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  • Digital India Completes 11 Years of Transformation

    Why in the news?

    The Digital India Programme completes 11 years on 1 July 2026, marking a major milestone in India’s digital transformation. Over the past decade, India has developed one of the world’s largest Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) ecosystems, transforming governance, healthcare, education, agriculture, finance and public service delivery.

    What is Digital India?

    • Launched on 1 July 2015.
    • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
    • Vision: Digital infrastructure as a core utility to every citizen, Governance and services on demand, and Digital empowerment of citizens.

    Nine Pillars of Digital India

    • Broadband Highways, Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity, Public Internet Access Programme, e-Governance: Reforming Government through Technology, e-Kranti: Electronic Delivery of Services, Information for All, Electronics Manufacturing, IT for Jobs, and Early Harvest Programmes

    Major Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)

    • Digital Identity: Aadhaar, Aadhaar-enabled DBT, e-KYC, and Aadhaar App
    • Digital Payments: UPI, BHIM, and NPCI ecosystem
    • Digital Governance: DigiLocker, UMANG, GSTN, GeM, and ONDC
    • Health: CoWIN, eSanjeevani, ORS, eHospital, eBloodBank, and Tele MANAS
    • Agriculture: AgriStack, e-NAM, Kisan e-Mitra, and Kisan Sarathi
    • Education: DIKSHA, SWAYAM, SWAYAM Prabha, PM e-Vidya, and APAAR ID

    Key Achievements

    • India handles nearly 49% of global real-time digital payment transactions through UPI.
    • Digital economy contributes around 12 to 14% of GDP.
    • BharatNet has connected about 97% of Gram Panchayats.
    • DigiLocker has over 70 crore users.
    • UPI transactions crossed 24,000 crore in FY 2025-26.
    • ONDC has expanded to 1,000 cities.
    • AgriStack has generated over 9 crore Farmer IDs.

    Significance

    • Strengthens Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI).
    • Improves ease of living and ease of doing business.
    • Promotes financial inclusion through Aadhaar, UPI and DBT.
    • Enhances transparency and reduces leakages.
    • Supports inclusive governance through digital service delivery.
    • Accelerates innovation, startups and AI-driven growth.

    [2022] Consider the following:
    1. Aarogya Setu
    2. COWIN
    3. DigiLocker
    4. DIKSHA
    Which of the above are built on to open-source digital platforms?

    [A] 1 and 2 only

    [B] 2, 3 and 4 only

    [C] 1, 3 and 4 only

    [D] 1, 2, 3 and 4

  • NFSA Draft Amendment on Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)

    Why in News?

    The Union Government has released a draft amendment to the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, inviting public comments until 13 July 2026.

    Proposed Amendment

    • Every AAY beneficiary will receive 7 kg of foodgrains per month, subject to a maximum of 35 kg per household, free of cost.
    • Earlier: Every AAY household received 35 kg/month, irrespective of family size.

    Rationale

    • Remove inequity between small and large households.
    • Ensure a fairer per capita allocation.
    • Better align foodgrain entitlements with nutritional needs.

    Concerns

    • Kerala and other non-BJP ruled states argue that smaller households, especially in southern states, will receive less foodgrain, reducing overall allocations.
    • Activists warn of a possible North-South disparity due to differences in average family size.
    • Delay in the Census has prevented revision of AAY beneficiary lists, leaving many poor families excluded.
    • Right to Food Campaign demands:
      • 14 kg foodgrains per person.
      • Inclusion of pulses and edible oil under NFSA to ensure nutritional security.

    [2018] With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

    1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.

    2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.

    3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take‑home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    A 1 and 2

    B 2 only

    C 1 and 3

    D 3 only

  • Myanmar Replaces Afghanistan as Major Opium Source

    Why in News?

    The NCB Annual Report 2026 states that after the Taliban’s 2022 ban on opium cultivation in Afghanistan, Myanmar has become a major global opium source, increasing drug trafficking along India’s eastern borders.

