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31 Aug 2021

Let’s begin with the first physiographic division. It consists of:

• THE HIMALAYAS, and
• The Northeastern hills (Purvanchal).

A) The Himalayas:

The Himalayas are the highest and longest of all young fold mountains of the world. The Pamir, known as the roof of the world, connects the Himalayas with the high ranges of Central Asia.

Let’s begin by understanding how the Himalayas came into being:

About 40 to 50 million years ago, two large landmasses, India and Eurasia, driven by plate movement, collided. As a result, the sediments accumulated in Tethys Sea (brought by rivers) were compressed, squeezed and series of folds were formed, one behind the other, giving birth to folded mountains of the Himalayas.

Recent studies show that India is still moving northwards at the rate of 5cm/year and crashing into the rest of Asia, thereby constantly increasing the height of Himalayas.

The North-South division of the Himalayas

The Himalayas consist of a series of parallel mountain ranges:

1. The Greater Himalayan range, which includes:
   • The Great Himalayas(Himadri), and
   • The Trans-Himalayan range
2. The Lesser Himalayas (or Himachal), and
3. The Outer Himalayas (or Shiwalik).

• Formation of these ranges: The Himadri and Himachal ranges of the Himalayas have been formed much before the formation of Siwalik range. The rivers rising in the Himadri and Himachal ranges brought gravel, sand and mud along with them, which was deposited in the rapidly shrinking Tethys Sea. In the course of time, the earth movements caused the folding of these relatively fresh deposits of sediments, giving rise to the least consolidated Shiwalik range.
• Characteristic Features:
  • Notice in the map shown above that the Himalayas form an arcuate curve which is convex to the south. This curved shape of the Himalayas is attributed to the maximum push offered at the two ends on the Indian peninsula during its northward drift. In the north-west, it was done by Aravalis and in the Northeast by the Assam ranges.
  • Syntaxis/ Syntaxial bends: The gently arching ranges of the Himalayan mountains on their Western and Eastern extremities are sharply bent southward in deep Knee-bend flexures that are called syntaxial bends. On both the ends, the great mountains appear to bend around a pivotal point. The western point is situated south of the Pamir where the Karakoram meets the Hindu Kush. A similar sharp, almost hairpin bend occurs on the eastern limit of Arunachal Pradesh where the strike of the mountain changes sharply from the Easterly to Southerly trend. Besides these two major bends, there are a number of minor syntaxial bends in other parts of Himalayas.
    Syntaxial Bends of Himalayas
  • The Himalayas are wider in the west than in the east. The width varies from 400 km in Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh. The main reason behind this difference is that the compressive force was more in the east than in the west. That is why high mountain peaks like Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga are present in the Eastern Himalayas.
  • The ranges are separated by deep valleys creating a highly dissected topography.
  • The southern slopes of the Himalayas facing India are steeper and those facing the Tibetan side are generally gentler.
• Let’s take up these Himalayan mountain ranges one by one:   The Himalayan Ranges | the Greater Himalayan Range, the Lesser Himalayas, the Shivaliks Indus-Tsangpo Suture Zone: It represents a belt of tectonic compression caused by the underthrusting of the Indian shield/ plate against the Tibetan mass. It marks the boundary between the Indian and Eurasian plates. The suture zone stretches from the North-Western Himalayan syntaxis bordering the Nanga Parbat to the East as far as the Namche Barwa Mountain. The Karakoram Range and the Ladakh plateau lie to the north of ITSZ and originally formed a part of the European plate. Main Central Thrust Zone: This separates the Higher Himalayas in the north from lesser Himalayas in the south. It has played an important role in the tectonic history of these mountains. Main Boundary Thrust: It is a reverse fault of great dimensions which extends all the way from Assam to Punjab and serves to separate the outer Himalayas from the lesser Himalayas.Himalayan Frontal Fault: It is a series of reverse faults that demarcates the boundary of the Shivalik from of the Himalayan province from the alluvial expanse of the Indo-Gangetic plains.

Besides the longitudinal divisions, the Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from west to east:

These divisions have been demarcated by river valleys:

1. Punjab Himalayas:
   • A large portion of Punjab Himalayas is in Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh. Hence they are also called the Kashmir and Himachal Himalaya.
   • Major ranges: Karakoram, Ladakh, Pir Panjal, Zaskar and Dhaola Dhar.
   • The general elevation falls westwards.
   • The Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations.
     • ‘Karewas’ in Kashmiri language refer to the lake deposits, found in the flat-topped terraces of the Kashmir valley and on the flanks of the Pir Panjal range.
     • These deposits consist of clays, silts and sands, these deposits also show evidence of glaciation.
     • The occurrence of tilted beds of Karewas at the altitudes of 1500-1800m on the flanks of the Pir Panjal strongly suggests that the Himalayas were in process of uplift as late as Pliocene and Pleistocene (1.8mya to 10kyears ago)
     • Karewas are famous for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron.
2. Kumaon Himalayas
3. Nepal Himalayas:
   • Tallest section of Himalayas
4. Sikkim Himalayas:
   • Teesta river originates near Kanchenjunga
   • Jelep la pass- tri-junction of India- China-Bhutan
5. Assam Himalayas:
   • The Himalayas are narrower in this region and Lesser Himalayas lie close to Great Himalayas.
   • Peaks: Namcha Barwa, Kula Kangri
   • Bengal ‘Duars’
   • Diphu pass- tri-junction of India- China-Myanmar
   • The Assam Himalayas show a marked dominance of fluvial erosion due to heavy rainfall.

Glaciers and Snowline:

Snowline: The lower limit of perpetual snow is called the ‘snowline’. The snowline in the Himalayas has different heights in different parts, depending on latitude, altitude, amount of precipitation, moisture, slope and local topography.

1. The snowline in the Western Himalaya is at a lower altitude than in the Eastern Himalaya. E.g. while the glaciers of the Kanchenjunga in the Sikkim portion hardly move below 4000m, and those of Kumaon and Lahul to 3600m, the glaciers of the Kashmir Himalayas may descend to 2500m above the sea level.

