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  • Advisory boards under preventive detention laws are not rubber stamps for the government: Supreme Court

    Why in the news? 

    Recently  SCt said that advisory boards should act like a safety net, protecting people’s freedom from the government’s arbitrary use of power. 

    • They need to make sure there’s a balance between the government’s actions and people’s right to be free.

    About Advisory Board:

    • Article 22 of the Constitution makes it mandatory for preventive detention laws to form advisory boards consisting of persons qualified to be High Court judges.
    • Objective: It must consider whether the detention is necessary not just in the eyes of the detaining authority but also in the eyes of the law.
    • Case Background: The judgment came in an appeal filed by a man ordered by the Telangana police to be detained as a ‘goonda’ under the Telangana Prevention of Dangerous Activities Act, 1986.
    • The claim by Telangana police: The man was a threat to “public order”. He was a cause of panic and fear among women. The appellant was accused of making a habit of snatching the ‘mangalsutras’ of his victims in broad daylight.

    SC on the Appeal filed under the Telangana Prevention of Dangerous Activities Act, 1986:

    • Qualifications of Advisory Board Members: Justice Pardiwala emphasized that having qualified individuals, potentially fit to become High Court judges, on advisory boards was crucial. This ensures robust scrutiny of government detention orders.
    • Responsibilities of Advisory Boards: These boards, mandated by various laws, are required to review detention orders every three months. 
    • Substantial Evidence to justify detention: Justice Pardiwala highlighted the unfairness of depriving someone of their Personal Liberty based merely on the assumption that they might commit a crime in the future. He stressed the importance of substantial evidence to justify detention.
    • Absence of Evidence of Threat to Public Order: The Supreme Court observed that the state failed to provide sufficient material indicating that the detained individual posed a genuine threat to public order. Specifically, there was no substantial evidence linking him to activities that could disrupt public order.

    The distinction between ‘Public order’ and ‘Law and Order’, and the Preventive Detention 

    • Differentiating ‘Public Order’ and ‘Law and Order’: Justice Pardiwala highlighted the distinction between ‘law and order’ issues, which affect only a few individuals, and ‘public order’ concerns, which have a broader impact on the community or even the entire country.
    • Limitations on Preventive Detention: The SC emphasized that preventive detention should only be utilized in exceptional circumstances.  
    • Quashing of Detention Order: Justice Pardiwala ordered the quashing of the detention order against the appellant based on the absence of his direct involvement in any of the First Information Reports (FIRs).  

    Conclusion: The Supreme Court emphasizes advisory boards in preventive detention laws aren’t mere rubber stamps for the government but safeguards for personal liberty. They must ensure the necessity of detention, backed by substantial evidence, and limit preventive detention to exceptional circumstances.

    Mains question for practice

    Q Discuss the recent Supreme Court ruling emphasizing the role of advisory boards in preventive detention laws ( 150 words ) 

  • Tech giants facing EU scrutiny

    Why in the news? 

    The European Commission has initiated investigations into major tech companies like Apple, Meta, Google’s parent Alphabet, and Amazon to enforce fair and competitive markets in the digital industry, following the regulations of the Digital Markets Act (DMA).

     

    What is the European Commission? 

    The European Commission is the executive arm of the European Union responsible for proposing and enforcing legislation, managing EU policies and spending programs, ensuring the proper application of EU laws, and representing the EU internationally.

    About Gatekeepers: It refers to significant market players in the digital sector who hold considerable market power and provide core platform services. In September 2023, several tech companies, including Alphabet, Amazon, Apple, ByteDance (TikTok’s parent company), and Microsoft, were designated as ‘gatekeepers,’ expected to comply fully with DMA obligations by March 7 of the following year.

    DMA’s Objective: The investigations align with the Digital Markets Act’s (DMA) goal to regulate ‘gatekeepers’ in the digital market and ensure fair competition and consumer access.

     

    Where is the context of these non-compliance investigations?

    • Investigations into Tech Giants: Alphabet (Google), Apple, and Meta (formerly Facebook) are facing investigations over alleged violations related to unfair competitive practices.
    • Specific Allegations: Alphabet is being investigated for steering customers towards its in-house services, Apple for similar practices in its App Store and Safari browser, Meta for its “pay or consent model.”

    Steering rules are Non-Compliant:

    • DMA Provisions: The Digital Markets Act (DMA) allows app developers to direct consumers to offers and services outside the gatekeeper’s app store without any charge.
    • Commission’s Concerns: The European Commission expressed concerns about Alphabet (Google) and Apple’s noncompliance with DMA provisions, citing various restrictions and limitations imposed by these companies.
    • Apple’s Defense: Apple defended its tight integration with the App Store, claiming it’s necessary for a secure and seamless user experience 

    Present Challenges with Tech-giants:

    • Alphabet engaging in self-preferencing:
      • Investigation on Google search: The Commission is investigating whether Google’s search results are discriminatory, particularly whether Google favors its own verticals over rival services, a practice known as self-preferencing 
      • U.S. Department of Justice’s Accusation: In October 2020, the U.S. Department of Justice (DoJ) accused Google of unlawfully maintaining monopolies in the search and search advertising markets through anti-competitive and exclusionary practices. 
    • Apple enabling choice:
      • European Commission’s Investigation on IOS: The Commission is assessing whether Apple allows users to uninstall pre-installed or default software applications on iOS easily.  
      • Concerns Over User Choice: The investigation stems from concerns that Apple’s measures may prevent users from effectively exercising their choice of services within the Apple ecosystem.  
    • Concerns about Meta’s model:
      • Meta’s Subscription Model: Meta (formerly Facebook) introduced a subscription model in the European Union (EU), European Economic Area (EEA), and Switzerland. This model offered users the choice to use Facebook and Instagram without ads by subscribing to a paid service.
      • Commission’s Concerns:  It expressed concerns that the binary choice offered by the model may not provide a real alternative for users who do not consent to personalized advertising. Consequently, the Commission doubted whether the model effectively prevented the accumulation of personal data by gatekeepers, as intended.

    How will non-compliant companies be penalized?

    • Potential Penalties: The companies under investigation face significant fines of up to 10% of their global turnover or 20% in the case of repeated infringements.
    • Consequences of Systematic Infringement: If the investigation uncovers systematic infringement, the companies may be required to divest certain business units or sell parts of their business. Additionally, they could face a ban from acquiring related additional services.

