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  • Invisible actors

    Why in the News

    An editorial criticises the Election Commission of India for allowing large-scale, allegedly fraudulent Form 7 deletion applications to be filed during the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Uttarakhand. Form 7 is the prescribed form under electoral roll rules for objecting to another person’s inclusion on the roll or seeking their deletion. Large volumes of such applications, filed in bulk and allegedly by parties with no direct connection to the individual voters concerned, raise the concern that a mechanism meant for genuine, individual objections is instead being used as a tool to strike names off the roll at scale, without the safeguards a genuine objection process would apply.

    Why is bulk filing of Form 7 applications a concern?

    1. Form 7 was designed for individual, evidence-backed objections: The form allows any registered elector to object to another entry on the roll, but the process assumes each objection is filed on a specific, documented ground by someone with knowledge of that particular voter’s circumstances.
    2. Bulk filing bypasses the individual-knowledge assumption: Reports of large batches of Form 7 applications filed together, in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, suggest a coordinated filing exercise rather than genuine, case-by-case objections raised by people with actual knowledge of each voter.
    3. No standard operating procedure to screen bulk filings: The Election Commission has not published a standard operating procedure specifying how a Booth Level Officer or Electoral Registration Officer should treat an unusually large batch of objections filed from a single source or in a short window, leaving field-level officials to process each one individually regardless of the pattern.
    4. Risk of disenfranchisement without adequate verification: A voter whose name is objected to through a bulk-filed Form 7 may be removed from the roll on a ground that was never actually verified against that specific individual’s circumstances, if the volume of filings overwhelms the verification capacity at the local level.

    What safeguard does the editorial call for?

    1. A standard operating procedure for anomalous filing patterns: The editorial’s central demand is a documented, uniform procedure specifying how Electoral Registration Officers must treat Form 7 applications filed in unusually large batches or from a common source, rather than processing every filing as an ordinary individual objection.
    2. Verification against the objected voter, not just the objector’s paperwork: A functioning safeguard would require direct verification with the individual whose name is objected to before any deletion is finalised, rather than relying solely on the documentation the objecting party submits.

    Conclusion

    The editorial’s concern is that the Special Intensive Revision, meant to correct genuine errors in the electoral roll, is vulnerable to being used to strike voters off the roll at scale through a bulk-filed, individually-framed objection form that field officials are not equipped to screen. A published standard operating procedure for anomalous Form 7 filing patterns is the specific safeguard the editorial says is missing.

    Back2Basics: Form 7

    1. The prescribed form under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 for objecting to the inclusion of a name in the electoral roll, or seeking the deletion of an entry on stated grounds such as death or shift of residence.
    2. Can be filed by any registered elector against another entry on the same roll, not only by the individual whose own entry is in question.
    3. Processed by the local Electoral Registration Officer, who is required to give the affected voter an opportunity to be heard before a name is deleted.
    4. Became a point of controversy during the 2026 Special Intensive Revision after reports of large-volume, bulk filings in several States.

    Matching Previous Year Question

    “[2024, GS2, 10 marks] Examine the need for electoral reforms as suggested by various committees with particular reference to “one nation-one election” principle.”

  • Hyderabad and adjoining constituencies drive Telangana’s record SIR deletions

    Why in the News

    A data analysis of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) draft rolls shows Telangana recorded the highest deletion rate of any State, at 21.7 percent, concentrated heavily in Hyderabad’s urban assembly constituencies. The analysis also flags a shift in the gender ratio of the deleted rolls, a pattern that raises the question of whether urban migration and residential churn, rather than uniform electoral-roll error, is driving Telangana’s outlier deletion rate.

    What does the deletion pattern in Telangana show?