• It is because of the increase in latitude from 28°N in Kanchenjunga to 36°N in the Karakoram (Lower latitude —> warmer temperatures —> higher snowline).
• Also, the Eastern Himalayas rise abruptly from the planes without the intervention of High ranges.
• Though the total precipitation is much less in the western Himalayas, it all takes place in the form of snow.

2. In the Great Himalayan ranges, the snowline is at a lower elevation on the southern slopes than on the northern slopes. This is because the southern slopes are steeper and receive more precipitation as compared to the northern slopes.

Glaciers: The main glaciers are found in the Great Himalayas and the Trans-Himalayan ranges (Karakoram, Ladakh and Zaskar). The Lesser Himalayas have small glaciers, though traces of large glaciers are found in the Pir Panjal and Dhauladhar ranges. Some of the important glaciers are:

Key differences between the Eastern and Western Himalayas:

Important Passes in India:

A pass is a narrow gap in a mountain range which provides a passageway through the barrier.

1. Pir Panjal Pass – It provides the shortest and the easiest metal road between Jammu and the Kashmir Valley. But this route had to be closed down as a result of partition of the subcontinent.
2. Banihal Pass – It is in Jammu and Kashmir. The road from Jammu to Srinagar transversed Banihal Pass until 1956 when Jawahar Tunnel was constructed under the pass. The road now passes through the tunnel and the Banihal Pass is no longer used for road transport.
3. Zoji La (Pass) – It is in the Zaskar range of Jammu and Kashmir. The land route from Srinagar to Leh goes through this pass.
4. Shipki La (Pass) – It is in Himachal Pradesh. The road from Shimla to Tibet goes through this pass. The Satluj river flows through this pass.
5. Bara Lacha Pass – It is also in Himachal Pradesh. It links Mandi and Leh by road.
6. Rohtang Pass – It is also in Himachal Pradesh. It cuts through the Pir Panjal range. It links Manali and Leh by road.
7. Niti Pass – It is in Uttarakhand. The road to the Kailash and the Manasarovar passes through it.
8. Nathu La (Pass) – It is in Sikkim. It gives way to Tibet from Darjeeling and Chumbi valley. The Chumbi river flows through this pass.
9. Jalep La (Pass) – At the tri-junction of India- China-Bhutan. The Teesta river has created this pass.

B) The North-Eastern Hills and Mountains

The Brahmaputra marks the eastern border of Himalayas. Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas bend sharply towards the south and form the Eastern hills or Purvanchal.

• These hills run through the northeastern states of India.
• These hills differ in scale and relief but stem from the Himalayan orogeny.
• They are mostly composed of sandstones (i.e. Sedimentary rocks).
• These hills are covered with dense forests.
• Their elevation decreases from north to south. Although comparatively low, these hill ranges are rather forbidding because of the rough terrain, dense forests and swift streams.
• Purvanchal hills are convex to the west.
• These hills are composed of:
  • Patkai Bum – Border between Arunachal Pradesh and Myanmar
  • Naga Hills
  • Manipuri Hills – Border between Manipur and Myanmar
  • Mizo Hills.
• Patkai Bum and Naga Hills form the watershed between India and Myanmar.
• Extension of Purvanchal continues in Myanmar as Arakan Yoma –then Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

The importance of Himalayan Region:

1. Climatic Influence – The altitude of the Himalayas, their sprawl and extension intercept the summer monsoon. They also prevent the cold Siberian air masses from entering into India.

2. Defence
3. Source of perennial rivers
4. Source of fertile soils
5. Generation of hydroelectricity
6. Forest wealth
7. Orchards
8. Minerals – The Himalayan region is rich in minerals e.g. gold, silver, copper, lead etc. are known to occur. Coal is found in Kashmir. But at the present level of technological advancement, it is not possible to extract these minerals. Also, it is not economically viable.
9. Tourism
10. Pilgrimage

NORTHERN PLAINS

Location and Extent:

Northern plains are the youngest physiographic feature in India. They lie to the south of the Shivaliks, separated by the Himalayan Frontal Fault (HFF). The southern boundary is a wavy irregular line along the northern edge of the Peninsular India. On the eastern side, the plains are bordered by the Purvanchal hills.

Formation of Northern Plains:

Due to the uplift of the Himalayas in the Tethys Sea, the northern part of the Indian Peninsula got subsided and formed a large basin.

That basin was filled with sediments from the rivers which came from the mountains in the north and from the peninsula in the south. These extensive alluvial deposits led to the formation of the northern plains of India.

Chief Characteristics:

• The northern plain of India is formed by three river systems, i.e. the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra; along with their tributaries.
• The northern plains are the largest alluvial tract of the world. These plains extend approximately 3200 km from west to east.
• The average width of these plains varies between 150 and 300 km. In general, the width of the northern plains increases from east to west (90-100km in Assam to about 500km in Punjab).
• The exact depth of alluvium has not yet been fully determined. According to recent estimates, the average depth of alluvium in the southern side of the plain varies between 1300-1400m, while towards the Shiwaliks, the depth of alluvium increases. The maximum depth of over 8000m has been reached in parts of Haryana.
• The extreme horizontality of this monotonous plain is its chief characteristic (200m – 291m). The highest elevation of 291 m above mean sea level near Ambala forms a watershed between the Indus system and Ganga system).
• The monotony of the physical landscape is broken at the micro-level by the river bluffs, levees etc.
  • [Floodplain – That part of a river valley, adjacent to the channel, over which a river flows in times of a flood.
  • Levee – An elevated bank flanking the channel of the river and standing above the level of the flood plain.
  • Bluff – A river cut cliff or steep slope on the outside of a meander. A line of bluffs often marks the edge of a former floodplain.]

Physiographic Divisions of the Northern Plains:

From the north to the south, the northern plains can be divided into three major zones:

1. The Bhabar
2. The Tarai
3. The alluvial plains.

The alluvial plains can be further divided into the Khadar and the Bhangar as illustrated below:

Let’s understand these divisions one by one:

Bhabar:

• Bhabar is a narrow belt (8-10km wide) which runs in the west-east direction along the foot of the Himalayas from the river Indus to Teesta.
  Source
• Rivers which descend from the Himalayas deposit their load along the foothills in the form of alluvial fans.
• These fans consisting of coarser sediments have merged together to build up the piedmont plain/the Bhabar.