    Key Highlights

    • Myanmar’s illicit opium cultivation increased by 56% (2021 to 2023), reaching 45,200 hectares.
    • The Manipur corridor (NH-102) is the primary route for heroin and methamphetamine entering India.
    • Champhai (Mizoram) is another major trafficking route via Myanmar’s Chin State.
    • The Golden Triangle (Myanmar, Laos, Thailand) has become a major hub for opium and methamphetamine (Yaba) production.

    Border Security Concerns

    • Porous India-Myanmar border and the Free Movement Regime (FMR) facilitate cross-border trafficking.
    • Northeastern states, especially Manipur, Mizoram and Nagaland, are increasingly used as transit and distribution hubs.

    Drone-Based Trafficking

    • Drone smuggling from Pakistan rose from 3 incidents (2021) to 305 incidents (2025).
    • In 2025, 468 kg of narcotics were seized through drones, with Punjab accounting for 298 cases.

    Other Trafficking Routes

    • Eastern Route: Myanmar → Manipur/Mizoram → Assam → Rest of India.
    • Western Route: Afghanistan → Pakistan → Punjab/Rajasthan.
    • Maritime Route: Pakistan → Gujarat/Maharashtra via fishing vessels.

    Government Response

    • Enhanced border surveillance and drone detection.
    • Intelligence-led operations by the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB).
    • Increased international cooperation against cross-border narcotics trafficking.

    Prelims Facts

    • Golden Triangle: Myanmar, Laos, Thailand.
    • Golden Crescent: Afghanistan, Pakistan, Iran.
    • Yaba: Methamphetamine + caffeine tablets.
    • FMR: Allows border residents to cross the India-Myanmar border without a visa within prescribed limits.

  • DAE Inaugurates World’s First Nuclear Heat Based Hydrogen Production Facility

    Why in News?

    The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has inaugurated the world’s first hydrogen production facility based on the Copper-Chlorine (Cu-Cl) Thermochemical Cycle using nuclear process heat from the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) at Kalpakkam.

    Key Highlights

    • First in the world to produce hydrogen using the Cu-Cl thermochemical cycle powered by nuclear heat.
    • Established at the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam.
    • Uses process heat from the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) instead of fossil fuels.
    • Technology developed indigenously by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
    • Serves as a technology demonstrator for future commercial-scale nuclear hydrogen production.

    What is the Copper-Chlorine (Cu-Cl) Thermochemical Cycle?

    The Cu-Cl cycle is a series of chemical reactions that split water into hydrogen and oxygen using heat and electricity.

    Process

    • Water reacts with copper and chlorine compounds.
    • High-temperature nuclear heat drives most of the reactions.
    • Hydrogen gas is produced while intermediate chemicals are recycled.

    Advantages

    • Operates at lower temperatures (≈500°C) than many other thermochemical cycles.
    • Higher thermodynamic efficiency.
    • Requires less electricity.
    • Produces zero greenhouse gas emissions when powered by nuclear energy.

    Why Use Nuclear Heat?

    • Fast reactors generate both Carbon-free electricity and High-temperature process heat.
    • Using this heat:
      • Reduces dependence on natural gas for hydrogen production.
      • Improves overall reactor efficiency.
      • Enables continuous hydrogen production irrespective of weather conditions.

    Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR)

    • Located at IGCAR, Kalpakkam.
    • India’s only operating fast reactor research facility.
    • Commissioned in 1985.
    • Uses liquid sodium as coolant.
    • Produces plutonium while generating power.

    [2023] Consider the following heavy industries:
    1. Fertilizer plants
    2. Oil refineries
    3. Steel plants
    Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

    [A] Only one

    [B] Only two

    [C] All three

    [D] None

  • Netra AEW&C System Receives Final Operational Clearance (FOC)

    Why in the news?

    The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has handed over the Final Operational Clearance (FOC) certificate of the indigenous Netra Airborne Early Warning & Control (AEW&C) system to the Indian Air Force (IAF). The system had received Initial Operational Clearance (IOC) in 2017.

    What is Netra AEW&C?