    1. Telangana’s 21.7 percent deletion rate is the national outlier: No other State’s SIR draft rolls recorded as high a share of entries deleted as Telangana’s 21.7 percent, making it the sharpest single data point to emerge from the SIR exercise so far.
    2. Deletions cluster in Hyderabad’s urban assembly constituencies: The deletion rate is not evenly spread across Telangana; it concentrates disproportionately in the assembly constituencies that make up Hyderabad and its adjoining urban belt.
    3. Gender ratio shifts within the deleted rolls: The analysis flags a change in the male-to-female ratio among deleted entries compared with the surviving roll, suggesting the deletions are not gender-neutral in their incidence.

    Why would an urban belt like Hyderabad see such a high deletion rate?

    1. High residential churn in a metro labour market: Hyderabad’s urban constituencies see high rates of migration for work, with residents frequently changing addresses within the city or moving in and out of it, a pattern the SIR’s Shifted category is specifically designed to capture.
    2. Rental housing turnover complicates address verification: A large share of Hyderabad’s urban population lives in rented accommodation with shorter tenancies than owner-occupied housing, making door-to-door verification more likely to find an address where the previously registered voter no longer lives.
    3. Duplicate registration risk from repeated internal migration: Voters who moved within Hyderabad, or into it from elsewhere in Telangana, without formally updating their electoral roll entry each time, are more likely to end up registered more than once, feeding the Duplicate category of the ASDDO framework.

    Conclusion

    Telangana’s 21.7 percent deletion rate, concentrated in Hyderabad’s urban constituencies, is consistent with the residential churn that a fast-growing metro labour market produces, though the gender-ratio shift in the deleted rolls is a pattern that needs its own explanation before the deletion rate can be read as a purely administrative correction. The final roll, after the objection window closes, will show how much of the 21.7 percent survives scrutiny.

    Back2Basics: ASDDO categorisation

    1. The five-category framework, Additional, Shifted, Duplicate, Dead, and Objected, the Election Commission uses to classify every entry removed during a Special Intensive Revision.
    2. “Shifted” covers voters found to have moved residence since their last registration, the category most directly linked to urban migration patterns.
    3. “Duplicate” covers voters registered more than once, often from repeated, unrecorded address changes.
    4. The categorisation is meant to make each deletion auditable against a specific, stated ground rather than an unexplained removal.

    Matching Previous Year Question

    “[2024, GS2, 10 marks] Examine the need for electoral reforms as suggested by various committees with particular reference to “one nation-one election” principle.”

  • 1.07 crore names removed in Karnataka’s draft SIR rolls

    Why in the News

    The Election Commission of India’s draft electoral rolls under the ongoing Special Intensive Revision (SIR) show 1.07 crore names removed from Karnataka’s electoral rolls, shrinking the State’s registered electorate to 4.46 crore. Discrepancy notices have been issued to affected voters, and the deletions have been categorised under the ASDDO framework: Additional, Shifted, Duplicate, Dead, and Objected entries. Opposition parties have flagged the ASDDO categorisation as opaque, arguing that voters cannot easily determine which specific ground led to their own name being struck off.

    What is the Special Intensive Revision, and what has it found in Karnataka?

    1. A door-to-door re-verification of the electoral roll: The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is the Election Commission’s mechanism for a fresh, ground-level re-verification of every entry on a State’s electoral roll, distinct from the routine annual summary revision.
    2. 1.07 crore names deleted from Karnataka’s rolls: The draft rolls published under the SIR remove 1.07 crore entries from Karnataka’s electoral list, a reduction large enough to shrink the State’s registered electorate to 4.46 crore.
    3. Deletions grouped under five ASDDO categories: Every deleted entry is classified as Additional (a duplicate registration elsewhere), Shifted (moved residence), Duplicate (registered more than once), Dead (deceased), or Objected (formally objected to by another party), the ASDDO framework the Election Commission uses to justify each deletion.
    4. Discrepancy notices issued to affected voters: Voters whose names were flagged for possible deletion have been sent discrepancy notices, intended to give them a chance to respond before the final roll is published.

    Why is the ASDDO categorisation being called opaque?

