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Subject: Governance

Important aspects of Society

  • IRDAI removes Age Bar for purchasing Health Insurance

    Why in the news?

    • The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) abolished the age limit for purchasing health insurance policies, effective April 1.
    • Individuals aged above 65 were ineligible previously for new health insurance policies.

    About Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

    • IRDAI is the apex regulatory body overseeing the insurance sector in India.
    • It is an autonomous entity responsible for regulating and developing the insurance sector in India.
    • It was established under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999. It was formed on April 19, 2000.
      • Headquarters: Located in Hyderabad, Telangana.
    • Composition:
      • IRDAI is a 10-member body including the chairman, five full-time and four part-time members appointed by the government of India.
      • The authority is supported by various departments and divisions responsible for different aspects of insurance regulation, including life insurance, non-life insurance, reinsurance, and actuarial matters.

    Regulatory Functions

    IRDAI’s primary role is to regulate and promote the insurance industry in India through:

    • Licensing and registration of insurance companies and intermediaries.
    • Framing regulations and guidelines for insurance operations.
    • Protecting the interests of policyholders.
    • Promoting fair competition and innovation in the insurance sector.
    • Monitoring the financial performance and solvency of insurance companies.
    • Resolving disputes between insurers and policyholders.
    • Promoting insurance awareness and education among the public.

     

    Insurance Sector of India: A Timeline

    • 1818: Establishment of the Oriental Life Insurance Company in Calcutta marked the beginning of the life insurance business in India. The company faced failure in 1834.
    • 1829: Madras Equitable started conducting life insurance operations in the Madras Presidency.
    • 1870: Enactment of the British Insurance Act. Establishment of insurance companies like Bombay Mutual (1871), Oriental (1874), and Empire of India (1897) in the Bombay Presidency during this era, dominated by British firms.
    • 1914: Commencement of publishing insurance company returns by the government of India.
    • 1912: Introduction of the Indian Life Assurance Companies Act, the first legislation regulating life insurance.
    • 1928: Enactment of the Indian Insurance Companies Act to gather statistical information about insurance business.
    • 1938: Consolidation and amendment of insurance legislation with the Insurance Act, 1938, introducing comprehensive provisions to regulate insurers’ activities.
    • 1950: The Insurance Amendment Act abolished principal agencies amid allegations of unfair trade practices. The GoI decided to nationalize the insurance industry in response to high competition levels.
    • 1956: The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) was established under the Life Insurance Corporation Act, of 1956, consolidating the life insurance business in India under a single entity. LIC took over the assets and liabilities of around 245 private life insurers and provident societies.

     

    PYQ:

    [2012] Consider the following:

    1. Hotels and restaurants
    2. Motor transport undertakings
    3. Newspaper establishments
    4. Private medical institutions

    The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State Insurance Scheme?

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

    (b) 4 only

    (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

  • Centre releases curriculum framework for three to six-year-olds

    Why in the news? 

    For the first time ever, the Central government has released curriculum advisable to be taught to children aged three to six-years-old

    Objective of Aadharshila 

    • The early childhood education curriculum is expected to bridge foundational literacy and numeracy gaps which may arise in later school years

    Who Launched?

    • The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) has released the National Curriculum for Early Childhood Care and Education 2024 titled ‘Aadharshila,’ on the lines of the National Education Policy 2020 and the National Curriculum Framework.

    Where? 

    • Aadharshila (translated as foundation stone) is a detailed 48-week curriculum meant for learning in the age-group of three to six-year-olds in anganwadis.

    Significance Aadharshila’s Curriculum

    • Structure of Curriculum: The curriculum is organized on a weekly basis, comprising 48 weeks of learning over a three-year duration. It is designed to cater to children aged three to six attending anganwadis.
    • Initiation Phase: The curriculum begins with four weeks of initiation, focusing on academic activities to help children transition from home to the anganwadi center. These activities are engaging and involve fun and free play.
    • Exploration Phase: The subsequent 36 weeks are dedicated to exploration, free play, conversation, creation, and appreciation. Activities during this phase include storytelling, singing rhymes, art and craft, and other engaging activities. Storytelling themes often revolve around conflict resolution, responsibility, and cooperation.
    • Learning Objectives: Children learn various concepts such as colors, shapes, numbers, body parts, family and friends, listening and responding to instructions, basic counting, and themes like seasons, festivals, and food.