    Conclusion 

    EU investigates tech giants like Apple, Meta, Alphabet, and Amazon for unfair practices under the Digital Markets Act. Concerns arise over violations, including self-preferencing and restricting user choice. Penalties may include hefty fines and divestments for non-compliance.

    Mains PYQ

    Q Elucidate the relationship between globalization and new technology in a world of scarce resources, with special reference to India. (UPSC IAS/2022)

    Q  Examine the impact of liberalization on companies owned by Indians. Are they competing with the MNCs satisfactorily? Discuss. (UPSC IAS/2013)

  • The countdown to a pandemic treaty

    Why in the news?

    In March 2021, a call for a pandemic treaty by 25 heads of government and international agencies marked a pivotal moment. The WHO Pandemic Agreement’s final negotiations began last week. With approval pending in May, its fate remains uncertain amid debates.

    Key features of Pandemic Agreement

    • Aim of the Pandemic Agreement: Address systemic failures revealed by COVID-19 crisis, strengthen global defenses, and prevent future pandemics from escalating into catastrophic human crises. Focus on pandemic prevention, preparedness, and response with equity as the goal.
    • Coverage of Issues: Includes pathogen surveillance, healthcare workforce capacity, supply chain and logistics, technology transfer for vaccine production, and waivers of intellectual property rights. Aims to strengthen surveillance for pathogens with pandemic potential and manage antimicrobial resistance.
    • Equitable Access: Emphasis on equitable access to medical products across provisions, including language on principles, preparedness, production, technology transfer, access, benefit-sharing, supply, and procurement.
    • Establishment of Conference of Parties (COP): Proposed establishment to oversee the implementation of the Pandemic Agreement 

    Disagreements between Developing countries and Developed countries 

    • Developing vs. Developed Countries’ Perspectives: Developing countries largely embrace the revised negotiating text, emphasizing equity and clarity on obligations vs. responsibilities. Developed countries criticize the text, particularly regarding financing and intellectual property issues, considering them ‘redlines’.
    • Disagreements: Major substantive disagreements exist alongside general disagreement on negotiation modalities. Developing countries, represented by India among others, stress the importance of clarity on obligations to operationalize equity within the Agreement.

    Concerns related Pandemic Agreement

    • Equity Concerns:  Dissatisfaction among developed countries and the pharmaceutical industry regarding access and benefit-sharing provisions.
    • Global Governance and Enforcement Challenges: Lack of adequate enforcement mechanisms poses a significant challenge. Without robust enforcement, the Agreement risks being symbolic. Enforcement capabilities are vital for coordination efforts, stockpile management, medical response teams, and data sharing.
    • Issues related to technology transfer: Even with consensus on key issues like technology transfer and intellectual property waivers, the Agreement may be ineffective without robust enforcement mechanisms.
    • International Health Regulations (IHR): Existing IHR are legally binding but failed to prevent unjust travel restrictions, vaccine hoarding during COVID-19. Proposals for a decision-making body and a secretariat within the Agreement aim to address these shortcomings.

    Way Forward:

    • Negotiations Conclusion: The current round of negotiations in Geneva is set to conclude this week, to achieve a consensus decision by the World Health Assembly by the end of May.
    • Diluted Agreement: The possibility of a diluted Agreement looms large as there is pressure to achieve consensus. Contentious issues like intellectual property (IP) waivers may have diluted language, referring to national circumstances and using non-binding terms like “best endeavor.”
    • Collective Effort: The Agreement acknowledges that no single government or institution can tackle the threat of future pandemics alone, emphasizing the importance of international collaboration and cooperation.

    Conclusion: The Pandemic Agreement aims to address COVID-19 failures, emphasizing equity and preparedness. Disagreements persist, especially on access and enforcement. Negotiations aim for consensus, but risks of dilution remain amid pressure for agreement.

    Mains PYQ

    Q  COVID-19 pandemic has caused unprecedented devastation worldwide. However, technological advancements are being availed readily to win over the crisis. Give an account of how technology was sought to aid management of the pandemic. (UPSC IAS/2020)

    Q  Critically examine the role of WHOin providing global health security during the Covid-19 pandemic. (UPSC IAS/2020)

  • Why are Rohingya refugees risking their lives at sea? | Explained

    Why in the news?

    The recent incident involving a wooden boat carrying nearly 150 Rohingya refugees capsizing off the Indonesian coast last week has once more spotlighted the dire situation faced by these refugees.

    • According to the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR), more than 4,500 Rohingya refugees started risky trips across the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea last year.

    Who are the Rohingya refugees?

    The Rohingya are a group of Muslims who come from the area called Arakan in Myanmar, which used to be called Burma. The word “Rohingya” comes from combining “Arakan” with “ga” or “gya,” which means “from” in the Rohingya language.

    About Rohingya Crises:

    • Labeled as ‘illegal immigrants’: Rohingya claim ancestral ties to Myanmar’s Rakhine State, but successive governments dispute this, labeling them illegal immigrants from Bangladesh.
    • Distinct from the majority: They are culturally and religiously distinct from the majority Buddhist population in Myanmar because Rohingya speak a Bengali dialect, which is different from the common Burmese language.
    • Strict criteria for citizenship: Myanmar has denied Rohingya recognition as an ethnic group and citizenship since 1982. Myanmar’s 1982 citizenship law imposes strict criteria for citizenship, requiring proof of ancestors residing in Myanmar before 1823.
    • World’s largest stateless population: Consequently, Rohingya are considered the world’s largest stateless population, lacking fundamental rights and security.

    Why have Rohingyas fled their homeland?

    • Military crackdown: Decades of discrimination, violence, and persecution by security forces in Myanmar. Significant numbers of Rohingyas began fleeing Myanmar in 2012 after a military crackdown triggered by the rape and murder of a Rakhine woman in a Rohingya-dominated area, leading to tensions between Rohingyas and Rakhine’s Buddhist community.
    • largest exodus: The largest exodus occurred in August 2017 following a massive wave of violence in Rakhine, driving over 750,000 people to seek sanctuary in Bangladesh.
    • UN fact-finding commission: The United Nations described the 2017 violence as “ethnic cleansing” and the humanitarian situation as “catastrophic. In 2018, the UN fact-finding commission concluded that the Myanmar government had “genocidal” intent against the Rohingya

    Why they are choosing sea journeys?