    1. No voter-level breakdown published against each category: Opposition parties argue that the aggregate 1.07 crore figure is not accompanied by a transparent, checkable breakdown showing how many entries fall under each of the five ASDDO categories, making it difficult to assess whether deletions are concentrated in a particular category prone to error.
    2. Individual voters cannot easily verify their own category: A voter who finds their name removed has limited means to determine which of the five categories was applied to their specific entry, or to see the evidence behind that categorisation, before the final roll is locked in.
    3. Scale of deletion invites scrutiny of the underlying process: A reduction of over a crore names is large enough, relative to Karnataka’s total electorate, that opposition parties are asking whether the field verification exercise behind the SIR was itself uniformly rigorous or prone to erroneous deletions in specific segments.

    Conclusion

    Karnataka’s SIR draft rolls have removed 1.07 crore names and issued discrepancy notices to affected voters, but the opacity around the ASDDO breakdown leaves the accuracy of that large a deletion unverifiable from outside the Election Commission’s own process. The final electoral roll, after voters respond to the discrepancy notices, will determine how many of the 1.07 crore deletions are contested and reversed before the list is locked.

    Back2Basics: Special Intensive Revision (SIR)

    1. A ground-level, door-to-door re-verification of a State’s entire electoral roll conducted by the Election Commission of India under its powers over roll preparation under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
    2. Distinct from the routine annual Summary Revision, which updates the existing roll rather than re-verifying every entry from scratch.
    3. Uses Booth Level Officers to physically verify voter details house by house before publishing a draft roll for public objections.
    4. Has drawn political controversy in multiple States over the scale of deletions and the transparency of the verification process behind them.

    Matching Previous Year Question

    “[2024, GS2, 10 marks] Examine the need for electoral reforms as suggested by various committees with particular reference to “one nation-one election” principle.”

  • Pakistan factor: Why West Asia war hurt Indian airlines more than foreign ones

    Why in the News

    International air passenger traffic to and from India fell 9.1 per cent year on year in April to June 2026, to 1.72 crore, after the West Asia conflict closed large parts of Gulf airspace. The decline was driven entirely by Indian carriers, whose combined international traffic fell 26.6 per cent. Foreign airlines carried 6 per cent more passengers than a year earlier. India has barred its own carriers from Pakistani airspace since late April 2025, and Pakistan’s reciprocal closure applies only to them. The result is that a shared shock produced an asymmetric outcome, transferring market share on India’s own international routes to airlines that could still fly the short way west.

    How does an airspace ban change an airline’s operating economics?

    1. The right involved: A carrier overflies a third country under the International Air Services Transit Agreement of 1944 or under a bilateral permission, and either can be withdrawn at short notice.
    2. The detour cost: A closure forces a longer track, which adds block hours, fuel burn and crew duty time to every affected departure.
    3. The payload penalty: A longer sector makes the aircraft trade revenue payload for fuel, or forces a technical stop, and either outcome erodes the margin on the route.

    What does the passenger data show?

    1. Total volume: Total international air passenger volume to and from India fell 9.1 per cent year on year in April to June, from 1,89,12,598 to 1,72,00,140, in an analysis of Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) data.
    2. Indian carriers: Their combined international passenger numbers fell 26.6 per cent, from 87,34,038 to 64,14,896.
    3. Foreign carriers: Their cumulative passenger base rose 6 per cent, from 1,01,78,560 to 1,07,85,244.
    4. Market share shift: Foreign operators expanded their share of India’s international traffic to 62.7 per cent from 53.8 per cent, and domestic carriers dropped to 37.3 per cent from 46.2 per cent.

    Why did the loss fall on Indian carriers alone?

    1. Their biggest market closed: Flights to the United Arab Emirates and other West Asian markets, the largest destinations for Indian airlines, were heavily curtailed.
    2. The damage spread beyond West Asia: Indian carriers were forced to cut flights to destinations well outside the region, under war related financial pressure and the standing ban on flying over Pakistan since late April 2025.
    3. The route economics broke first: Air India and IndiGo curtailed their west bound network because the unavailability of Pakistani airspace made some services financially and operationally unviable to run.
    4. The pressure predated the war: Both leading carriers were already taking longer routes and adding refuelling halts on west bound services from their Delhi hub before the conflict began in late February, and some routes had been suspended outright.