• The porosity of the pebble-studded rock beds is very high and as a result, most of the streams sink and flow underground. Therefore, the area is characterized by dry river courses except in the rainy season.
• The Bhabar track is not suitable for cultivation of crops. Only big trees with large roots thrive in this region.
• The Bhabar belt is comparatively narrow in the east and extensive in the western and north-western hilly region.

Tarai:

• It is a 10-20 km wide marshy region in the south of Bhabar and runs parallel to it.
• The Tarai is wider in the eastern parts of the Great Plains, especially in the Brahmaputra valley due to heavy rainfall.
• It is characterized by the re-emergence of the underground streams of the Bhabar belt.
• The reemerged water transforms large areas along the rivers into badly drained marshy lands.
• Once covered with dense forests, most of the Tarai land (especially in Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand) has been reclaimed and turned into agricultural land over a period of time.

Bhangar:

• It is the older alluvium along the river beds forming terraces higher than the flood plain.
• Dark in colour, rich in humus content and productive.
• The soil is clayey in composition and has lime modules (called kankar)
• Found in doabs (inter-fluve areas)
• ‘The Barind plains’ in the deltaic region of Bengal and the ‘bhur formations’ in the middle Ganga and Yamuna doab are regional variations of Bhangar. [Bhur denotes an elevated piece of land situated along the banks of the Ganga river especially in the upper Ganga-Yamuna Doab. This has been formed due to accumulation of wind-blown sands during the hot dry months of the year]
• In relatively drier areas, the Bhangar also exhibits small tracts of saline and alkaline efflorescence known as ‘Reh’, ‘Kallar’ or ‘Bhur’. Reh areas have spread in recent times with an increase in irrigation (capillary action brings salts to the surface).
• May have fossil remains of even those plants and animals which have become extinct.

Khadar:

• Composed of newer alluvium and forms the flood plains along the river banks.
• Light in colour, sandy in texture and more porous.
• Found near the riverbeds.
• A new layer of alluvium is deposited by river flood almost every year. This makes them the most fertile soils of Ganges.
• In Punjab, the Khadar rich flood plains are locally known as ‘Betlands’ or ‘Bets’.
• The rivers in Punjab-Haryana plains have broad flood plains of Khadar flanked by bluffs, locally known as Dhayas. These bluffs are as high as 3metres.

Northern Plain: Regional Divisions

The Regional Divisions of the Northern Plains: Punjab, Ganga and the Brahmaputra Plains.

1. Punjab Plains:

• The Punjab plains form the western part of the northern plain.
• In the east, the Delhi-Aravalli ridge separates it from the Ganga plains.
• This is formed by the Indus and its tributaries; like Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej. A major portion of these plains is in Pakistan.
• It is divided into many Doabs (do-“two” + ab- “water or river” = “a region or land lying between and reaching to the meeting of the two rivers”).
    Khadar and Bhangar
• Important features:
  • Khadar rich flood plains known as ‘Betlands’ or ‘Bets’.
  • The rivers in Punjab-Haryana plains have broad flood plains of Khadar flanked by bluffs, locally known as Dhayas.
  • The northern part of this plane adjoining the Shivalik hills has been heavily eroded by numerous streams, which are called Chhos.
  • The southwestern parts, especially the Hisar district is sandy and characterized by shifting sand-dunes.

2. Ganga Plains:

• The Ganga plains lie between the Yamuna catchment in the west to the Bangladesh border in the East.
• The lower Ganga plain has been formed by the down warping of a part of Peninsular India between Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau and subsequent sedimentation by the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.
• The main topographical variations in these plains include Bhabar, Tarai, Bhangar, Khadar, levees, abandoned courses etc.
• Almost all the rivers keep on shifting their courses making this area prone to frequent floods. The Kosi river is very notorious in this respect. It has long been called the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
• The northern states, Haryana, Delhi, UP, Bihar, part of Jharkhand and West Bengal in the east lie in the Ganga plains.
• The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta: the largest delta in the world. A large part of the coastal delta is covered tidal forests called Sunderbans. Sunderbans, the largest mangrove swamp in the world gets its name from the Sundari tree which grows well in marshland. It is home to the Royal Tiger and crocodiles.

3. Brahmaputra Plains:

• This plain forms the eastern part of the northern plain and lies in Assam.
• Its western boundary is formed by the Indo-Bangladesh border as well as the boundary of the lower Ganga Plain. Its eastern boundary is formed by Purvanchal hills.
• The region is surrounded by high mountains on all sides, except on the west.
• The whole length of the plain is traversed by the Brahmaputra.

• The Brahmaputra plains are known for their riverine islands (due to the low gradient of the region) and sand bars.
• The innumerable tributaries of the Brahmaputra river coming from the north form a number of alluvial fans. Consequently, the tributaries branch out in many channels giving birth to river meandering leading to the formation of bill and ox-bow lakes.
• There are large marshy tracts in this area. The alluvial fans formed by the coarse alluvial debris have led to the formation of terai or semi-terai conditions.

Significance of this region:

• The plains constitute less than one-third of the total area of the country but support over 40 percent of the total population of the country.
• Fertile alluvial soils, flat surface, slow-moving perennial rivers and favourable climate facilitate an intense agricultural activity.
• The extensive use of irrigation has made Punjab, Haryana and western part of Uttar Pradesh the granary of India (Prairies are called the granaries of the world).
• Cultural tourism: Several sacred places and centres of pilgrimage are situated in these plains e.g. Haridwar, Amritsar, Varanasi, Allahabad, Bodh Gaya etc.
• The sedimentary rocks of plains have petroleum and natural gas deposits.
• The rivers here have very gentle gradients which make them navigable over long distances.