    • Overcrowded refugee Camp: An estimated 9,60,000 Rohingya reside in refugee camps in Bangladesh, particularly near the Myanmar border in Cox’s Bazar, which houses some of the world’s largest and most densely populated refugee camps.
    • Susceptible to weather disasters and outbreaks: The camps are highly susceptible to weather-related disasters and outbreaks of diseases due to unsanitary conditions, as well as security concerns such as gang violence and arson attacks. For example, over 60 Rohingya were killed in Bangladeshi camp clashes in 2023
    • Returning to Myanmar impossible: With the option of returning to Myanmar virtually impossible and worsening conditions in relief camps in Bangladesh, an increasing number of Rohingya are undertaking dangerous sea journeys across the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea.

    The Rohingya Population in India:

    • Groups of Rohingya people are found in Jammu, Hyderabad, and Delhi-NCR, as well as in the states of Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
    • According to the Ministry of Home Affairs, India hosts over 40,000 Rohingya individuals. Among them, only 14,000 possess United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) refugee ID cards, providing them with protection against random arrest or detention.

     Legal provisions regarding ‘Refugees’ in India:

    • No specific law: In India, there is no specific law enacted solely for refugees. Consequently, Rohingya refugees are frequently categorized alongside illegal immigrants and deported by the Government under the Foreigners Act, 1946, and the Foreigners Order, 1948.
    • Right to deport: Section 3 of The Foreigners Act, 1946 gives the Central government the right to deport a foreign national.

    Conclusion: Rohingya refugees risk sea journeys due to impossible return to Myanmar and dire conditions in overcrowded camps. In India, with no specific refugee law, they face deportation under existing immigration acts.

    Mains PYQ

    Q At the international level, the bilateral relations between most nations are governed on the policy of promoting one’s own national interest without any regard for the interest of other nations. This leads to conflicts and tensions between the nations. How can ethical consideration help resolve such tensions? Discuss with specific examples. (150 words) UPSC IAS/2015

    Source 

  • Discovery of Amino Acid unveils How Light makes Stomata Open in Plants

    Why in the news?

    Scientists from Nagoya University have made a discovery about the regulation of Stomatal opening in plants, a process vital for efficient photosynthesis by a type of amino acid threonine (Thr881).

    What are Stomatal Openings?

    • Stomata are microscopic pores on plant leaves crucial for gas exchange.
    • They particularly uptake carbon dioxide necessary for photosynthesis.

    How does Light make Stomata Open?

    • Research unveiled a novel regulatory mechanism involving the phosphorylation of the 881st threonine residue (Thr881) of the plasma membrane proton pump in response to red and blue light.
    • Phosphorylation, a process involving the addition or removal of a phosphate group from amino acids, acts as a regulatory switch, influencing protein structure and function.
    • The researchers focused on the phosphorylation of Thr881 and its role in stomatal opening.
    • They observed phosphorylation in response to both red and blue light conditions, highlighting the interplay between photosynthesis and light signaling.

    Significance of Thr881 Phosphorylation

    • Mutant studies confirmed the critical role of Thr881 phosphorylation in stomatal opening.
    • Plants expressing a mutant proton pump lacking Thr881 phosphorylation exhibited reduced stomatal aperture and transpiration rates, emphasizing the regulatory significance of this amino acid residue.
    • The study identified Thr881, along with Thr948, as crucial phosphorylation sites for the activation of the enzyme H+-ATPase, essential for stomatal opening.
    • Manipulating Thr881 could offer avenues for promoting plant growth, enhancing carbon dioxide absorption, and reducing fertilizer usage.

    PYQ:

    2014: Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

    a)    Potential energy is released to form free energy

    b)    Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored

    c)    Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water

    d)    Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

     

    Practice MCQ:

    What is the significance of phosphorylation of the threonine residue (Thr881) in the context of plants?

    a)    It helps in reducing carbon dioxide uptake and photosynthesis efficiency.

    b)    It enhances photosynthesis in dark conditions.

    c)    It reduces transpiration leading to enhanced water conservation.

    d)    It is essential for regulating stomatal aperture and facilitating gas exchange in plants.

  • T + 0 Settlement System kick starts today

    Why in the news?

    India’s stock market will begin the with a ‘beta version’ of T+0 settlement system (same day settlement) from today. This is the world’s fastest stock settlement system.

    About T+0 Settlement Cycle

    • SEBI has planned to introduce the shorter cycle in two phases:
    1. T+0 Settlement Details: In Phase 1, trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
    2. Instant Settlement Mechanics: Phase 2 envisages immediate trade-by-trade settlement, with trading continuing until 3:30 PM.

    Features of the T+0 Settlement Mechanism

    • Early Pay-In Trend: A large percentage of retail investors already make early pay-ins of funds and securities, indicating readiness for instant settlement.
    • Instant Receipt Benefits: The mechanism enables instant receipt of funds and securities, reducing settlement shortages and enhancing investor control.
    • Investor Protection: Direct crediting of funds and securities into investors’ accounts, especially for UPI clients, strengthens investor protection.

    Settlement Cycle: A Quick History  

     

    • SEBI shortened the settlement cycle from T+5 to T+3 in 2002, and then to T+2 in 2003.
    • The T+1 cycle was introduced in 2021 and fully implemented by January 2023.
    • In T+1, the settlement of funds and securities occurs on the next day after the trade.

    Scope and Implementation of T+0

    • Initially, the T+0 settlement will be available for the top 500 listed equity shares based on market capitalization, implemented in three tranches.
    • The same surveillance measures applicable in the T+1 cycle will apply to the T+0 cycle.
    • Trade-for-trade settlement securities will NOT be eligible for T+0.

    Rationale behind T+O Cycle

    • Market Growth and Efficiency: With the significant growth in market volumes and participants, SEBI aims to enhance market efficiency and safety, especially for retail investors.
    • Technological Advancements: The evolution of payment systems like UPI and the sophistication of market infrastructure support the feasibility of shorter settlement cycles.
    • Investor Attraction: Faster transactions, reliability, and low costs are key factors that attract investors, making Indian securities a more appealing asset class.