    • Netra is an Airborne Early Warning and Control (AEW&C) system developed indigenously by DRDO’s Centre for Airborne Systems (CABS) in collaboration with the IAF and Indian industry.
    • Mounted on a modified Embraer ERJ-145 aircraft.
    • Functions as a “flying radar”, providing airborne surveillance, early warning, command and battle management.

    Key Features

    • 360° situational awareness through networked surveillance.
    • Detects and tracks: Fighter aircraft, Cruise missiles, Drones/UAVs, Helicopters, and Surface targets.
    • Provides: Airspace surveillance, Threat detection, Target tracking, Battle management, and Command and control support.
    • Enhances interoperability with ground-based and airborne assets.

    Prelims Pointers

    • AEW&C: Airborne Early Warning and Control system for surveillance and battle management.
    • FOC (Final Operational Clearance): Certification that a defence system is fully operational and combat-ready.
    • IOC (Initial Operational Clearance): Limited operational induction after successful initial trials.
    • CABS: Centre for Airborne Systems, a DRDO laboratory responsible for airborne surveillance systems.

    [2025] With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
    I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
    II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
    III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    [A] Only one

    [B] Only two

    [C] All the three

    [D] None

  • AIR SUVIDHA 2.0 Portal

    Why in News?

    The Ministry of Civil Aviation, in collaboration with Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL), launched AIR SUVIDHA 2.0, an upgraded digital health declaration portal, to strengthen health surveillance at India’s international Points of Entry following the Ebola (Bundibugyo virus disease) outbreak in Central Africa.

    Why was AIR SUVIDHA 2.0 Introduced?

    • WHO declared the Ebola/Bundibugyo Virus Disease (BVD) outbreak in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and Uganda a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) on 17 May 2026 under the International Health Regulations (IHR), 2005.
    • To prevent the import and spread of the disease through international travel.

    What is AIR SUVIDHA 2.0?

    AIR SUVIDHA 2.0 is a contactless online Passenger Health Self-Declaration Portal for international travellers arriving in India.

    Key Features

    • Passengers must submit an online Self-Declaration Form (SDF) before arrival.
    • Form can be filled up to 24 hours before travel.
    • Captures: 21-day travel history, Exposure history, and Symptoms, if any.
    • Enables paperless and contactless health screening.
    • Real-time data sharing with Airport Health Officer (AHO), Bureau of Immigration, Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), and State Surveillance Officers.
    • Enables early identification, screening, and referral of high-risk passengers.

    Benefits

    • Strengthens surveillance at Points of Entry (PoEs).
    • Supports rapid outbreak detection and response.
    • Reduces delays through digital processing.
    • Enhances coordination among aviation, immigration, and health authorities.

    What is a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)?

    • The highest level of global public health alert declared by the World Health Organization (WHO) under the International Health Regulations (IHR), 2005.
    • Declared when an extraordinary public health event: Poses a risk of international disease spread and Requires a coordinated international response.

    What is Ebola (Bundibugyo Virus Disease)?

    • A severe viral hemorrhagic fever caused by the Bundibugyo ebolavirus, one of the species of the Ebola virus.
    • Spread through:
      • Direct contact with infected blood or body fluids.
      • Contaminated objects.
      • Infected animals.
    • Symptoms: Fever. Weakness. Vomiting and diarrhoea. Internal and external bleeding in severe cases.

  • Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026

    Why in News?

    The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has notified the Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026 to ease industry compliance while maintaining product quality and strengthening domestic supply chains.

    What are Quality Control Orders (QCOs)?

    • Quality Control Orders (QCOs) are mandatory regulations issued by the Central Government under the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Act, 2016.
    • They require specified products to conform to Indian Standards (IS) and obtain BIS certification before manufacture, import, sale, or distribution.
    • Objectives:
      • Ensure consumer safety and product quality.
      • Prevent substandard imports.
      • Promote standardisation and manufacturing excellence.
      • Improve global competitiveness of Indian products.

    What is the Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026?

    The Order introduces a risk-based alternative compliance mechanism to facilitate a smooth transition to QCO compliance without compromising quality standards.