    Anganwadi 

    • Anganwadi services in India are a part of the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme, which was launched on 2 October 1975.
    • The main objective of the Anganwadi programme is to improve the nutritional and health status of children in the age group of 0-6 years, to lay the foundation for proper psychological, physical, and social development of the child, and to reduce the incidence of mortality, morbidity, malnutrition, and school dropout.

    Conclusion: The release of ‘Aadharshila’ marks a significant step in early childhood education, aiming to bridge foundational gaps. To enhance its effectiveness, continuous monitoring, teacher training, and community involvement are essential.

    Mains PYQ 

    Q National Education Policy 2020 isin conformity with the Sustainable Development Goal-4 (2030). It intends to restructure and reorient education system in India. Critically examine the statement (UPSC IAS/2020) 

  • Patanjali Misleading Advertisement Case

    Why in the news?

    • The Supreme Court ruling refusing to accept Patanjali’s MD’s unconditional apologies underscores the gravity of intentionally misleading advertisements and their repercussions.
    • Despite apologies, Patanjali’s breach of its commitment not to disseminate false claims about curing various illnesses led to this decision.

    The Concept of Obiter Dicta Lexicon:

    • In the context of the criticism directed towards the Hon’ble Supreme Court Bench’s statement in the Patanjali case, the concept of “obiter dicta lexicon” may find relevance.
    • “Obiter dicta” is a Latin term that translates to “things said by the way” and refers to statements made by a judge in passing, which are not essential to the decision of the case at hand.
    • It refers to the use of language or expressions that are not directly relevant to the legal reasoning or decision-making process in a court judgment or opinion.

    SC Bench Statement on Patanjali’s Apology:

    • The statement “we will rip you apart” is being criticized for being overly aggressive and potentially inappropriate for a judicial setting.
    • Therefore, in this case, the use of language that deviated from the core legal issues at hand and instead conveyed a sense of aggression or hostility could be viewed as part of the “obiter dicta lexicon.”

    Understanding Misleading Advertisements:

    • The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 prohibits unfair trade practices, including misleading advertisements, and provides mechanisms for consumers to seek redressal for grievances related to misleading advertising.

    Following are the types of Misleading Ads:

    1. False Claims: Advertisements with untrue statements about a product’s features or benefits.
    2. Exaggerated Claims: Ads that overstate a product’s benefits beyond reason.
    3. Omission of Material Information: Ads that hide important details consumers need to know.
    4. Comparative Advertising: Ads unfairly attacking competitors’ products.
    5. Endorsements and Testimonials: Ads using fake endorsements or testimonials.
    6. Health and Safety Claims: Ads with unproven health or safety benefits.
    7. Bait-and-Switch Tactics: Ads luring with false promises and switching to different offers.

    Key Legislation dealing with Misleading Ads:

    1. Bureau of Indian Standards (Certification) Regulations, 1988
    2. Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006
    3. The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1955 (DOMA)
    4. The Drug and Cosmetics Act of 1940
    5. The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act of 2003

     

    Regulatory Authorities dealing with the Issue:

    1. Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI): Ensures fairness and compliance with the ASCI Code in Indian commercials.
    2. Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA): Regulates consumer rights violations, unfair trade practices, and misleading marketing detrimental to public interests. It has issued the Guidelines for the Prevention and Endorsement of Misleading Advertisements, 2022.

    About the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1955 (DOMA):

    • The Magic Remedies Act encompasses the definition of “drug”.
    • It extends to include articles like talismans, mantras, and charms purportedly possessing miraculous healing powers.

    Here are the key provisions of the Act:

    1. Prohibition of Certain Advertisements: The Act prohibits advertisements that claim to prevent or cure certain diseases or ailments listed in Schedule J of the Act through drugs or remedies. These diseases include conditions like cancer, tuberculosis, diabetes, and epilepsy.
    2. Prohibition of Misleading Advertisements: The Act prohibits advertisements that are false or misleading in any material particular regarding the nature, substance, quality, or potency of any drug or remedy.
    3. Cognizance of Offences: No court shall take cognizance of any offence under the Act except on a complaint made by the government or by a person authorized by the government.
    4. Exemptions: The Act provides exemptions for advertisements of drugs or remedies containing certain substances or preparations listed in Schedule J if the advertisement conforms to the conditions specified in the Schedule.