    Benefits of the New Mechanism

    • Flexibility for Clients: The new mechanism offers faster payouts of funds to sellers and securities to buyers, providing greater flexibility and control.
    • Market Ecosystem Advantages: The faster settlement cycle is expected to enhance the operational efficiency of the securities market, benefiting the entire ecosystem.

     

    PYQ:

    2017: The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to

    a)    ASEAN

    b)    BRICS

    c)    EU

    d)    G20

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the T+0 Settlement Cycle, consider the following statements:

    1.    Trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.

    2.    Trade-for-trade settlement securities will also be eligible for T+0.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    a)    Only 1

    b)    Only 2

    c)    Both 1 and 2

    d)    Neither 1 nor 2

  • Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) discovers 5000th Comet

    Why in the news?

    A Czech citizen has spotted a comet in an image from the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) spacecraft, which has now been confirmed to be the 5,000th comet discovered using SOHO data.

    Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)

    • The SOHO is a spacecraft jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
    • Launched in December 1995, its primary mission is to study the Sun, particularly its outer atmosphere, known as the corona, and the solar wind.
    • SOHO observes the Sun in various wavelengths of light, enabling scientists to study phenomena such as sunspots, solar flares, and coronal mass ejections.
    • SOHO orbits the Sun at Lagrange Point L1, about 1.5 million kilometers (nearly 1 million miles) from Earth, providing an uninterrupted view of the Sun.
    • Its observations have led to discoveries such as-
    1. Identifying the source regions of solar wind,
    2. Tracking solar eruptions, and
    3. Monitoring changes in the Sun’s activity over its 11-year solar cycle.

     

    What are Lagrange Points?

    • Lagrange Points are named after the French mathematician Joseph-Louis Lagrange who discovered them in 1772.
    • They are specific points in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as the Earth and the Sun, or the Earth and the Moon, balance the centrifugal force felt by a smaller body.
    • These points are stable locations where objects can maintain their relative positions concerning the larger bodies, without drifting away or falling towards them.

    There are five Lagrange Points, denoted as L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5:

    1. L1: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies and closer to the smaller body, L1 is particularly useful for space observatories like the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) because it provides an unobstructed view of the Sun from Earth’s perspective.
    2. L2: Situated on the opposite side of the smaller body from the larger one, L2 is an excellent location for deep space observatories such as the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) because it remains relatively shielded from solar interference.
    3. L3: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies but on the opposite side of the larger body from the smaller one, L3 is less stable and less frequently used than the other Lagrange Points.
    4. L4 and L5: These points form equilateral triangles with the two large bodies, with the smaller body at the third vertex. L4 precedes the smaller body in its orbit, while L5 follows it. These points are stable and have been found to accumulate natural objects, such as asteroids, known as Trojan asteroids.

     

    PYQ:

    2013: Consider the following phenomena:

    1. Size of the sun at dusk

    2. Colure of the sun at dawn

    3. Moon being visible at dawn

    4. Twinkle of stars in the sky

    5. Polestar being visible in the sky

    Which of the above are optical illusions?

    a)    1, 2 and 3

    b)    3, 4 and 5

    c)    1, 2 and 4

    d)    2, 3 and 5

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Regarding the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO), consider the following statement:

    1.    SOHO spacecraft was launched in December 1995.

    2.    It is jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.

    3.    It orbits the Earth in sun-synchronous orbit.

    How many of the above statements is/are correct?

    a)    One

    b)    Two

    c)    Three

    d)    None

  • Places in news: Afanasy Nikitin Seamount

    Why in the news?

    • India has applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for exploration rights in the Afanasy Nikitin (AN) Seamount in the Indian Ocean outside its jurisdiction.
    • India’s application is motivated by reports of Chinese vessels conducting reconnaissance in the same region, raising concerns about strategic interests and resource competition.

    About International Seabed Authority (ISBA)

     

    • The ISBA is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
    • It was established in 1994 and headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica.
    • ISA is tasked with regulating mineral-related activities in the international seabed area beyond national jurisdiction, which includes polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts.
    • The Authority issues exploration and exploitation contracts to countries and private entities for deep-sea mining activities, subject to certain regulations and environmental safeguards.
    • ISA comprises various organs, including the Assembly, the Council, the Legal and Technical Commission, and the Secretariat, each with specific functions related to deep-sea mining regulation.
    • According to Article 156(2) of the UNCLOS, all UNCLOS parties are members of ISBA.
    • As of 2023 has 169 members, including 168 member states and the European Union.
    • India became a member of the UNCLOS in 1994.

     

    About AN Seamount

    • The AN Seamount, located about 3,000 km from India’s coast, is a substantial structural feature in the Central Indian Ocean Basin.
    • A seamount is a large submarine landform that rises from the ocean floor without reaching the surface, and thus is not an island.
    • It is 400 km-long and 150 km-wide. From an oceanic depth of about 4,800 metres it rises to about 1,200 metres.
    • It was discovered during a marine research expedition, named after the Russian explorer Afanasy Nikitin.
    • It is renowned for its polymetallic nodules containing cobalt, nickel, manganese, and copper

    Continental Shelf Claims and Implications

    • Sri Lanka has applied for continental shelf claims up to 500 nautical miles beyond its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), citing a special provision.
    • India, noting Chinese presence, has staked a claim for exploration rights to prevent future consequences.
    • India has also applied for permission to explore another region, spanning 3,00,000 square km, called the Carlsberg Ridge in the Central Indian Ocean to investigate for polymetallic sulphides, which are reportedly rich in copper, zinc, gold and silver.

    PYQ:

    2021: Consider the following statements:​

    1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.​
    2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.​
    3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters.​

    Which of the statements given above are correct?​

    a)    1 and 2 only ​

    b)    2 and 3 only​

    c)    1 and 3 only ​

    d)    1, 2 and 3​

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about the International Seabed Authority (ISBA):

    1. ISBA is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
    2. All UN members are naturally parties to the ISBA.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    a)    Only 1

    b)    Only 2

    c)    Both 1 and 2

    d)    Neither 1 nor 2

  • 29th March 2024 | Prelims Daily with Previous Year Questions

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  • On Sustainable Building Materials | Explained

    Why in the News? 