    Key Features

    • Allows manufacturers to procure inputs from suppliers licensed under:
      • Scheme II of the BIS (Conformity Assessment) Regulations, 2018 (Product Certification Scheme),
      • instead of only relying on Scheme I (ISI Mark Scheme).
    • Permissions will be granted based on:
      • Technical capability.
      • Compliance history.
      • Technology adoption and innovation.
      • Research and design capabilities.
      • Contribution to domestic supply chains.
    • Manufacturers with three consecutive years of default-free QCO compliance are also eligible for the benefits.
    • Maintains consumer protection while reducing compliance bottlenecks.

    BIS Certification Schemes

    • Scheme I (ISI Mark Scheme): Product testing and factory inspection. Mandatory use of the ISI Mark. Applicable to products covered under QCOs.
    • Scheme II: Simplified product certification framework. Intended for specific categories where alternative conformity assessment is permitted. Facilitates flexible sourcing while ensuring quality.

    Significance

    • Strengthens domestic value chains.
    • Encourages technology upgradation and innovation.
    • Reduces regulatory burden on industry.
    • Enhances Ease of Doing Business.
    • Improves integration with global supply chains.
    • Ensures continued consumer confidence in product quality.

    Prelims Pointers

    • DPIIT: Department under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for industrial policy, startup promotion, and quality ecosystem.
    • Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
      • National Standards Body of India.
      • Established under the BIS Act, 2016.
      • Functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
      • Formulates Indian Standards and operates certification schemes, including the ISI Mark.

  • Criminal Cases Among Rajya Sabha MPs (ADR Report)

    Why in News?

    A report by the Association for Democratic Reforms and National Election Watch found that 31% of sitting Rajya Sabha MPs have declared criminal cases, while 16% have declared serious criminal cases in their election affidavits.

    Key Findings

    • Analysis covered 226 of 233 Rajya Sabha MPs.
      • 4 seats (West Bengal) were vacant.
      • 3 MPs were excluded as affidavits were unavailable.
    • 69 MPs (31%) declared criminal cases.
    • 36 MPs (16%) declared serious criminal cases.
    • Serious offences include:
      • 1 MP with a murder case.
      • 4 MPs with attempt to murder cases.
      • 4 MPs with crimes against women.

    Party-wise Criminal Cases

    • BJP: 28 of 107 MPs (26%), Congress: 12 of 29 MPs (41%), AITC: 2 of 9 MPs (22%), DMK: 2 of 8 MPs (25%), SP: 2 of 4 MPs (50%), TDP: 3 of 4 MPs (75%), BRS: 3 of 3 MPs (100%), CPI(M): 3 of 3 MPs (100%), RJD: 2 of 3 MPs (67%), AIADMK: 1 of 4 MPs (25%), NCP: 1 of 4 MPs (25%), and AAP: 1 of 3 MPs (33%)

    Wealth Profile

    • 31 MPs (14%) declared assets exceeding ₹100 crore.
    • Major parties: BJP: 7 MPs, Congress: 6 MPs, YSRCP: 2 MPs, TDP: 2 MPs, BRS: 2 MPs, and NCP: 2 MPs

    About ADR

    • The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) is a non-governmental, non-partisan organization established in 1999.
    • It works to promote:
      • Electoral transparency.
      • Political and electoral reforms.
      • Informed voting through analysis of candidates’ affidavits.
    • ADR uses disclosures mandated by the Supreme Court and the Election Commission of India.

    Constitutional and Legal Background

    • Article 80: Composition of the Rajya Sabha.
    • Representation of the People Act, 1951
      • Section 8: Disqualification upon conviction for specified offences.
    • Mere pendency of criminal cases does not disqualify a candidate unless a conviction attracts disqualification under law.
    • Candidates must disclose criminal antecedents in nomination affidavits following Supreme Court judgments.

    [2020] Consider the following statements:

    1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. 

    2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    a . 1 only

    b . 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d . Neither 1 nor 2

  • SAIL Supplies Defence Grade Steel for Indian Navy Warships

    Why in News?