PENINSULAR PLATEAU

A. Location and Extent

• The Peninsular Plateau lies to the south of the Northern Plains of India.
• It is bordered on all sides by the hill ranges:
• Delhi ridge in the north-west (extension of Aravalis),
• the Rajmahal Hills in the east,
• Gir range in the west, and
• the Cardamom Hills in the south constitute the outer extent of the peninsular plateau.

• Outlier:
  • Shillong and Karbi-Anglong plateau.

Note: Kutchch Kathiawar region – The region, though an extension of Peninsular plateau (because Kathiawar is made of the Deccan Lava and there are tertiary rocks in the Kutch area), they are now treated as an integral part of the Western Coastal Plains as they are now levelled down.

• The Garo-Rajmahal Gap:
  • The two disconnected outlying segments of the plateau region are seen in the Rajmahal and Garo-Khasi Jaintia hills.
  • It is believed that due to the force exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin, a huge fault was created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau
  • Later, this depression got filled up by the deposition activity of the numerous rivers.
  • As a result, today the Meghalaya and Karbi Anglong plateau stand detached from the main Peninsular Block.

Geological History and Features:

The peninsular plateau is a tableland which contains igneous and metamorphic rocks. It is one of the oldest and the most stable landmass of India.

In its otherwise stable history, the peninsula has seen a few changes like:

1. Gondwana Coal Formation.
2. Narmada-Tapi rift valley formation.
3. Basalt Lava eruption on Deccan plateau:

During its journey northward after breaking off from the rest of Gondwana, the Indian Plate passed over a geologic hotspot, the Réunion hotspot, which caused extensive melting underneath the Indian Craton. The melting broke through the surface of the craton in a massive flood basalt event, creating what is known as the Deccan Traps (Its various features have been discussed in the later portion of the article).

Chief Characteristics:

The entire peninsular plateau region is an aggregation of several smaller plateaus and hill ranges interspersed with river basins and valleys. The Chhattisgarh plain occupied by the dense Dandakaranya forests is the only plain in the peninsula.

1. General elevation and flow of rivers:

• The average elevation is 600-900 metres.
• The general elevation of the plateau is from the west to the east, which is also proved by the pattern of the flow of rivers.
• Barring Narmada and Tapti all the major rivers lying to the south of the Vindhyas flow eastwards to fall into the Bay of Bengal.
• The westward flow of Narmada and Tapi is assigned to the fact that they have been flowing through faults or rifts which were probably caused when the Himalayas began to emerge from the Tethys Sea of the olden times.

2. Some of the important physiographic features of this region are:

• Tors – Prominent, isolated mass of jointed, weathered rock, usually granite.

• Block Mountains and Rift Valleys:
• Spurs: A marked projection of land from a mountain or a ridge

• Bare rocky structures,
• Series of hummocky hills and wall-like quartzite dykes offering natural sites for water storage.
• Broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills
• Ravines and gorges: The northwestern part of the plateau has a complex relief of ravines and gorges. The ravines of Chambal, Bhind and Morena are some of the well-known examples.

3. The Deccan Traps:

• One of the most important features of the peninsular plateau is the black soil area in the western and northwestern part of the plateau, which is known as the Deccan Trap.
• From the end of the Cretacious until the beginning of the Eocene, numerous fissure-type eruptions took place in the north-western part of the Deccan plateau. It is believed that the lava outpourings were more than the mass comprising the present-day Himalayas.
• It covers a major portion of the Maharashtra plateau and parts of Gujarat, northern Karnataka and Malwa plateau. Some parts of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, UP, and Jharkhand have some outliers of Deccan trap.
• Basalt is the main rock of the region.
• The region has black cotton soil as a result of weathering of this lava material and this soil is one of the finest examples of the parent material controlled soils.

Physiographic Divisions:

On the basis of prominent relief features, the peninsular plateau can be divided into three broad groups:

• The Central Highlands
• The Deccan Plateau
• The Northeastern Plateau.

Let’s take up these divisions one by one:

1. The Central Highlands

• The northern segment of the peninsular plateau is known as the Central Highlands.
• Location:
  1. North of Narmada river.
  2. They are bounded to the west by the Aravallis.
  3. Satpura ranges (formed by a series of scarped plateaus) lie in the South.
• General Elevation: 700-1,000 m above the mean sea level and it slopes towards the north and northeastern directions.
• These highlands consist of the:
  1. Marwar upland – to the east of Aravallis in Rajasthan
     • A rolling plain carved by Banas river. [Rolling Plain: ‘Rolling plains’ are not completely flat; there are slight rises and fall in the landform. Ex: Prairies of USA]
     • The average elevation is 250-500 m above sea level.
  2. Madhya Bharat Pathar – to the east of Marwar upland.
  3. Malwa plateau – It lies in Madhya Pradesh between Aravali and Vindhyas. It is composed of the extensive lava flow and is covered with black soils.
  4. Bundelkhand plateau – It lies along the borders of UP and MP. Because of intensive erosion, semi-arid climate and undulating area, it is unfit for cultivation.
  5. Baghelkhand plateau – It lies to the east of the Maikal range.
  6. Chhotanagpur plateau – the northeast part of Peninsular plateau.
     • It Includes Jharkhand, parts of Chhattisgarh and West Bengal.
     • This plateau consists of a series of step-like sub-plateaus (locally called peatlands – high-level plateau). It is thus famous as the Patland plateau and known as Ruhr of India.
     • Rajmahal Hills are the northeastern projection of Chhota Nagpur Plateau.
     • It is a mineral-rich plateau.

• The extension of the Peninsular plateau can be seen as far as Jaisalmer in the West, where it has been covered by the longitudinal sand ridges and crescent-shaped sand dunes called barchans.
• This region has undergone metamorphic processes in its geological history, which can be corroborated by the presence of metamorphic rocks such as marble, slate, gneiss, etc.
• Most of the tributaries of the river Yamuna have their origin in the Vindhyan and Kaimur ranges. Banas is the only significant tributary of the river Chambal that originates from the Aravalli in the west.