    How did foreign carriers turn the same shock into share?

    1. They kept the short way west: Foreign carriers faced the same surging jet fuel prices, and many held one decisive advantage in the continued availability of Pakistani airspace.
    2. Spare capacity was redeployed: Once the war began, carriers from Europe and other regions west of India increased operations to and from the country using aircraft freed by their own curtailed West Asia flying.

    Which Indian airlines lost most?

    1. IndiGo: Remained the largest Indian carrier on international routes with a 15.4 per cent decline to 33.4 lakh international flyers, and an international market share slipping to 19.4 per cent from 20.9 per cent.
    2. Air India: Fell 27.2 per cent to 19.3 lakh passengers, with its international market share contracting to 11.2 per cent from 14 per cent.
    3. Air India Express: Its footfall halved to 8.34 lakh, since its network is highly concentrated in West Asia, and its share fell to 4.8 per cent from 8.9 per cent.
    4. The Air India group: Combined international traffic fell 36.3 per cent year on year to 27.61 lakh in the quarter.
    5. SpiceJet: Recorded the sharpest percentage fall at 56 per cent, to 1.38 lakh international flyers, with share contracting to 0.8 per cent from 1.7 per cent.
    6. Akasa Air: The only Indian airline to register higher international passenger numbers, growing on a low base through an expanding fleet.

    Challenges to Indian carriers on international routes

    1. Gulf hubs capture the through fare: Foreign carriers connect Indian cities to the West over their own hubs and book the full journey revenue. Eg. Emirates, Qatar Airways and Etihad carry a large share of India to Europe and North America traffic over Dubai, Doha and Abu Dhabi. Fix. Build a domestic transfer hub with matched arrival and departure banks, and price transfer charges to reward connecting traffic.
    2. Wide body fleet shortage: Non stop long haul flying needs aircraft Indian carriers do not have in sufficient number. Eg. Air India’s wide body cabin refit programme has run behind schedule because of queues at overseas retrofit facilities. Fix. Expand domestic maintenance, repair and overhaul capacity so heavy checks and retrofits are not queued abroad.
    3. Fuel taxation: Aviation turbine fuel sits outside the goods and services tax and carries high state value added tax, so the largest cost line is not creditable. Eg. Fuel accounts for about 40 per cent of an Indian airline’s operating cost. Fix. Bring aviation turbine fuel under the goods and services tax with input tax credit for carriers.
    4. Ageing bilateral entitlements: Traffic rights negotiated years ago cap Indian carriers in some markets. The same rights leave foreign carriers entitlements they can deploy at short notice. Eg. India’s bilateral seat entitlement with the United Arab Emirates has been unchanged for over a decade. Fix. Renegotiate bilaterals with entitlement tied to actual utilisation and reciprocal hub access.
    5. Financing and leasing sit offshore: Most aircraft are leased through foreign lessors, so rentals and repossession law lie outside Indian jurisdiction. Eg. The aircraft leasing framework at Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) remains small relative to the fleet on lease. Fix. Deepen the domestic leasing regime and fully operationalise the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Act, 2025 giving effect to the Cape Town Convention.

    Conclusion

    The quarter’s traffic decline was distributed by airspace access rather than by exposure to the war, so Indian carriers absorbed the whole of a shock both sides faced. The share transferred to foreign operators is not automatically reversible, since network presence and slot use tend to persist once established. Recovery depends on the reopening of Pakistani airspace to Indian carriers and on the restoration of West Asian capacity, neither of which is within the sector’s control.

    “[2024, GS3, 15 marks] What is the need for expanding the regional air connectivity in India? In this context, discuss the government’s UDAN Scheme and its achievements.”