    Violations made by Patanjali Ayurveda

    1. Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1954 (DOMA): By disseminating deceptive advertisements, Patanjali breached Section 4 of the DOMA, which prohibits the publication of false drug ads.
    2. Consumer Protection Act of 2019 (CPA): Patanjali made false claims in their advertisements about curing different illnesses, contravening Section 2(28) of the CPA, which defines “misleading advertisement”.
    3. Violation of MoU between Ministry of AYUSH and ASCI: Patanjali’s actions breached the memorandum signed between the Ministry of AYUSH and the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), indicating non-compliance with agreed-upon standards for advertising practices.

    PYQ:

    [2012] With reference to consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1.    Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

    2.    When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.

    3.    In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • Karnataka Drought Relief: Let there not be a (Centre-state) contest, states coming to court, says SC

    Why in the News?

    Recently, the SC called on the Centre and state governments to refrain from a “contest”, and noted that various state governments were approaching the court to seek relief against the Centre in matters related to the disbursal of funds.

    • The bench was hearing the Karnataka government’s plea seeking a direction to the Centre to release financial assistance from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) for drought management.

    Background:

    • The Karnataka state submitted to the Central government, that 223 of the 236 talukas or sub-districts were declared drought-hit. (48 lakh hectares of land under cultivation)
    • An Inter-Ministerial Central Team (IMCT) also visited the state to inspect the damage in October 2023. During the monsoon season last year, the rainfall deficit was 56% in June (the third highest in 122 years) and 73% in August (the highest in 122 years).

    Supreme Court’s role in this case:

    • Ensuring Accountability and Setting Legal Precedence: The plea before the SC involves significant questions concerning the interpretation of the Constitution, particularly regarding Article 293. It questions whether this article grants states a legally enforceable right to borrow from the Union government or other sources.
      • Additionally, the court is considering the extent to which the Union government can regulate such borrowing rights if they exist.
    • Interpreting the Constitution: There should be at least five judges to hear cases that involve ” a substantial question of law as to the interpretation” of the Constitution. (Article 145(3))
    • Promoting Fair resource allocation in federal structure: It also raises “various questions of significant importance impacting the federal structure of governance as embedded in our Constitution.

    About the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF):

    • It is a fund administered by the Central Government to cover costs associated with emergency response, relief, and rehabilitation in the face of potential disaster situations or actual disasters.
    • The NDRF is formed to bolster the finances of the State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF) during significant disasters, ensuring support if sufficient funds are lacking in the SDRF.
    • Under the Disaster Management Act 2005, there is no definition of disasters. It can include any event arising from natural or man-made causes that can severely disrupt life for people, going beyond their coping capacity.
    • NDRF is mentioned in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

    Provisions:

    • NDRF guidelines state that natural calamities of cyclones, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorms, landslides, avalanches, cloud bursts, pest attacks, and cold waves and frost are considered to be severe by the Government of India (GoI) and requiring expenditures by a state government over the balances available in its own SDRF will qualify for immediate relief assistance from NDRF.
    • The NDRF also covers man-made disasters such as terrorist attacks, chemical or biological disasters, or nuclear disasters as notified by the Central Government.
    • States have the State Disaster Relief Funds, where the Centre contributes 75% of the funds (and 90% for Himalayan and northeastern states) and states contribute the remainder.

    Conclusion:

    The Supreme Court, addressing Karnataka’s drought relief plea, emphasizes cooperation over conflict between the Centre and states, while also examining constitutional and federal structure implications, amid discussion on National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) utilization.

  • Why have ‘Madrasas’ been in the spotlight in Uttar Pradesh? | Explained

    Why in the news? 

    Recently the three-judge Supreme Court Bench stayed a ruling of the Allahabad High Court on the U.P. Board of Madrasa Education Act 2004 calling it an infringement of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under the Constitution.