2. The Deccan Plateau

• The Deccan Plateau lies to the south of the Narmada River and is shaped as an inverted triangle.
• It is bordered by:
  1. The Western Ghats in the west,
  2. The Eastern Ghats in the east,
  3. The Satpura, Maikal range and Mahadeo hills in the north.
• It is volcanic in origin, made up of horizontal layers of solidified lava forming trap structure with step-like appearance. The sedimentary layers are also found in between the layers of solidified lava, making it inter–trapping in structure.
• Most of the rivers flow from west to east.
• The plateau is suitable for the cultivation of cotton; home to rich mineral resources and a source to generate hydroelectric power.
• The Deccan plateau can be subdivided as follows:
  1. The Maharashtra Plateau – it has typical Deccan trap topography underlain by basaltic rock, the regur.
  2. The Karnataka Plateau (also known as Mysore plateau) – divided into western hilly country region of ‘Malnad’ and plain ‘Maidan’
  3. Telangana Plateau

3. The Northeastern Plateau:

• The Meghalaya (or Shillong) plateau is separated from peninsular rock base by the Garo-Rajmahal gap.
• Shillong (1,961 m) is the highest point of the plateau.
• The region has the Garo, Khasi, Jaintia and Mikir (Rengma) hills.
• An extension of the Meghalaya plateau is also seen in the Karbi Anglong hills of Assam.
• The Meghalaya plateau is also rich in mineral resources like coal, iron ore, sillimanite, limestone and uranium.
• This area receives maximum rainfall from the south-west monsoon. As a result, the Meghalaya plateau has a highly eroded surface. Cherrapunji displays a bare rocky surface devoid of any permanent vegetation cover.

Hill ranges of the peninsula:

Most of the hills in the peninsular region are of the relict type (residual hills). They are the remnants of the hills and horsts formed many million years ago (horst: uplifted block; graben: subsided block).

The plateaus of the Peninsular region are separated from one another by these hill ranges and various river valleys.

1. The Aravalli Mountain Range:

• It is a relic of one of the oldest fold mountains of the world.
• Its general elevation is only 400-600 m, with few hills well above 1,000 m.
• At present, it is seen as a discontinuous ridge from Delhi to Ajmer and rising up to 1722m (Gurushikhar peak in Mount Abu) and thence southward.
• It is known as ‘Jarga’ near Udaipur and ‘Delhi Ridge’ near Delhi.
• Dilwara Jain Temple, the famous Jain temple is situated on Mt. Abu.

2. Vindhyan Ranges:

• They rise as an escarpment running parallel to the Narmada-Son valley.
• General elevation: 300 to 650 m.
• Most of them are made up of sedimentary rocks of ancient ages.
• They act as a watershed between Gangetic and peninsular river systems.

3. Satpura ranges:

• Satpura range is a series of seven mountains (‘Sat’ = seven and ‘pura’ = mountains).
• The seven mountain ranges or folds of Satpura’s are:
  • Maikal Hills
  • Mahadeo Hills near Pachmarhi
  • Kalibhit
  • Asirgarh
  • Bijagarh
  • Barwani
  • Arwani which extends to Rajpipla Hills in Eastern Gujarat.
• Satpura ranges run parallel between Narmada and Tapi, parallel to Maharashtra-MP border.
• Dhupgarh (1,350 m) near Pachmarhi on Mahadev Hills is the highest peak of the Satpura Range.
• Amarkantak (1,127 m) is another important peak. Amarkantak is the highest peak of the Maikal Hills from where two prominent rivers – the Narmada and the Son originate.
• Note that three rivers originate from the three sides of Maikal hills (as shown in the following map) but, from Amarkantak, only two rivers (the Narmada and the Son) originate (and not Mahanadi).

4. Western and Eastern Ghats:

• The Western Ghats:
  • These are a faulted part of the Deccan plateau running parallel from the Tapi valley to a little north of Kanyakumari (1600km). Their western slope is like an escarpment while eastern slope merges gently with the plateau.
  • Their average elevation is about 1,500 m with the height increasing from north to south.
• The Eastern Ghats are in the form of residual mountains which are not regular but broken at intervals.
• The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.
• A brief comparison between them:

Note: The Western Ghats are continuous and can be crossed through passes only. There are four main passes which have developed in the Western Ghats. These are:

1. Thal Ghat – It links Nasik to Mumbai.
2. Bhor Ghat – It links Mumbai to Pune.
3. Pal Ghat – This pass is located between the Nilgiris and the Annamalai mountains. It is in Kerala and connects Kochi and Chennai.
4. Senkota Pass – This pass located between the Nagercoil and the Cardamom hills links Thiruvananthapuram and Madurai.

For the geographical location of these passes, see the following map:

Significance of the Peninsular Region:

• Rich in mineral resources: The peninsular region of India is rich in both metallic and non-metallic minerals. About 98% of the Gondwana coal deposits of India are found in the peninsular region.
• Agriculture: Black soil found in a substantial part of the peninsula is conducive for the cultivation of cotton, maize , citrus fruits etc. Some areas are also suitable for the cultivation of tea, coffee, groundnut etc.
• Forest Products: Apart from teal, sal wood and other forest products, the forests of Western and Eastern Ghats are rich in medicinal plants and are home to many wild animals.
• Hydel Power: many rivers, which have waterfalls. They help in the generation of hydroelectric power.
• Tourism: There are numerous hill stations and hill resorts like Ooty, Mahabaleshwar, Khandala, etc.

THE INDIAN DESERT

The Indian desert is also known as the Thar Desert or the Great Indian Desert.

Location and Extent:

• Location – To the north-west of the Aravali hills.
• It covers Western Rajasthan and extends to the adjacent parts of Pakistan.

Geological History and Features

• Most of the arid plain was under the sea from Permo-Carboniferous period and later it was uplifted during the Pleistocene age. This can be corroborated by the evidence available at wood fossils park at Aakal and marine deposits around Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer (The approximate age of the wood fossils is estimated to be 180 million years).
• The presence of dry beds of rivers (eg Saraswati) indicates that the region was once fertile.
• Geologically, the desert area is a part of the peninsular plateau region but on the surface, it looks like an aggradational plain.