  • ‘Oil price surge could be a strain for financing fiscal deficit & current account’

    Why in the News

    The Finance Ministry’s monthly economic review for July 2026 has flagged a renewed risk from global crude oil prices to India’s fiscal deficit and current account balance, even as it maintains that domestic fundamentals remain resilient. The review arrives amid a prolonged West Asia conflict and Ukrainian strikes on Russian energy infrastructure that have kept crude prices elevated through the month.

    Risks from Rising Crude Oil Prices

    • The Ministry warned that a sustained rise in crude oil prices could increase pressure on financing both the fiscal deficit and the current account balance.
    • Prices of industrial commodities, including critical minerals and rare earth elements, also remained elevated.
    • Flooding in Chile, a major copper supplier, highlighted India’s vulnerability to concentrated global supply chains.
    • India’s crude oil import bill rose by over 60% year-on-year during April-June FY27, despite slightly lower import volumes.
    • Partial pass-through of higher global crude prices increased fuel inflation in June: Diesel: 8.4%, Petrol: 7.5%, CNG: 6.2%

    Factors Supporting India’s Economic Resilience

    • Strong merchandise and services exports, along with robust remittance inflows, continue to support the external sector.
    • Structural reforms and infrastructure investments over the past decade have strengthened growth resilience.
    • India’s oil consumption-to-GDP and crude imports-to-GDP ratios have steadily declined between FY14 and FY26.
    • Electric Vehicle (EV) adoption crossed 8% of total vehicle registrations in 2026.
    • EV penetration reaching 20% by 2030 could reduce India’s annual crude oil import bill by nearly ₹1 lakh crore.

    Continuing Challenges

    • Crude oil prices remain elevated, though lower than the sharp spike seen during the initial phase of the West Asia conflict.
    • Pass-through to public transport fares has remained moderate, while airfare inflation eased in June after a sharp increase in May.
    • The Ministry acknowledged that India’s resilience is being continuously tested, stating that the coming years will continue to require strong economic preparedness.

    Monthly Economic Review

    • Published by: Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Ministry of Finance
    • Frequency: Monthly
    • Nature: Government publication on macroeconomic developments
    • Purpose: Monitors trends in economic growth, inflation, fiscal position, external sector, and financial markets.
    • Significance: Provides an early assessment of emerging economic risks and policy challenges.

    Difference from the Economic Survey

    • Monthly Economic Review: Released every month and focuses on recent macroeconomic trends.
    • Economic Survey: Released annually before the Union Budget and provides a comprehensive review of the economy along with policy recommendations.

    Key Concepts for Prelims

    • Pass-through Effect: Refers to the transmission of changes in input costs (such as crude oil prices) to consumer prices. Example: Higher crude oil prices leading to higher transport fares and fuel prices.
    • Oil Intensity of the Economy: Measures the amount of crude oil required to produce one unit of GDP. Lower oil intensity indicates greater energy efficiency and reduced vulnerability to oil price shocks.
    • Current Account Deficit (CAD): Occurs when a country’s imports of goods, services, and transfers exceed its exports.

    [2020] With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1.India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
    2.India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years.
    3.India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services.
    4.India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 4 only
    c) 3 only
    d) 1, 3 and 4 only

  • Government plans unification of port security regulations- sovereign entity to oversee private ports while CISF will regulate 80 ports

    Why In The News?

    The government has designated CISF as the security regulator for 250+ seaports to strengthen coastal security.

    1) New Security Framework:

    • Sovereign Entity at Seaports: Government to deploy CISF as a sovereign security force at private cargo-handling ports for a uniform security system.
    • Initial Coverage: CISF to regulate 80 major export-import seaports for access control, cargo screening, and seafront patrolling.
    • Phase-wise Expansion: Remaining 170 seaports will be brought under CISF in stages.
    • ISPS Code Role: CISF designated as the Recognised Security Organisation under the International Ship and Port Facility Security Code.

    2)Framework for Seaport Security in India:

    • International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code:
      India’s port security system aligns with the mandatory global ISPS Code, introduced after 9/11 to protect ships and port facilities from terrorism and other maritime threats.
    • Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) as Security Regulator:
      The Government of India has recently designated the CISF as the Recognised Security Organisation (RSO) for ports, marking a major reform to strengthen and standardise port security across the country.