    • Earlier, the HC had dubbed the U.P. Board of Madrasa Education Act “Unconstitutional” and asked for immediate closure of the madrasas. It called for the relocation and integration of the madrasa students with regular schools.

    Why are madrasas in the spotlight?

    • Uttar Pradesh has approximately 25,000 madrasas, out of which 16,500 are recognized by the U.P. Madrasa Education Board.
      • Only 560 madrasas receive grants from the government, leading to complaints of delayed payment and salary arrears.
      • Irregular madrasas, often lacking resources, provide only elementary learning.
    • In 2022, the U.P. Government ordered a survey to identify unrecognised or illegal madrasas.
    • A Special Investigation Team (SIT) was formed to investigate alleged foreign funding sources for the madrasas, claiming over ₹100 crore had been received from abroad over three years. However, evidence supporting these claims was not made public.

    About Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004:

    • The Act sought to oversee and administer the operations of madrasas (Islamic educational institutions) in Uttar Pradesh, providing guidelines for their establishment, recognition, curriculum, and management.
    •  It led to the formation of the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education, tasked with regulating and supervising madrasa activities throughout the state.

    Concerns Regarding the Act:

    • Limited Curriculum: Upon examination of madrasa syllabi, the High Court noted a curriculum heavily focused on Islamic studies, with limited emphasis on modern subjects.
    • Conflict with Higher Education Standards: The Act raised concerns regarding its conflict with Section 22 of the University Grants Commission (UGC) Act, 1956, which led to questions about its compliance with higher education norms

    Conclusion: Madrasas in Uttar Pradesh are under scrutiny due to a recent Supreme Court stay on the Allahabad High Court ruling, citing infringement of fundamental rights. Concerns persist over grants, quality of education, and compatibility with higher education standards.

  • How an Ethanol Factory has turned this Vijayawada village from idyllic charm to Industrial nightmare 

    Why in the news? 

    • Recently Gandepalli village in news because of devastating impact of an ethanol factory (Sentini BioProducts Pvt. Ltd) since 2008
    • Residents are struggling with foul air and water, poisoned crop fields, and depleting water tables

    Negative impact on village 

    Sentini BioProducts Pvt. Ltd. is a company involved in the production of ethanol and animal feed supplements. It specializes in manufacturing extra-neutral alcohol (ENA), a type of ethanol.

    • Under the red category: Ethanol production plants and distilleries, including Sentini BioProducts, fall under the ‘red category’ as per Central government norms, indicating high pollution levels (score of 60 or more)
    • Wastewater Discharge: The factory is mandated to have a Zero Liquid Discharge system in place. However, residents report untreated wastewater discharge into the nearby irrigation canal.
    •  Air Pollution: Residents complain of a choking stench and polluted air emanating from the factory, indicating potential air pollution issues.
    •  Crop Damage: Extensive crop damage is reported by villagers, indicating potential contamination of agricultural lands by pollutants from the factory. Over more than 10 years, farmers in the area have experienced a decline in crop quality and yield, particularly in paddy cultivation.
    •  Negative Impact on quality of Life: Pollution from the factory negatively impacts the quality of life for local residents, posing health risks and environmental hazards.

    Regulatory Failures in this situation:

    • Unable to address the problem: Despite multiple complaints from villagers and show-cause notices issued to the factory since 2013, regulatory authorities, including the Andhra Pradesh Pollution Control Board (APPCB), have been ineffective in addressing the pollution issues.
    • Regulatory lapse revealed by Lokayukta: The Lokayukta inquiry revealed lapses by regulatory bodies, including the APPCB and the Joint Director of Agriculture of Krishna district, in investigating and addressing the environmental damage caused by the factory’s operations.
    • Delay in action: The delay in taking appropriate action and the failure to enforce environmental regulations have allowed the factory to continue its polluting activities unabated.