Chief Characteristics:

• The desert proper is called the Marusthali (dead land) as this region has an arid climate with low vegetation cover. In general, the Eastern part of the Marushthali is rocky, while its western part is covered by shifting sand dunes.
• Bagar: Bagar refers to the semi-desert area which is west of Aravallis. Bagar has a thin layer of sand. It is drained by Luni in the south whereas the northern section has a number of salt lakes.
• The Rajasthan Bagar region has a number of short seasonal streams which originate from the Aravallis. These streams support agriculture in some fertile patches called Rohi.
• Even the most important river ‘Luni’ is a seasonal stream. The Luni originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer and flows towards the southwest into the Rann of Kutch.
• The region north of Luni is known as the Thali or sandy plain.
• There are some streams which disappear after flowing for some distance and present a typical case of inland drainage by joining a lake or playa e.g. the Sambhar Lake. The lakes and the playas have brackish water which is the main source of obtaining salt.
• Well pronounced desert land features:
  • Sand dunes: It is a land of undulating topography dotted with longitudinal dunes, transverse dunes and barchans. [Barchan – A crescent-shaped sand dune, the horns of which point away from the direction of the dominant wind; Longitudinal dune – A sand dune with its crest running parallel to the direction of prevailing wind]

• Mushroom rocks
• Shifting dunes (locally called Dhrians)
• Oasis (mostly in its southern part)

THE COASTAL PLAINS

Of the total coastline of India (7517 km), that of the peninsula is 6100 km between the peninsular plateau and the sea. The peninsular plateau of India is flanked by narrow coastal plains of varied width from north to south.

On the basis of the location and active geomorphologic processes, these can be broadly divided into two parts:

• The western coastal plains
• The eastern coastal plains.

We now take them up one by one:

The Western Coastal Plain

1. Extent: The Western Coastal Plains are a thin strip of coastal plains with a width of 50 km between the Arabian Sea and the Western Ghats.

2. Subdivisions: Extending from the Gujarat coast in the north to the Kerala coast in the south, the western coast may be divided into following divisions:

• Kachchh and Kathiawar coast in Gujarat,
• Konkan coast in Maharashtra,
• Goan Coast in Karnataka, and
• Malabar coast in Kerala

Note: Kutch and Kathiawar, though an extension of Peninsular plateau (because Kathiawar is made of the Deccan Lava and there are tertiary rocks in the Kutch area), they are still treated as an integral part of the Western Coastal Plains as they are now levelled down.

3. A coastline of submergence: The western coastal plains are an example of the submerged coastal plain. It is believed that the city of Dwaraka which was once a part of the Indian mainland situated along the west coast is submerged underwater.

4. Characteristic Features:

• The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south. Except for the Kachchh and Kathiawar coastal region, these are narrower than their eastern counterpart.
• The coast is straight and affected by the South-West Monsoon winds over a period of six months. The western coastal plains are thus wetter than their eastern counterpart.
• The western coast being more indented than the eastern coast provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast.
• The western coastal plains are dotted with a large number of coves (a very small bay), creeks (a narrow, sheltered waterway such as an inlet in a shoreline or channel in a marsh) and a few estuaries. The estuaries, of the Narmada and the Tapi are the major ones.
• The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta. Many small rivers descend from the Western Ghats making a chain of waterfalls.
• The Kayals – The Malabar coast has a distinguishing feature in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters). These backwaters are the shallow lagoons or the inlets of the sea and lie parallel to the coastline. These are used for fishing, inland navigation and are important tourist spots. The largest of these lagoons is the Vembanad lake. Kochi is situated on its opening into the sea.

The Eastern Coastal Plain

1. Extent: The Eastern Coastal Plains is a strip of coastal plain with a width of 100 – 130 km between the Bay of Bengal and the Eastern Ghats

2. Subdivisions: It can be divided into two parts:

• Northern Circar: The northern part between Mahanadi and Krishna rivers. Additionally, the coastal tract of Odisha is called the Utkal plains.
• Coromandel Coast (or Payan Ghat): The southern part between Krishna and Kaveri rivers.

3. A coastline of emergence: The eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast.

4. Characteristic features:

• The eastern coastal plains are wider and drier resulting in shifting sand dunes on its plains.
• There are well-developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward in to the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.
• Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and harbours. The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, which makes it difficult for the development of good ports and harbours.
• Chilika lake is an important feature along the eastern coast. It is the largest saltwater lake in India.

Significance of the Coastal Plains region:

1. These plains are agriculturally very productive. The western coast grows specialized tropical crops while eastern coasts witnessed a green revolution in rice.
2. The delta regions of eastern coastal plains have a good network of canals across the river tributaries.
3. Coastal plains are a source of salt, monazite (used for nuclear power) and mineral oil and gas as well as centres of fisheries.
4. Although lacking in adequate natural harbours, with a number of major and minor ports, coastal plains are centres of commerce and have attracted dense human settlements.
5. The coastal regions of India are noted for tourist centres, fishing and salt making.

THE ISLANDS

There are two major island groups in India

1. The island groups of Bay of Bengal: Andaman & Nicobar Islands
2. The island groups of Arabian Sea: Lakshadweep and Minicoy Islands

Let’s take these up one by one:

Andaman & Nicobar Islands:

• Also called the emerald islands.
• Location and Extent:
  • These are situated roughly between 6°N-14°N and 92°E -94°E.
  • The most visible feature of the alignment of these islands is their narrow longitudinal extent.
  • These islands extend from the Landfall Island in the north (in the Andamans) to the Indira Point (formerly known as Pygmalion Point and Parsons Point) in the south (In the Great Nicobar).
• Origin: The Andaman and Nicobar islands have a geological affinity with the tertiary formation of the Himalayas, and form a part of its southern loop continuing southward from the Arakan Yoma.
• The entire group of islands is divided into two broad categories:
  • The Andaman in the north, and
  • The Nicobar in the south.

They are separated by a water body which is called the Ten-degree channel.

• The Andaman islands are further divided into:
  • Great Andamans
    • North Andaman
    • Middle Andaman
    • South Andaman
  • Little Andaman

Little Andaman is separated from the Great Andamans by the Duncan Passage.

