is Computer-Based Testing (CBT)?

            • Candidates answer questions on a computer terminal instead of paper.
            • Responses are digitally recorded and securely transmitted.
            • Reduces risks associated with paper leaks, manual handling and evaluation delays.

            What is Computer-assisted Secure Pen-and-Paper Testing (CPPT)?

            • Question papers are generated digitally and printed securely at authorised centres shortly before the examination.
            • Minimises transportation and storage of printed question papers.
            • Reduces the possibility of paper leaks while retaining a pen-and-paper examination format.

          2. CBDT’s crypto-asset reporting guidance and India’s alignment with OECD’s CARF

            Why in the News?

            The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has released a 198 page guidance note aligning India’s crypto-asset tax reporting with the OECD’s Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF). The mandate operates under Section 509 of the Income-tax Act, 2025.

            How are crypto assets defined legally?

            1. Definition (Indian IT Legislation): India’s income tax legislation defines a “crypto-asset” as a digital representation of value that relies on a cryptographically secured distributed ledger or a similar technology to validate and secure transactions.
            2. Definition (OECD):The OECD Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF) defines crypto-assets similarly, but also includes “similar technology to validate and secure transactions, which includes cryptocurrencies, as well as cryptography- based tokens”.

            What is the Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF)?

            1. Definition: CARF is an international standard developed by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) requiring crypto-asset service providers to collect and report user transaction data to tax authorities.
            2. India’s mechanism: Section 509 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 gives CBDT the statutory basis to mandate this reporting domestically.
            3. Who reports: Exchanges and Reporting Crypto-Asset Service Providers (RCASPs) must collect and submit user transaction data.

            What are the Core Objectives Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF)?

            1. Automatic Information Exchange: Facilitates seamless cross-border sharing of taxpayer crypto transaction data between participating countries.
            2. Covered Entities: Mandates Reporting Crypto-Asset Service Providers (RCASPs), like exchanges and brokerages, to track and report user activity.
            3. Included Assets: Applies broadly to cryptocurrencies, stablecoins, certain non-fungible tokens (NFTs), and crypto derivatives.

            Why does this reporting mandate matter for crypto-asset holders?

            1. Visibility shift: Transactions previously visible only to the exchange become visible to the tax authority as well.
            2. Cross-border consistency: Aligning with CARF means data collected in India can be exchanged with other OECD-aligned tax jurisdictions.
            3. Compliance burden: Exchanges and RCASPs must build new data collection and reporting infrastructure to meet the mandate.
            4. Enforcement basis: The guidance gives CBDT a documentary basis to pursue undeclared crypto-asset income.

            What are the implications for taxpayers?

            1. No fresh reporting: The Guidance Note does not require taxpayers to make fresh disclosures directly to the Income-tax Department.
            2. Income reporting: Continue reporting crypto income under existing provisions of the Income-tax Act.
            3. Record keeping: Maintain records of purchases, sales, transfers, wallet movements, and exchange statements.
            4. Consistency: Ensure ITR disclosures match information reported by crypto exchanges (RCASPs).

            Conclusion

            The guidance closes a visibility gap that let crypto-asset transactions escape the reporting standard applied to conventional financial accounts. Its effectiveness now depends on how consistently exchanges and RCASPs implement the collection and reporting mechanics CBDT has mandated.

            PYQ Relevance

            [UPSC 2026] Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

            1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.

            2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network syncing within seconds.

            3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.

            4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

            (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only

          3. Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 taken up in Lok Sabha

            Why in News

            The Government and the Opposition reached an understanding to end the Parliament deadlock, enabling the Anti-Paper Leak Amendment Bill, 2026 to be taken up for debate in the Lok Sabha. The Bill seeks to strengthen penalties and speed up investigations to curb examination malpractices.

            Key Highlights

            • Stricter punishment: Maximum imprisonment for offences involving unfair means increased to 10 years, from the earlier 3 to 5 years.
            • Higher penalty: Maximum fine for individual offences enhanced to ₹50 lakh.
            • Organised examination fraud: Punishable with a minimum imprisonment of 7 years and a fine up to ₹10 crore.
            • Procedural reforms: Provides for fast-track courts and mandates completion of investigations within two months.
            • Companion legislation: The Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026 was also introduced during the same session.

            Background

            • The amendment strengthens the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024.
            • The Act aims to prevent paper leaks, impersonation, organised cheating and other examination-related malpractices in public examinations conducted by designated authorities.

            Objectives

            • Ensure fairness, transparency and credibility in recruitment and entrance examinations.
            • Deter organised examination fraud through stringent penalties.
            • Protect the interests of genuine candidates.
            • Improve the speed of investigation and prosecution.