    3)Challenges to Port Security:

    • Non-Standardised Security Framework:
      • Security at many non-major ports historically lacked uniformity and expert oversight.
      • Heavy dependence on private security agencies or local police resulted in inconsistent standards.
    • Transnational & Non-Traditional Threats:
      • Maritime terrorism remains a persistent risk.
      • Smuggling and drug trafficking, with ports often used for large narcotics consignments.
      • Cyberattacks targeting port IT systems and critical infrastructure.
    • Infrastructure & Manpower Gaps:
      • Difficulty in ensuring uniform, high-quality security infrastructure across 250+ ports.
      • Significant manpower shortages: CISF requires 800-1,000 personnel per major seaport and has requested 10,000 additional personnel for initial deployment.
    • Coastal Vulnerabilities:
      • Large stretches of coastline remain open, poorly monitored, or unguarded.
      • Absence of a sovereign security force at private ports has created long-standing security gaps.
    • Identified Gaps in Official Reviews:
      • Coastal security flagged as a priority for discussion at the Director Generals of Police (DGP) Conference, attended by the Prime Minister.
      • The 2023 MHA guidelines highlighted major deficiencies and recommended comprehensive improvements.

    4) Committee Recommendations:

    • Committee Findings: A 2024 Joint Committee (CISF + Director General Shipping) conducted gap analysis and proposed corrective measures.
    • Hybrid Security Model: Core security functions to be handled by CISF, while State Police/private agencies manage non-core duties.

    5)About CISF:

    • Overview: CISF is a Central Armed Police Force under the Ministry of Home Affairs, headquartered in New Delhi; motto: “Protection and Security.”
    • Establishment:
      • Formed in 1969 through the CISF Act, 1968 with three battalions.
      • Declared an Armed Force of the Union after the 1983 amendment.
      • Expanded into a multi-skilled force with 188,000+ personnel.
      • Provides security to 359 establishments nationwide.
    • Organisation Structure:
      • Headed by a Director-General (IPS), assisted by an Additional DG.
      • Divided into seven sectors: Airport, North, North-East, East, West, South, Training.
      • Has a dedicated Fire Service Wing.
    • Functions:
      • Secures critical infrastructure: nuclear and space facilities, airports, seaports, power plants.
      • Protects Delhi Metro, Parliament Complex, heritage monuments, and major government buildings.
      • Responsible for airport security since 2000 (post IC-814 hijacking).
      • Provides VIP security to designated protectees.
      • Trained in disaster management (floods, earthquakes, cyclones).
      • Operates India’s largest Fire Protection Service among CAPFs.
      • Post-2008 Mumbai attacks, expanded to private sector security.
      • Functions as a compensatory cost force, billing clients for services.
    [UPSC 2023] With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

    1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.

    2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.

    3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two* (c) All three (d) None

     

  • CPCB to monitor Yamuna with Delhi and Haryana

    Why In The News?

    Drain water overflow is contaminating the Yamuna, prompting the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) to inform the National Green Tribunal (NGT) that the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), Delhi Pollution Control Committee (DPCC), and Haryana State Pollution Control Board (HSPCB) will jointly conduct quarterly monitoring to track pollution and coordinate corrective action.

    1) About National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG):

    • Legal Status: The NMCG is a registered society under the Ministry of Jal Shakti to prevent, control, and abate pollution in the Ganga River and ensure adequate ecological flow.
    • Origin: It functioned as the implementation arm of the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 until the NGRBA was replaced by the National Ganga Council in 2016.
    • Objectives:
      • Ensure pollution abatement and rejuvenation of the Ganga through a river basin approach.
      • Maintain minimum ecological flows for water quality and sustainable development.
    • Structure:
      • Has a two-tier structure: a Governing Council and an Executive Committee, both headed by the Director General (DG).
      • The Executive Committee can approve projects up to ₹1000 crores.
      • State Programme Management Groups (SPMGs) act as implementing arms at the state level.
      • The DG is an Additional Secretary in the Government of India.