• Chief Characteristics:
  • These are actually a continuation of Arakan Yoma mountain range of Myanmar and are therefore characterized by hill ranges and valleys along with the development of some coral islands.
  • Some smaller islands are volcanic in origin e.g. the Barren island and the Narcondam Island. Narcondam is supposed to be a dormant volcano but Barren perhaps is still active.
  • These islands make an arcuate curve, convex to the west.
  • These islands are formed of granitic rocks.
  • The coastal line has some coral deposits and beautiful beaches.
  • These islands receive convectional rainfall and have an equatorial type of vegetation.
  • These islands have a warm tropical climate all year round with two monsoons.
  • The Saddle peak (North Andaman – 738 m) is the highest peak of these islands.
  • The Great Nicobar is the largest island in the Nicobar group and is the southernmost island. It is just 147 km away from the Sumatra island of Indonesia.

Lakshadweep Islands:

• These islands were earlier (before 1^st November 1973) known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands.
• Location:
  • These are scattered in the Arabian Sea between 8°N-12°N and 71°E -74°E longitude.
  • These islands are located at a distance of 280 km-480 km off the Kerala coast.
• Origin: The entire island group is built of coral deposits.
• Important islands:
  • Amindivi and Cannanore islands in the north.
  • Minicoy (lies to the south of the nine-degree channel) is the largest island with an area of 453 sq. km.

• Chief Characteristics:
  • These consist of approximately 36 islands of which 11 are inhabited.
  • These islands, in general, have a north-south orientation (only Androth has an East-West orientation.
  • These islands are never more than 5 metres above sea level.
  • These islands have calcium-rich soils- organic limestones and scattered vegetation of palm species.
  • One typical feature of these islands is the formation of the crescentic reef in the east and a lagoon in the west.
  • Their eastern seaboard is steeper.
  • The Islands of this archipelago have storm beaches consisting of unconsolidated pebbles, shingles, cobbles and boulders on the eastern seaboard.
  • The islands form the smallest Union Territory of India.

Other than the above mentioned two major groups, the important islands are:

1. Majauli: in Assam. It is:
   1. The world’s largest freshwater (Brahmaputra river) island.
   2. India’s first island district
2. Salsette: India’s most populous island. Mumbai city is located on this island.
3. Sriharikota: A barrier island. On this island is located the satellite launching station of ISRO.
4. Aliabet: India’s first off-shore oil well site (Gujarat); about 45 km from Bhavnagar, it is in the Gulf of Khambat.
5. New Moore Island: in the Ganga delta. It is also known as Purbasha island. It is an island in the Sunderban deltaic region and it was a bone of contention between India and Bangladesh. In 2010, it was reported to have been completely submerged by the rising seawater due to Global warming.
6. Pamban Island: lies between India and Sri Lanka.
7. Abdul Kalam Island: The Wheeler Island near the Odisha coast was renamed as Abdul Kalam island in 2015. It is a missile launching station in the Bay of Bengal. The first successful land-to-land test of the Prithvi Missile was conducted from the mainland and it landed on the then uninhabited ‘Wheeler Island’ on November 30, 1993.

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Topics for Today’s questions:

GS-1   Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc, geographical features and their location-changes in critical geographical features (including water-bodies and ice-caps) and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes.

GS-2    Structure, Organization and Functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary—Ministries and Departments of the Government; Pressure Groups and Formal/Informal Associations and their Role in the Polity.

 GS-3   Science and Technology- Developments and their Applications and Effects in Everyday Life.

GS-4    Ethics and Human Interface: Essence, determinants and consequences of ethics in human actions; dimensions of ethics; ethics in private and public relationships.

Questions:

Question 1)

 

Q.1 Why Himalayas are more prone to earthquakes than Western Ghats? Locate the various seismic highways in India by drawing a map of India & discuss the mechanism of propagation of earthquake inside the earth surface. (15 Marks)

 

Question 2)

Q.2 The degree of human rights violations in police stations in the country is a cause for concern. Examine the steps taken to address the issue and suggest the measures. (10 Marks)

Question 3)

Q.3 What are the benefits of Free and Open Source Softwares? What steps need to be taken to realise its potential in government applications? (10 Marks)

Question 4)  

https://www.civilsdaily.com/mains/q-4-giving-examples-of-some-social-ills-plaguing-the-society-discuss-how-social-persuasion-can-be-an-effective-technique-to-overcome-them-10-marks/

 

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UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Most Probable Questions – by Sukanya Rana

Q1) Consider the following statements:

1. Agaricus is a form of bacteria.
2. It represents saprotrophic type of association.

Select the correct option:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2

d) None

Q2) Consider the following statements:

1. The first photosynthetic organisms in the evolutionary history of life used reducing agents such as hydrogen or hydrogen sulfide, rather than water, as sources of electrons in photosynthesis.
2. Cyanobacteria produced excess oxygen which contributed directly to the oxygenation of the Earth.

Identify incorrect statement in the following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2

d) None

Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management (CWCM) 

1. It will be established as a part of the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM). 
2. India‟s first CWCM has been established in Kolkata. 

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

a) 1 only 

b) 2 only 

c) Both 1 and 2 

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q4) Consider the following statements about Pong Dam Wildlife Sanctuary 

1. It is located on the River Beas and in the State of Punjab. 

2. Bar Headed Geese is a flagship species in the sanctuary.

3. It is known for its flying capacity at extreme altitude i.e. heights of more than 7,000m. 

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 

a) 1 and 2 only 

b) 2 and 3 only 

c) 1 and 3 only 

d) All of the above

Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to Mandarin Duck 

1. It is a small-exotic bird native to East Asia. 

2. It is very rare to spot and is mentioned as critically endangered under IUCN Red list. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

a) 1 only 

b)2 only 

c) Both 1 and 2 

d) Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Environment & Ecology – by Santosh Gupta

Q1) Consider the following statements:

  1. Ecology is study of relationship of organisms with each other and environment

  2. Ecosystems are larger units of organization based on structure and composition of vegetation

  3.  Biome is defined as a structural and functional unit of biosphere

  4.  Biosphere is the largest unit of ecological organisation.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1&2 are correct

b) 2&3 are correct

c) 1&4 are correct

d) all of them are correct

Q2) Select the correct statement/s with regards to ecotone. 