    The Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) supplied 5,700 tonnes of indigenous defence grade steel for three Indian Navy ships, INS Dunagiri, INS Agray, and INS Sanshodhak, commissioned on 21 June 2026. The move strengthens India’s defence indigenisation under Atmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India.

    Key Highlights

    • SAIL supplied 100% of the special steel requirement (5,700 tonnes) for INS Dunagiri (Stealth Frigate), INS Agray (ASW Shallow Water Craft), and INS Sanshodhak (Survey Vessel)
    • Steel supplied DMR 249A grade hot rolled sheets and plates (Defence grade steel).
    • Manufactured at Bokaro Steel Plant, Bhilai Steel Plant, and Rourkela Steel Plant
    • Production of DMR grade plates has been expanded, especially at the Special Plate Plant, Rourkela, to meet defence needs.

    What is DMR 249A Steel?

    • DMR (Defence Metallurgical Research) 249A is a high strength, low alloy steel developed for naval warships.
    • Features: High tensile strength, Excellent weldability, High toughness, Corrosion resistance in marine environments, and Better survivability under combat conditions.
    • Other Major Naval Platforms Using SAIL Steel: INS Vikrant, INS Nilgiri, INS Himgiri, INS Udaygiri, INS Ajay, INS Nistar, and INS Anjadeep

    Significance

    • Enhances self reliance in defence manufacturing.
    • Reduces dependence on imported naval steel.
    • Strengthens India’s indigenous shipbuilding capability.
    • Supports strategic maritime security and blue water naval ambitions.
    • Demonstrates collaboration between public sector steel manufacturing and defence production.

    [2016] Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?

    [A] Amphibious warfare ship

    [B] Nuclear-powered submarine

    [C] Torpedo launch and recovery vessel

    [D] Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

  • Index of Services Production (ISP)

    Why in the news?

    The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) will launch the Index of Services Production (ISP) in July 2026 as India’s first monthly indicator to measure short term growth in the services sector.

    What is ISP?

    • Index of Services Production (ISP) is a monthly high frequency indicator that measures changes in the real output (volume) of the formal services sector relative to a base year.
    • It is the services sector counterpart of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

    Key Highlights

    • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
    • Base Year: 2024-25.
    • First Trial Release: 14 July 2026 (for 2025-26 and April 2026).
    • Release Frequency: Monthly, with a 60 day time lag.
    • Compiled using a fixed weight Laspeyres Volume Index.
    • Weights are based on Gross Value Added (GVA) of service sectors.

    Objectives

    • Complement the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
    • Provide high frequency data on the services sector.
    • Improve economic forecasting and business cycle analysis.
    • Strengthen evidence based policymaking.

    Coverage

    • Included Sectors: Wholesale and retail trade, Transport, Banking and insurance, Telecommunications, Hotels and restaurants, Real estate, Professional, scientific and technical services, Arts, entertainment and recreation
    • To be Included Later: Health services and Education services (after availability of ASISSE data).

    Data Sources

    • Administrative data: Air Transport, Railways, Banking and Insurance.
    • GST (GSTR-1 outward supplies): Most service industries.
    • Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE): Health and Education.

    Why is ISP Important?

    • Services contribute over 50% of India’s Gross Value Added (GVA) since 2013-14.
    • Provides timely tracking of service sector performance.
    • Enables faster policy response and economic monitoring.
    • Aligns India with international statistical practices.

    Limitations

    • Covers only the formal services sector.
    • Excludes: Public administration and defence, Government health and education, Social work without accommodation, Household services, Activities of extraterritorial organisations, Gambling and betting, Other predominantly non market and informal services.

    What is the proposed compilation formula?

    • ISP is proposed to be compiled using a fixed-weight Laspeyres Volume Index
      • Measures changes in output using fixed base year weights.
      • Widely used for indices such as IIP due to ease of comparison over time.

    [2020] Consider the following statements:
    1.The weightage of food in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
    2.The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which the CPI does.
    3.The Reserve Bank of India uses WPI as its key measure of inflation to decide changes in policy rates.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 and 2 only

    [B] 2 and 3 only

    [C] 1 and 3 only

    [D] 1, 2 and 3