    2) About National Green Tribunal (NGT):

    • Purpose: The NGT ensures efficient and expert resolution of environmental disputes and aims to resolve cases within six months.
    • Independence: Operates based on principles of natural justice, not the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, enabling faster decisions.
    • Jurisdiction: Began functioning in 2011 with its principal bench in New Delhi and regional benches in Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai. It follows a circuit procedure for accessibility.
    • Composition:
      • Chairperson: Retired Supreme Court Judge or Chief Justice of a High Court, appointed by the Central Government.
      • Judicial Members: 10-20 judges from the Supreme Court or High Courts.
      • Expert Members: 10-20 experts with advanced degrees in Science/Engineering/Technology and environmental experience.
    • Powers & Jurisdiction:
      • Handles civil cases under major environmental laws such as the Water Act 1974, Air Act 1981, Environment Protection Act 1986, Forest Conservation Act 1980, Biological Diversity Act 2002, and Public Liability Insurance Act 1991.
      • Can impose penalties, act as a Civil Court, and follow the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) for certain procedures.
      • Has suo motu powers to take up environmental issues on its own.
      • Can award compensation, order remediation, and ensure time-bound disposal of cases.

    3) About Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):

    • Establishment: The CPCB is a statutory organisation created under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and later empowered under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
    • Role: Acts as a technical arm of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) for enforcing the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
    • Functions:
      • Promote cleanliness of streams and wells and control water pollution.
      • Improve air quality and abate air pollution nationwide.
      • Advise the Central Government on pollution control and coordinate with State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs).
      • Offer guidance, technical support, and help resolve conflicts among SPCBs.
    • Delegated Powers: CPCB delegates its authority under the Water Act, Water Cess Act (1977), and Air Act to regional administrations in Union Territories.
    • Standards & Guidelines:
      • Develops standards for ambient air quality, water quality, and industrial emissions.
      • Prepares manuals, codes, and guidelines for sewage treatment, effluent disposal, and pollution-control devices.
      • Issues Minimal National Standards (MINAS) for various industries regarding effluents, emissions, noise, and waste.
    [UPSC 2016] Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)?,

    1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.,

    2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.,

    3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.,

    Options: (a) 1 and 2 only* (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • [pib] Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS), 2025

    Why in the News?

    The Union Minister for Commerce and Industry has released Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS), 2025 Report.

    What is Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS)? 

    • Overview: It is a national index benchmarking logistics performance across States and Union Territories of India.
    • Origin: Conceived in 2018, modelled on the World Bank’s Logistics Performance Index (LPI).
    • Authority: Prepared by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    • Methodology: Combines objective indicators (infrastructure, regulatory support, enablers) with perception-based feedback from stakeholders on cost, efficiency, and services.
    • Purpose: Promotes healthy competition, identifies best practices, and guides policy interventions to improve logistics efficiency.

    About LEADS 2025:

    • Launch: Released by the Union Minister for Commerce and Industry in New Delhi.
    • Framework: Built on 4 pillars – Infrastructure, Services, Operating & Regulatory Environment, and Sustainable Logistics.
    • New Features:
      • Corridor-level assessment of major national and regional corridors (journey time, truck speed, waiting periods).
      • API-enabled evaluation of section-wise truck speeds using real-time data.
    • Classification: States/UTs ranked as Leaders, Achievers, and Aspirers.
    • Alignment: Supports Make in India, Atmanirbhar Bharat, and Viksit Bharat 2047.

    Key Highlights of LEADS 2025:

    • Top States: Gujarat (1st), Karnataka (2nd), Maharashtra (3rd), Tamil Nadu (4th), Rajasthan (5th).
    • Parameters: Journey time, logistics costs, infrastructure quality, service reliability, waiting times, and sustainability practices.
    • Strategic Outcomes: Identifies bottlenecks, promotes evidence-based policymaking, reduces logistics costs, and enhances supply chain competitiveness.