    Suggestive measures to address the situation:

    •  Need Comprehensive Investigation: Conduct a thorough investigation into the environmental impact of Sentini BioProducts Pvt. Ltd. on Gandepalli village. This investigation should include assessments of air and water quality, soil contamination, and the extent of crop damage caused by the factory’s operations.
    • Enforcement of Environmental Standards: Ensure strict compliance with environmental standards and regulations by the factory.
    • Community Engagement: Foster meaningful dialogue and engagement between the factory management, regulatory authorities, and the local community. Provide opportunities for residents to voice their concerns, share their experiences, and participate in decision-making processes related to environmental management and pollution control measures.
    • Remediation and Compensation: Implement measures to remediate the environmental damage caused by the factory, including restoration of polluted water bodies, soil remediation, and compensation for affected farmers.

     Conclusion 

    The devastating impact of Sentini BioProducts Pvt. Ltd. on Gandepalli village, including pollution, crop damage, and regulatory failures, necessitates urgent comprehensive investigation, strict enforcement of environmental standards, community engagement, and remediation efforts to restore environmental health and livelihoods.

  • Living wills implementation lags in India

    Why in the news? 

    In early March this year, 30 people in Thrissur in Kerala executed living wills.

    Context:

    • The Supreme Court’s 2018 order on Passive Euthanasia, wherein it recognized the ‘Right to die with dignity’ as a fundamental right and an aspect of Article 21 (right to life) of the Constitution.
    • However, the people wanting to get a “living will” registered were facing problems due to cumbersome guidelines, prompting a reconsideration by the apex court.
    • A Constitution Bench, led by Chief Justice of India Dipak Misra, in three concurring opinions, upheld that the fundamental right to life and dignity includes the ‘Right to Refuse Treatment and Die with dignity’.

    What is a Living Will? 

    A Living Will is a healthcare directive, in which people can state their wishes for their end-of-life care, in case they are not in a position to make that decision.

    The Court’s procedure:

    • Pre-2023: Initially, the process of creating living wills was deemed overly complex by the Court, with elaborate bureaucratic procedures in place to prevent abuse by unscrupulous individuals seeking to exploit the patient’s assets.
    • Post-2023: Recognizing the impracticality of requiring judicial magistrate countersignatures on living wills, the Court streamlined the process in January 2023. Now, living will require signatures in the presence of witnesses, attestation by a notary or gazetted officer, and submission to a designated government officer acting as a custodian.

    Challenges in Implementation :

    • Decision-Making Process: Even if a living will is created, its implementation is not automatic. Decisions on withholding or withdrawing treatment require certification by primary and secondary medical boards, posing logistical challenges, especially in hospitals without designated boards.
    • Ambiguities and Discomfort: Ambiguities in guidelines, discomfort with end-of-life care topics, and unclear legal definitions contribute to the hesitancy among officials to implement the Court’s directives without clear instructions from higher authorities.
    • Legal Ambiguity: Indian law lacks a clear definition of ‘next of kin’, leading to potential disputes among family members about medical decisions for terminally ill patients.
    • Barriers to End-of-Life Decisions: A survey of intensive care doctors reveals a general belief that end-of-life decisions are fraught with legal implications, serving as a significant barrier to making such decisions in the ICU.
    • Regional Disparities in India:
    • Haryana: While some states like Haryana have issued directions to follow the judgment, they have not provided essential guidance or protocols for implementation.
    • Odisha: In contrast, Odisha has taken a more thorough approach by forming a committee of experts to develop detailed draft orders for implementing the judgment, setting a potential example for other states.

    Conclusion: The central government could help bridge the gap in expertise by developing and publishing model orders and protocols to provide states with confidence and guidance in effectively implementing the judgment.

    Mains question for practice 

    Q Discuss the challenges surrounding the implementation of living wills in India, as established by the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in 2018.

     

     

     

  • What is Zero FIR?

    Why in the news?

    • The Hyderabad Police have initiated a zero FIR case against former minister for alleged derogatory remarks against Telangana CM.

    First Information Report (FIR)

    • An FIR is a written document prepared by the police upon receiving information about a cognisable offence.
    • It is when an officer can arrest a suspect without a court’s warrant if/she has “reason to believe” that the person committed the offence and arrest is necessary based on certain factors.
    • It serves as the first step towards initiating the investigation process and subsequent police actions.
    • Section 154(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) empowers the police to register an FIR for cognizable offences.
    • Section 166A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides punishment for public servants failing to record information related to a cognizable offence, with imprisonment of up to two years and a fine.