    Recently, post COVID-19, India is experiencing a sudden increase in construction. Although expansion offers economic prospects and enhanced living conditions, yet it also presents notable environmental hurdles.

    The Major Environmental Concerns Due to the Construction Sector:

    • The cement sector is a hard-to-abate sector in terms of greenhouse gas emissions, but it is an equally critical contributor to the economic development of the country.
    • India is the second largest producer of cement in the world and plans to almost double its production by 2030. It accounts for over 33% of India’s electricity usage, contributing to environmental degradation and climate change.
    • Globally, about 37% of global greenhouse gas emissions can be traced back to the built environment sector, which includes buildings, the distribution systems that supply water and electricity, and the roads, bridges, and transportation systems.
    • The UNEP report makes a case for “Avoid-Shift-Improve” strategies to reduce emissions.

    Government Initiatives to make the Construction Sector become energy efficient:

    • The India Cooling Action Plan: It forecasts an eight-fold increase in cooling demand between 2017 and 2037, emphasizing the need for thermal comfort while reducing active cooling demand. Reducing cooling demand by 20-25% and refrigeration demand by 25-30% by the year 2037 are the goals of this plan.
    • Eco-Niwas Samhita (ENS): Initiatives like the Eco-Niwas Samhita (ENS) and Residential Energy Conservation Building Code are crucial steps towards improving energy efficiency in residential buildings.
    • Residential Envelope Transmittance Value (RETV): Introducing metrics such as the Residential Envelope Transmittance Value (RETV) play a significant role in measuring heat transfer through a building’s envelope, thereby enabling better energy efficiency. Lower RETV values are associated with cooler indoor environments and reduced energy consumption. The recommended RETV of 15W/m2 or less promotes optimal efficiency, improved occupant comfort, and lower utility expenses.

     

    Materials used in the Construction sector

    • Popular Building Materials: Autoclaved Aerated Concrete (AAC) blocks, red bricks, fly ash, and monolithic concrete (Mivan) are commonly used materials in construction.
    • Preference for Monolithic Concrete: Despite sustainability concerns, monolithic concrete construction is favored by developers for its speed, strength, quality, and scalability, particularly in high-rise buildings and skyscrapers.
    • AAC Blocks as Thermally Efficient: RETV evaluation shows AAC blocks consistently have the lowest RETV across all climatic conditions, indicating their potential as a thermally efficient material.
    • Embodied Energy Differences: The literature review reveals substantial differences in embodied energy among materials, with monolithic concrete having an embodied energy 75 times greater than AAC blocks.
    • Sustainability Concerns: Sustainability concerns are prominent across all materials. Red bricks contribute to resource depletion, emissions, and waste, while AAC blocks and monolithic concrete also have environmental impacts

    Measures to improve sustainable material

    • Adopt “Avoid-Shift-Improve”: Implement policies and regulations that incentivize the use of sustainable building materials and practices, such as tax incentives, subsidies, and green building certifications.
    • Investing in R&D: Allocate resources for research and development initiatives aimed at creating new, sustainable building materials with improved thermal performance, reduced embodied carbon, and enhanced climate resilience.
    • Promote Market Collaborations: Foster partnerships between academia, government agencies, and industry stakeholders,  in sustainable construction practices and materials development.
    • Awareness: Create consumer awareness campaigns to highlight the benefits of sustainable construction and encourage demand for eco-friendly building materials, driving market demand and adoption.

    Conclusion: India’s construction boom poses environmental challenges. Initiatives like Eco-Niwas Samhita improve energy efficiency. AAC blocks show promise for thermal efficiency. Future steps include R&D, industry collaboration, policy support, and fostering market demand for sustainable materials.

    Mains PYQ

    Q) Adoption of PPP model for infrastructure development of the country has not been free of criticism. Critically discuss the pros and cons of the model. (UPSC IAS/2013)

    Q) Smart cities in India cannot sustain without smart vilages. Discuss this statement in the backdrop of rural urban integration. (UPSC IAS/2015)

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  • Drop in FDI inflows mirrors Global Trends: Finmin 

    Why in the News?

    India’s net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows have dropped almost 31% to $25.5 billion over the first ten months of 2023-24 as per the Finance Ministry

    Recent key Observations related to FDI inflow as per the Finance Ministry

    Recent FDI in the context of India:

    • From April 2023 to January 2024, the net inflows decreased more significantly due to increased repatriation of investment.
    • India remains one of the top destinations for global greenfield projects, with a stable number of new project announcements.
    • The country received significant FDI in sectors like services, pharmaceuticals, construction, and non-conventional energy.
    • The Netherlands, Singapore, Japan, the USA, and Mauritius contribute around 70% of total FDI equity inflows into India.
    • There’s a possibility of a modest increase in global FDI flows in the current year, driven by a decline in inflation and borrowing costs in major markets. However, significant risks remain, including geopolitical issues, high debt levels in many countries, and concerns about further economic fracturing.

    Recent FDI scenario in the context of the world:

    • Overall, global FDI flows rose by 3% to an estimated $1.4 trillion in 2023 due to economic uncertainty and higher interest rates led to a 9% fall in FDI flows to developing countries.
    • Drivers of Global FDI: Capital-intensive projects, particularly in renewable energy, batteries, and metals sectors, drove a large proportion of global FDI in 2023, highlighting the importance of energy transition.
    • Decline in International Investment Projects: Both greenfield projects and project finance (mainly infrastructure) and cross-border Mergers and Acquisitions (M&As) saw declines in 2023, attributed to higher financing costs. International project finance and M&A activity decreased by 21% and 16%, respectively.

      What is Foreign direct investment (FDI)?

      Foreign direct investment (FDI) is a category of cross-border investment in which an investor resident in one economy establishes a lasting interest in and a significant degree of influence over an enterprise resident in another economy.

      Government Bodies regulating FDI:

      India offers an automatic route for FDI in several sectors, simplifying the investment process for foreign investors in India. However, certain sectors require government approval, and reporting requirements, in line with the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), are in place to ensure transparency in foreign investments in India. FDI in India is subject to regulation and oversight by various government bodies, such as:

      • Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT): DPIIT formulates and implements policies to promote and regulate foreign investment in India across sectors.
      • Reserve Bank of India (RBI): RBI manages the monetary aspects of foreign investments in India.
      • Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI): SEBI regulates FDI in the capital market.