  • UDISE+ Report, 2025

    Why in the News?

    The latest round of Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) data was released by the Ministry of Education (MoE).

    About UDISE+

    • Launch: Introduced in 2018–19 as an upgraded version of UDISE (2012–13).
    • Purpose: Collects and monitors school-level data across India.
    • Coverage: Tracks enrolment, dropout rates, teachers, infrastructure, and gender indicators.
    • Design: Built to speed up data entry, reduce errors, improve verification, and enhance data quality.
    • Policy Role: Functions as a key tool for planning, monitoring, and implementing education reforms.
    • Scope: Covers schools at all levels – foundational, preparatory, middle, and secondary.

    Key Highlights of the UDISE+ 2025 Report:

    • Teachers: Number of teachers crossed 1 crore (1,01,22,420) in 2024–25, a 6.7% rise from 2022–23.
    • Pupil–Teacher Ratio (PTR): Improved to 10 (foundational), 13 (preparatory), 17 (middle), and 21 (secondary), well below NEP’s 1:30 recommendation.
    • Dropout Rates: Fell sharply to 2.3% (preparatory), 3.5% (middle), 8.2% (secondary) in 2024–25, compared to 8.7%, 8.1%, 13.8% respectively in 2022–23.
    • Retention Rates: Reached 98.9% (foundational), 92.4% (preparatory), 82.8% (middle), 47.2% (secondary).
    • Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER): Rose to 90.3% (middle) and 68.5% (secondary).
    • Transition Rates: Increased to 98.6% (foundational → preparatory), 92.2% (preparatory → middle), 86.6% (middle → secondary).
    • Zero-Enrolment & Single Teacher Schools: Single-teacher schools reduced to 1,04,125; zero-enrolment schools dropped to 7,993 (38% decline).
    • Infrastructure: 64.7% schools with computer access, 63.5% with internet, 93.6% with electricity, 99.3% with drinking water, 97.3% with girls’ toilets, 96.2% with boys’ toilets. 95.9% with handwashing, 83% with playgrounds, 89.5% with libraries, 54.9% with ramps/handrails, 29.4% with rainwater harvesting.
    • Gender Representation: Girls’ enrolment rose to 48.3%. Female teachers increased to 54.2% of the workforce.
    [UPSC 2018] Consider the following statements:

    1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.

    2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.

    3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Options: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only * (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

     

  • Financial Inclusion Index, 2025

    Why in the News?

    The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced that the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) for Financial Year (FY) 2025 has risen to 67.0, up from 64.2 in FY 2024.

    About Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index):

    • Developer: Created by the Reserve Bank of India to assess the extent of financial inclusion in India.
    • First Release: Published in August 2021 for the financial year ending March 2021.
    • Coverage: Encompasses five key sectors—banking, investments, insurance, postal services, and pensions.
    • Scoring Scale: Ranges from 0 (total exclusion) to 100 (full inclusion).
    • Update Cycle: Updated annually in July; cumulative index with NO base year.
    • Indicators: Based on 97 indicators across all five sectors to ensure comprehensive assessment.
    • Key Parameters:
      1. Access (35%): Measures availability of financial infrastructure like bank branches, automated teller machines, and postal outlets.
      2. Usage (45%): Tracks frequency of use of services like savings, loans, insurance, and pension schemes.
      3. Quality (20%): Assesses financial literacy, consumer protection, equity, and service reliability.

    India’s Performance Over the Years:

    • March 2017: Index at 43.4, reflecting the initial phase of inclusion efforts.
    • March 2021: Rose to 53.9, due to the expansion of banking and digital infrastructure.
    • March 2024: Improved to 64.2, with broader access and increased adoption of financial services.
    • March 2025: Reached 67.0, driven by digital transactions, better service quality, and financial literacy campaigns.
    [UPSC 2016] The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

    1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks

    2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards

    3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities

    Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only* (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3