    What is Zero FIR?

    • Provision and Purpose: Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognisable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
    • No diary: Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’. Hence the name.

    Features of a Zero FIR:

    1. Swift Action: The relevant police station subsequently registers a fresh FIR and commences the investigation.
    2. Focus on Victims: It is designed to expedite complaint lodging, particularly for serious crimes involving women and children, without the need to approach multiple police stations.
    3. Preserving Evidence: Early registration helps prevent the loss or tampering of crucial evidence and witnesses.
    4. Transferred Jurisdiction: The Zero FIR is later transferred to the relevant police station where the offence occurred or where the investigation should be conducted.

    How does it work?

    • After a police station registers a zero FIR, it has to transfer the complaint to a police station that has the jurisdiction to investigate the alleged offence.
    • Once a zero FIR is transferred, the police station with the appropriate jurisdiction assigns it a serial number, thereby converting it into a regular FIR.

    Legal Provisions for Zero FIR

    The provision of Zero FIR finds support in various judgments and recommendations:

    1. Satvinder Kaur vs. State (1999): The Delhi High Court held that a woman has the right to lodge her complaint from any place other than where the incident occurred.
    2. Justice Verma Committee (2012): The introduction of Zero FIR was based on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee, which was formed in response to the 2012 Nirbhaya gangrape case.
    3. Lalita Kumari vs. Govt. of UP (2014): The Supreme Court ruled that registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence.

    PYQ:

    2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

    1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked-up in police station, not in jail.

    2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Regarding the Zero FIR, consider the following statements:

    1. Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognizable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.

    2. Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    (a) Only 1

    (b) Only 2

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • The ART of India’s HIV/AIDS response

    Why in the news? 

    On April 1, 2004, the Indian government launched Free Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) for Persons living with HIV (PLHIV). This decision has been one of the most successful .

    Emergence of HIV drugs

    • First Antiretroviral Drug Approval: In March 1987, the US FDA approved the first antiretroviral drug, AZT (zidovudine), offering a glimmer of hope for treatment.
    • Additional Drug Approvals: Three more antiretroviral drugs were approved shortly after in 1988, expanding treatment options for HIV/AIDS patients.
    • Introduction of Protease Inhibitors: A significant milestone occurred in 1995 with the introduction of protease inhibitors, a new class of antiretroviral drugs.

    The evolution to free ART

    • Millennium Summit Declaration: In 2000, world leaders at the UN General Assembly’s Millennium Summit set a goal to stop and reverse the spread of HIV.
    • Formation of the Global Fund: The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis, and Malaria was established in 2002, advocating for universal access to HIV prevention, treatment, care, and support services.
    • High HIV Prevalence in India: In 2004, India had an estimated 5.1 million PLHIV, with a population prevalence of 0.4%. However, very few were receiving ART, with only 7,000 PLHIV on treatment by the end of the year.
    • Free ART Initiative: The Indian government’s decision to provide free ART to all adults living with HIV in 2004 was groundbreaking. This initiative aimed to address the barriers of cost and geographical access to treatment.
    • Expansion of ART Facilities: Over two decades, the number of ART centers in India expanded significantly, from less than 10 to around 700. Additionally, 1,264 Link ART centers have provided free ART drugs to approximately 1.8 million PLHIV.
    • ART Eligibility Criteria Evolution: The criteria for initiating ART evolved over the years, starting from CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 in 2004, to less than 350 cells/mm3 in 2011, and less than 500 cells/mm3 in 2016. Finally, in 2017, the “Treat All” approach was adopted, initiating ART regardless of CD4 count.
    • Rapid ART Initiation Policy: In 2021, India adopted a policy of rapid ART initiation, starting individuals on treatment within seven days of HIV diagnosis, and sometimes even on the same day. This swift initiation aimed to improve treatment outcomes and prevent transmission.
    • Complementary initiatives  to stop the HIV epidemic: Provision of free diagnostic facilities; attention on prevention of parent to child transmission of HIV (PPTCT) services; prevention, diagnosis and management of opportunistic infections including management of co-infections such as tuberculosis (TB).