            Significance

            • Enhances the integrity of public recruitment and competitive examinations.
            • Acts as a deterrent against paper leak mafias and organised crime networks.
            • Strengthens public confidence in examination systems.
            • Supports merit-based selection and good governance.

            [2026] Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
            Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?

            [A] Esprit de corps

            [B] Equity

            [C] Accountability

            [D] Delegation

          4. AI data centres’ power load to nearly double government’s earlier estimate

            Why in News

            The Ministry of Power informed Parliament that AI-driven data centres are expected to add 26.3 GW of electricity demand by 2031-32, nearly double the earlier estimate of 13.56 GW. The additional demand is proposed to be met primarily through renewable energy.

            Key Highlights

            • Revised estimate: Additional power load projected at 26.3 GW by 2031-32, up from 13.56 GW estimated earlier.
            • Renewable-powered growth: The government plans to meet most of this demand through renewable energy.
            • Rapid expansion: India’s data centre capacity is projected to increase from 2.2 GW (2025) to 12 GW by 2030 (Wood Mackenzie).
            • Digital economy: India’s digital economy is valued at around ₹32 lakh crore, contributing nearly 12% of GDP.
            • AI demand: Growth is being driven by Generative AI, cloud computing, big data analytics, fintech, e-commerce and digital public infrastructure.

            Why Do AI Data Centres Consume So Much Power?

            • AI model training requires high-performance GPUs and specialised chips.
            • Large-scale 24×7 computing and data processing significantly increase electricity demand.
            • Cooling systems account for a substantial share of total energy consumption.
            • Continuous operation requires high reliability and uninterrupted power supply.

            Significance

            • Strengthens India’s position as a global digital and AI hub.
            • Encourages investment in renewable energy, grid infrastructure and energy storage.
            • Supports growth of Digital India, semiconductor manufacturing and cloud services.
            • Creates employment in IT, engineering, power and infrastructure sectors.

            [2022, GS3, 15M] Do you think India will meet 50 percent of its energy needs from renewable energy by 2030? Justify your answer. How will the shift of subsidies from fossil fuels to renewables help achieve the above objective? Explain.”

            [2020] With the print state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?
            1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
            2. Create meaningful short stories and songs
            3. Disease diagnosis
            4. Text -to -Speech Conversion
            5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
            Select the correct answer using the code given below:

            [A] 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

            [B] 1, 3 and 4 only

            [C] 2, 4 and 5 only

            [D] 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

          5. US critical minerals self-sufficiency push collides with 2027 deadline

            Why in News

            The United States is facing challenges in achieving self-sufficiency in defence critical minerals before its January 2027 target. The effort is complicated by China’s dominance, which accounts for over 80% of global critical minerals refining capacity.

            Key Highlights

            • Target minerals: The US is prioritising rare earth elements, tungsten and tantalum for defence and high-technology manufacturing.
            • Project Vault: The US is building strategic reserves through Project Vault, a programme to stockpile critical minerals for defence and industrial security.

            What are Critical Minerals?

            • Critical minerals are minerals essential for economic development, clean energy and national security, but whose supply chains are vulnerable to disruption.
            • They are indispensable for semiconductors, batteries, electric vehicles, renewable energy systems, aerospace and defence equipment.

            Importance of the Target Minerals

            • Rare Earth Elements (REEs): Used in permanent magnets, fighter aircraft, missiles, radar systems, wind turbines and electric vehicles.
            • Tungsten: Known for its high melting point and hardness; used in armour-piercing ammunition, aerospace components and cutting tools.
            • Tantalum: Used in electronic capacitors, semiconductors, medical devices and defence electronics because of its excellent heat and corrosion resistance.

            Why China Dominates

            • Controls a large share of mining, refining and processing capacity.
            • Built an integrated mine-to-manufacturing supply chain over several decades.
            • Benefits from state support, advanced processing technology and economies of scale.
            • Has previously used export restrictions as a strategic tool in geopolitical disputes.

            Why It Matters

            • Critical minerals are essential for national security, defence preparedness and advanced manufacturing.
            • Supply disruptions can affect clean energy transitions, semiconductor production and military readiness.
            • Diversifying supply chains has become a strategic priority for the US, EU, Japan, India and Australia.

            India’s Position

            • India has identified 30 critical minerals as strategically important.
            • The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) aims to strengthen exploration, mining, processing, recycling and overseas acquisition of critical mineral assets.
            • India is also diversifying imports through partnerships under initiatives such as the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP).

            [2026] Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

            1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).

            2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.

            3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.

            4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

            (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

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