      Conclusion:  India remains a top destination for greenfield projects, but international investment projects declined due to higher financing costs. This is indeed a silver lining for the Indian government to plan and execute for targeting more FDI inflow considering the Global scenario.

     

    Practice Question for mains

    Q- Explain the reasons for India’s decline in net FDI inflows in 2023-24 and analyze its implications amid global trends

  • [28 March 2024] The Hindu Op-ed: WTO’s investment facilitation negotiations are not illegal

    PYQ Relevance:
    Mains: 
    Q) What are the key areas of reform if the WTO has to survive in the present context of the ‘Trade War’, especially keeping in mind the interest of India? (UPSC CSE 2018) 

    Q) “The broader aims and objectives of WTO are to manage and promote international trade in the era of globalization. But the Doha round of negotiations seems doomed due to differences between the developed and the developing countries.” Discuss from the Indian perspective. (UPSC CSE 2016) 

    Prelims:
    Q) India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 to comply with the obligations to (UPSC CSE 2018)
    (a) ILO (b) IMF (c) UNCTAD (d) WTO

    Note4Students: 

    Prelims: International Organisations;

    Mains: International Organisations; Trades and Practices;

    Mentor comments: WTO members concluded the 13th Ministerial Conference (MC13) in Abu Dhabi on 2 March with the adoption of a Ministerial Declaration setting out a forward-looking, reform agenda for the organization. Over the last decades, many countries have adopted policies aimed at facilitating investment to attract, retain, and expand foreign investment flows. We need to analyze this news thoroughly as MC13 represented a historic opportunity for the first time by addressing the issue of Trade Cooperation for the environment and the associated challenges in industrial policy.

    Let’s learn. 

    —

    Why in the News?

    India must reconsider its defensive approach towards Plurilateral Agreements (PA) such as the Investment Facilitation for Development agreement.

    Background:

    • Ministers at the meeting of WTO took several ministerial decisions, including renewing the commitment to have a fully and well-functioning Dispute Settlement System by 2024 and to improve the use of the Special and Differential Treatment (S&DT) provisions for developing and Least Developed Countries (LDCs).
    • India has strongly opposed a China-led proposal for an investment facilitation pact besides pressing for finding a permanent solution to public stock holding of grains for food security and protection of the interests of fishermen at the upcoming WTO ministerial meeting.

    Key Takeaways about Plurilateral Agreement (PA) from MC13:

    • It is critical to recall that while the WTO is a multilateral trade organization.
    • Article II of the WTO Agreement categorically allows for Pas which binds the WTO member countries that accept them and do not create rights or impose obligations on the remaining members.
    • Despite opposition from countries such as India, negotiations for an IFD agreement at the WTO were launched in 2017 on a plurilateral basis by 70 countries. This was done through a process known as the Joint Statement Initiative.
    • Further, 120 countries wanted to include the IFD Agreement as a Plurilateral Agreement (PA) within Annex 4 of the WTO Agreement.
    What is the Agreement on Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD)?

    In the WTO context, the concept of investment facilitation means the setting up of a more transparent, efficient, and investment-friendly business climate, by making it easier for investors to invest, and conduct their day-to-day business.

    It also expands their existing investments (whole-investment-lifecycle approach), as well as for host and home governments to work cooperatively and in mutually beneficial ways to facilitate not only more but also more sustainable investment.

    What are the present concerns of the Indian government regarding the Plurilateral Agreement (PA)?

    • Principle Concerns: India does not seem to be exceedingly concerned about the text of the IFD agreement. India’s principal concerns are two-fold.
      • The question of whether investment can be part of the WTO.
      • The process followed to make the IFD agreement a part of the WTO rulebook.
    • Challenge of Legal Mandate and Mutual Consensus: The IFD Agreement will require states to augment regulatory transparency, and streamline administrative procedures to bolster foreign investment inflows.
      • Since all countries never agreed to launch negotiations on an IFD Agreement, according to India, IFD negotiations and the subsequent text that came up for adoption are illegal. (According to the Article X.9 of the WTO Agreement)
    • On Dispute Resolution: The IFD does not contain provisions on market access, investment protection, and Investor-State Dispute Settlement (ISDS).
      • Given the existing structure of the WTO’s dispute settlement mechanism, where only states can bring legal claims against other states, it is implausible that ISDS can be a part of it.

    Current Dilemma between ‘Investment’ and ‘Trade’: 

    • The current dilemma is whether the investment is part of the WTO or not because investment per se is not trade. However, the recent scenario talks on contrast such as follows:
    • According to the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), about 70% of international trade occurs through global value chains, which are characterized by trade and investment, thus proving the close relationship between the two.
    • Therefore, several modern-day free trade agreements, such as the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) and the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership include detailed investment provisions covering both facilitation and protection.
    • India’s newly minted trade agreement with the European Free Trade Association also contains provisions on investment, though it is restricted to facilitation and promotion measures.

    Conclusion: The PAs such as the IFD agreement are essential for reinvigorating the WTO’s stalemated legislative function. India, which will soon be the third biggest economy, should reconsider its defensive approach towards PAs, as in the proposed IFD Agreement in the WTO.

  • Preventing a China-Taiwan conflict

    Why in the News?

    India, with growing national interests, faces entanglements in disputes like Taiwan. While China claims Taiwan, India is unlikely to engage militarily, focusing on safeguarding its economic and security interests.

    Context:

    • The Democratic Progressive Party (DPP) recently achieved an unprecedented third consecutive term in Taiwan’s legislative elections, defying China’s threats and hostilities.
    • Taiwan’s legislative assembly faces a unique scenario with no clear majority for the first time in twenty years, which complicates policymaking and interactions with China.

    Three reasons for Indian Government to maintain the Status quo:

    • Firstly, India is interested in maintaining the current state, wherein Taiwan operates as a self-governing territory without asserting independence.
    • Secondly, Chinese aggression against Taiwan would be catastrophically costly for India. A recent Bloomberg study estimates that the costs of a conflict would amount to over 10% of global GDP. India’s economy would suffer a greater shock than the U.S. economy and its most valuable sectors, from electronics to pharmaceuticals, would run dry of components and materials.
    • Thirdly, if China wins, it could become more confident and expand its influence, possibly reaching the Indian Ocean. This could pose significant challenges to India’s strategic interests and territorial integrity, potentially leading to increased tensions, especially in Arunachal Pradesh.