    Objectives of India’s National AIDS Control Programme (NACP) phase 5 by 2025

    Ambitious 95-95-95 Targets: The NACP phase 5 sets ambitious targets known as the 95-95-95 targets, aligned with global targets agreed upon by UNAIDS. These targets aim for:

    • 95% of all people living with HIV to know their HIV status.
    • 95% of all people diagnosed with HIV infection to receive sustained antiretroviral therapy (ART).
    • 95% of all people receiving antiretroviral therapy to achieve viral suppression.
    • These targets are aligned with global targets agreed by the UNAIDS.

    Challenges 

    • Delayed Enrolment to ART Facilities:  Late presentation poses challenges to timely initiation of treatment and optimal disease management.
    • Missed doses : Patients often start feeling better after initiating ART, leading to missed doses or discontinuation of treatment that lead to drug resistance

    Measures  

    • Sustained Supply and Availability of ART: Ensuring consistent and uninterrupted access to ART drugs across all regions of the country
    • Private Sector Engagement: Enhancing engagement with the private sector in the care of PLHIV .
    • Training and Capacity Building: Continuous training and capacity building of healthcare staff are essential to  ensure high-quality service delivery.
    • Integration with Other Health Programs: Strengthening integration with other health programs, such as hepatitis, non-communicable diseases (NCDs

    Conclusion

    India’s ART initiative, launched in 2004, has been pivotal in combating HIV/AIDS. With evolving criteria, rapid initiation policies, and ambitious targets, challenges persist, but measures like sustained supply, private sector engagement, and training are being implemented.

    Mains PYQ

    Q What are the research and developmental achievements in applied biotechnology? How will these achievements help to uplift the poorer sections of the society? ( UPSC IAS/2021) 

  • Workers, not tech, should be state’s priority

    Why in the news? 

    The Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS) has attracted significant attention, mainly because of the many difficulties it encounters

    What is Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS)?

    • The Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS) is a unique payment system that utilizes the Aadhaar number as a central key for electronically channelizing government payments

    Aim of ABPS

    • Objective: Provide socio-economically deprived households with work security facilitated by digital technology.
    • Rooted in ideals: Inclusion in the development process, mitigation of inequality and socioeconomic distress.
    • Recognition: Internationally recognized, such as by the United Nations Development Programme, for contributing to a productive, equitable, and connected society.

    Key challenges related to The Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS):

    • Internet Connectivity Issues: Accessibility to stable internet connections in rural areas poses a challenge for implementing the ABPS effectively.
    • Fingerprint Recognition Problems: The ABPS relies on fingerprint recognition for authentication, but issues with fingerprint recognition can hinder the smooth functioning of the system.
    • Difficulties Faced by the Disabled: The system may not be accommodating to individuals with disabilities, leading to exclusion or difficulties in accessing benefits.
    • Unrecorded Working Days: There are instances where the system fails to record the days of work performed by individuals, leading to discrepancies in payment.
    • Name Duplication: Duplicate entries in the system can lead to confusion and errors in identifying beneficiaries and processing payments.
    • Lack of Awareness: Insufficient awareness among beneficiaries about the ABPS and its processes can result in underutilization or misuse of the system.
    • Errors in Linking and Authentication: Issues may arise during the linking of Aadhaar details with the payment system, leading to authentication errors and payment delays.

    Potential of (ABPS) technology 

    • Progressive Principles: Technology has the potential to serve progressive principles globally and historically, contributing to the advancement of societies.
    • Alignment with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Technological interventions can play a crucial role in achieving the SDGs, with rural employment guarantee schemes in India serving as effective pathways towards several SDGs, both directly and indirectly.
    • Effective Utilization of Budgetary Allocation: The substantial budgetary allocation to schemes like MGNREGS should be channeled through a technologically sound system to ensure efficient utilization of funds.

    Conclusion

    The Aadhaar-Based Payment System faces numerous challenges, highlighting the need for prioritizing workers over technology. While technology holds potential, its alignment with socio-economic goals must ensure inclusivity, efficiency, and effective utilization of resources.

    Practice Question for mains 

    Q  Examine the objectives, challenges, and potential of the Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS) in India. (150 words )