    Scope for Indian Government:

    • Utilize International Law: India can leverage international legal frameworks to advocate for peaceful resolutions and oppose aggression against Taiwan.
    • Narrative Building: India can shape narratives against aggression, highlighting the risks and consequences of military conflict.
    • Diplomatic Coordination: India can work with other nations to coordinate diplomatic efforts aimed at dissuading China from military action.
    • Economic Measures: India can undertake economic de-risking measures to minimize vulnerabilities and reduce dependence on China like economic relations with other countries
    • Information Operations: India can engage in information campaigns to support the Taiwanese people and raise awareness about the situation.
    • Military Support: India can support U.S. forces in the Indian Ocean, enhancing deterrence capabilities and signalling commitment to regional stability.

    Conclusion: India, prioritizing economic and security interests, maintains the Taiwan status quo. To prevent conflict, it leverages international law, builds narratives against aggression, coordinates diplomacy, and considers economic diversification while supporting regional stability.

    Mains PYQ

    Q China is using its economic relations and positive trade surplus as tools to develop potential military power status in Asia’, In the light of this statement, discuss its impact on India as her neighbor. (UPSC IAS/2017)

    Q With respect to the South China sea, maritime territorial disputes and rising tension affaire the need for safeguarding maritime security to ensure freedom of navigation and ever flight throughout the region. In this context, discuss the bilateral issues between India and China. ( UPSC IAS/2014)

  • Artform in news: Mohiniyattam Danceform

    Why in the news?

    The Kerala Kalamandalam, a deemed university for arts and culture, has unanimously lifted gender restrictions allowing boys for learning Mohiniyattam, a classical dance form.

    About Mohiniyattam

    Description
    Name Meaning Mohini – female enchantress avatar of Vishnu;

    Aattam – rhythmic motion or dance (Malayalam)
    Roots Natya Shastra, ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts
    Style Lasya Style – delicate, eros-filled, and feminine
    Performers Traditionally women, but men also perform in contemporary times
    Music Includes Carnatic music, singing, and enactment of plays through dance
    Language Manipravalam : a Malayalam-Sanskrit hybrid
    Posture Parted feet, gentle swaying of body, soft footwork synchronized with music beats
    Gestures Follow the classical text of Hastha Lakshanadeepika with elaborate mudras (hand gestures)
    Costumes Plain white or off-white sarees with golden brocade, pleated sheets for freedom of movement, adorned with jewellery
    Accessories Jewellery on fingers, wrists, neck, and ears, ankle bells (for female performers), dhotis and similar accessories (for male performers)
    Makeup Natural with brilliant red lips, tikka (Gobi) on forehead, lined eyes
    Music Various rhythms and compositions in Manipravalam, accompanied by instruments like Mridangam, Idakka, flute, Veena, and Kuzhitalam
    Ragas Rendered in the Sopana Style, a slow melodic style rooted in the Natya Shastra

     

     

    PYQ:

    2012: How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

    1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
    2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Which of the following statements about Mohiniyattam is not true?

    1. Mohiniyattam derives its name from “Mohini,” the female enchantress avatar of Vishnu, and “Aattam,” meaning rhythmic motion or dance in Malayalam.
    2. Its roots can be traced back to the Natya Shastra, an ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts.
    3. Mohiniyattam is characterized by the Tandava style, known for its vigorous movements.
    4. Performances of Mohiniyattam typically include enactment of plays through dance, accompanied by singing and Carnatic music.

  • 50,000-year-old Magnetic Fossils found in Bay of Bengal

    What is the news?

    Scientists from the CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography, Goa have found in the Bay of Bengal a 50,000-year-old sediment containing giant magnetofossils, shedding light on ancient geological conditions.

    What are Magnetofossils?

    • Magnetofossils are fossilized magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria, aiding scientists in understanding past environmental conditions.
    • Described initially in the 1960s and 1970s, magnetotactic bacteria utilize iron-rich minerals to navigate the Earth’s magnetic field, leaving behind distinctive fossil remnants.
    • These unique creatures were first described in 1963, by Salvatore Bellini, an Italian doctor and then again in 1975 by Richard Blakemore of the Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution, Woods Hole, Massachusetts.
    • These organisms were believed to follow the magnetic field to reach places that had optimal oxygen concentration.
    • Using an electron microscope, Blakemore found the bacteria contained “novel structured particles, rich in iron” in small sacs that essentially worked as a compass.
    • These magnetotactic bacteria create tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite, aiding them in navigating changing oxygen levels in the water body they reside in.

    Special Attributes of Bay of Bengal Sediment

    • Previous studies on magnetofossils often ascertained their origins to be hyperthermal vents, comet impacts, changes in oceanic ventilation, weathering or the presence of oxygen-poor regions.
    • Sediments deposited at the core site originate from the Godavari, Krishna, and Penner Rivers, highlighted on the map.

    Findings of the Study

    • Scientific Approach: In the study, combined magnetic analyses and electron microscopy to study the sediment sample.
    • Sediment Characteristics: The three-metre-long sediment core from the southwestern Bay of Bengal consisted mainly of “pale green silty clays,” they wrote in their paper. They also reported finding abundant benthic and planktic foraminifera — single-celled organisms with shells found near the sea bed and free-floating in water.
    • Microscopic Revelations: High-resolution transmission electron microscopy revealed the fossil to be in the shape of needles, spindles, bullets, and spearheads.
    • Environmental Insights: Earlier, studies of sediments suggested that nearly 29,000 to 11,700 years ago, during the last Glacial Maximum-Holocene period, the northeast and southwest monsoon strengthened and resulted in significant weathering and sedimentation.

     

    PYQ:

    Consider the following kinds of organisms:

    1. Copepods
    2. Cyanobacteria
    3. Diatoms
    4. Foraminifera

    Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 4

    Practice MCQ:

    Which of the following statements is correct about the ‘Magnetofossils’?

    1. They are fossilized magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria.
    2. They follow the magnetic field to reach places that have optimal oxygen concentration.
    3. They are tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite.
    4. All of these.

  • India Employment Landscape: Insights from the ILO-IHD Report 2024

    Why in the news?

    According to the India Employment Report 2024 released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) and the Institute of Human Development (IHD), India’s youth account for almost 83% of the unemployed workforce.

    About the International Labour Organization (ILO)

     

    • The ILO is a UN agency whose mandate is to advance social and economic justice through setting international labour standards.
    • Founded in 1919 under the League of Nations (under Treaty of Versailles) it is the first and oldest specialised agency of the UN.
    • India was one of the founding members of the ILO, joining the organization in 1919.
    • The ILO has 187 member states: 186 out of 193 UN member states plus the Cook Islands.
    • Its international labour standards are broadly aimed at ensuring accessible, productive, and sustainable work worldwide in conditions of freedom, equity, security and dignity.
    • The Governing body is the apex executive body of the ILO which decides policies, programmes, agenda, budget and elects the Director-General.
    • It meets 3 times a year, in March, June and November.
    • ILO has received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969.

     

    Major Conventions of the ILO:

    • Forced Labour Convention (No. 29)
    • Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105)
    • Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100)
    • Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111)
    • Minimum Age Convention (No.138)
    • Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182)
    • Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention (No.87)
    • Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention (No.98)

     

    Highlights of the India Employment Report 2024:

    1. Labour Market Dynamics
    • Long-Term Deterioration: The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), and the Unemployment Rate (UR) showed a long-term deterioration between 2000 and 2018, but witnessed an improvement after 2019.
    • Education Impact: The share of youngsters with secondary or higher education in the total unemployed youth has almost doubled from 35.2% in 2000 to 65.7% in 2022, indicating a significant shift in educational qualifications among job seekers.
    1. Challenges and Insecurities
    • Informal Workforce: Almost 90% of workers remain engaged in informal work, while the share of regular work declined after 2018, leading to widespread livelihood insecurities.
    • Contractualisation: There has been a rise in contractualisation, with only a small percentage of regular workers covered by long-term contracts, exacerbating job insecurities.
    1. Skills Gap and Gender Disparities
    • Skills Deficiency: Despite being a demographic dividend, the report notes a skills gap among India’s young workforce, with a significant percentage unable to perform basic digital tasks or mathematical operations.
    • Gender Gap: India faces substantial gender disparities in the labour market, with low rates of female labour force participation and high levels of unemployment among highly educated young women.

     

    PYQ:

    2018: International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to:

    1. Child labour
    2. Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
    3. Regulation of food prices and food security
    4. Gender parity in the workplace

  • Monuments of National Importance (MNI) and their Listing/De-Listing

    Why in the news?

    • The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has decided to remove 18 “centrally protected monuments” from its list of Monuments of National Importance (MNI), citing a lack of national significance.
    • ASI currently has 3,693 monuments under its purview, which will fall to 3,675 once the current delisting exercise is completed in the next few weeks.

    What are Monuments of National Importance (MNI)?

    • MNI in India are legally protected under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958.
    • This act empowers the Centre to declare certain monuments as MNIs through official notifications published in the Gazette of India.
    • It mandates the protection, preservation, and maintenance of MNIs to ensure their integrity and authenticity for future generations.
    • The Act empowers the central government to appoint authorities, such as the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), to oversee the protection and management of MNIs.

    Key Features of MNI Protection

    • Prohibited Activities: The Act prohibits certain activities within the precincts of MNIs, such as construction, excavation, and removal of artifacts, without prior permission from the relevant authorities.
    • Designated Zones: Within a 100-meter radius of the monument, construction activities are prohibited to prevent encroachment and damage. An additional 200-meter radius (100 + 200 meters) constitutes a regulated area where construction is subject to specific regulations to maintain the monument’s integrity and surroundings.
    • Maintenance of Records: The Act requires the maintenance of records and registers documenting the history, conservation, and management of MNIs.

    Understanding Monument Delisting

    • Once delisted, monuments are no longer subject to ASI conservation efforts, allowing for regular construction activities in the vicinity.
    • Section 35 of the AMASR Act allows for the delisting of monuments deemed to have lost national importance.
    • The delisting process involves official notifications, with a two-month public feedback period to address objections or suggestions.

     

    PYQ:

    2015: With reference to art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?

    1. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
    2. Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
    3. Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
    4. Varaha Image at Udayagiri

     

    Practice MCQ:

    The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has decided to remove 18 “centrally protected monuments”. This essentially implies:

    1. The site will no longer be conserved, protected, and maintained by the ASI.
    2. Activities related to construction and urbanisation in the area can be carried out in a regular manner.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  • China to develop strategic Hambantota Seaport

    Why in the News?

    Sri Lanka’s PM said that China has pledged to develop the island nation’s strategic Hambantota Seaport and the capital’s airport after talks with his counterpart in Beijing.

    About Hambantota Seaport

    • The Hambantota Seaport, also known as the Magampura Mahinda Rajapaksa Port, is a deep-sea port.
    • It is situated on the southern coast of Sri Lanka and lies strategically along major international shipping routes, particularly connecting Asia with Africa and Europe.
    • The construction of the Hambantota Seaport began in 2007 and was completed in multiple phases in November 2010.
    • Sri Lanka in a controversial move signed an agreement in 2017 wherein a Chinese state-owned enterprise, acquired a 70% stake in the port on a 99-year lease.

    How does this port benefit China?

    • The port is anticipated to assume a crucial role within China’s Belt and Road initiative (BRI), aiming to connect ports and roadways spanning from China to Europe.
    • BRI’s foundation lies in a network of harbors worldwide, positioning China to challenge the United States as the foremost maritime superpower.
    • The port forms part of China’s ‘string of pearls’ strategy, potentially encircling India and accommodating its military vessels.

     

    PYQ:

    2022: Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

    1. It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
    2. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
    3. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
    4. Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Which of the following statements regarding important seaports in Asia are correct?

    1. Port of Singapore is the world’s busiest transshipment port and a major hub for global shipping.
    2. Port of Shanghai, located in China, is the busiest container port in the world.
    3. Port of Colombo in Sri Lanka serves as a major transshipment hub in the Indian Ocean region.
    4. Port of Yokohama, situated in Japan, is the largest port in terms of cargo tonnage handled annually.

    Select the correct option:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2, and 3 only
    4. All of the above

  • 28th March 2024 | Prelims Daily with Previous Year Questions

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