1. It is a zone of transition. 

2. It is linear in nature

3. It is characterized by an edge effect.

4. Hot spots are a type of ecotone

Which of the above statements are true?

a) 1,2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 2, 3 and 4

d) All of them

Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to Ecological Niche:

1. Niche refers to functional characteristics of a species in its habitat
2. All the species in a habitat have same niche
3. The habitat plus the niche is called the ecotope
4. Niche follows competitive exclusion principle 

Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?

a) 1 & 2 are correct

b) 1 & 3 are correct

c) 1, 3 & 4 are correct

d) only 4 is correct

Q4) Which of the following is/are the characteristics of the ecological pyramid?

1. Ecological pyramid are of two types- Food and energy pyramids 

2. Species are accounted for at multiple trophic levels taking account of all the roles it plays. 

3. While food chain represents complex interactions, food web shows the linear interaction

4. Saprophytes play a key role in ecological pyramid 

Choose the correct option based on the above statements:

a) 1&2 are correct

b) 1,2 &4 are correct

c)  only 4 are correct

d) all of them are correct

Q5) Select the correct statement/s from the set of statements given below. 

1. Succession is a universal process of bidirectional change in vegetation. 

2. Succession brought about by outside forces is known as allogenic succession. 

3. The final stage of succession is called the climax community. 

Which of above statements are true?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of them

Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News – by Shweta Mishra

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(1) Model Tenancy Act, 2019

Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has released the draft Model Tenancy, 2019.

It envisages to balance the interest and rights of both the owner and tenant and to create an accountable and transparent ecosystem for renting the premises in disciplined and efficient manner.

The Model Act provides for its applicability for the whole of the State i.e. urban as well as rural areas in the State.

Features

• Establish Rent courts and Tribunals
  • Rent Authority may direct for compensation on the person responsible for cutting off or withholding the essential supply.
  • To ensure speedy redressal of disputes, it also proposes to establish Rent Court and Rent Tribunal that have to dispose off the cases within 60 days.
  • Act provides for fast-track quasi-judicial mechanism for adjudication of disputes. Officer of the rank of deputy collector or higher will act as rent authority to adjudicate any issue arising out of a rental disagreement
• Rent: All premises (residential or commercial) shall be rented only after a written agreement on mutually agreed terms.
• Security Deposits: It proposes to cap the security deposit to maximum of two month’s rent in case of residential properties and Security deposit to be refunded by the landlord at the time of taking over vacant possession of the premises.
• Repair and Maintenance: If the landowner refuses to carry out the required repairs, the tenant can get the work done and deduct the same from periodic rent.
• Agreement: A digital platform will be set up in local vernacular language of the State for submitting tenancy agreement and other documents.
  • The tenant cannot sublet a part of or the whole property or carry out any structural change without execution of supplementary agreement between landlord and tenant.
  • Landowner cannot cut power and water supply in case of a dispute with the tenant.
  • Act acknowledges property manager (the one who manages property on behalf of the landlord) as a legal entity. It further provides for duties of property manager and consequences of violation of duties.

(2) Right to Information (RTI) Amendment Act

Amendments brought in the RTI Act

• Removal of fixed term– As per the act, the CIC and ICs will hold office for a term of five years. The Amendment removes this provision and states that the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs.
• Determination of Salary– As per the act, the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the central level) will be equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners, respectively. Similarly, the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the state level) will be equivalent to the salary paid to the Election Commissioners and the Chief Secretary to the state government, respectively.
• The Amendment empowers the Central Government to determine the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs.

 (3) Laws Passed on Traditional Medicines

Recently, Parliament passed three Act related to Traditional medicine viz. The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) Act, 2020, The National Commission for Homoeopathy (NCH) Act, 2020 and The Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda (ITRA) Act, 2020.

The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Act (NCISM), 2020

• The Act seeks to repeal the Indian Medicine Central Council Act, 1970 and to provide for a medical education system which ensures:
  • availability of adequate and high-quality medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine
  • adoption of the latest medical research by medical professionals
  • periodic assessment of medical institutions and an effective grievance redressal mechanism.
• Constitution of National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) and State Medical Councils. NCISM would have the following responsibilities:
  • To frame policies for the regulation of medical professionals and institutions for Indian System of Medicine
  • To assess the human resources and infrastructure required in relation to healthcare
  • To ensure that the State Medical Councils of Indian System of Medicine adhered to the regulations laid down by the Act
  • To ensure that the autonomous boards set up under the Act worked in coordination with each other.
• Autonomous boards: It sets up certain autonomous boards under the supervision of the NCISM. These boards are:
  • The Board of Ayurveda and the Board of Unani, Siddha, and Sowa-Rigpa
  • The Medical Assessment and Rating Board for Indian System of Medicine
  • The Ethics and Medical Registration Board
• Advisory Council for Indian System of Medicine
• Uniform National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test for admission to under-graduate education and common final year National Exit Test for the students graduating from medical institutions to obtain the license for practice. Further, there will be a uniform post-graduate National Entrance Test for admission into post-graduate courses in each of the disciplines of the Indian System of Medicine in all medical institutions.
• National Teachers’ Eligibility Test for postgraduates of each discipline of Indian System of Medicine who wish to take up teaching that particular discipline as a profession.

The National Commission for Homoeopathy (NCH) Act, 2020

• The Act seeks to repeal the Homoeopathy Central Council Act, 1973 and provide for a medical education system which ensures availability of adequate and high quality homoeopathic medical professionals, etc.
• Constitution of the National Commission for Homoeopathy (NCH) and State Medical Councils for Homoeopathy o Functions of NCH: same as of NCISM but with regards to homeopathy
• Autonomous boards: The Act sets up certain autonomous boards under the supervision of the NCH. These are:
  • Homoeopathy Education Board:
  • Medical Assessment and Rating Board for Homoeopathy
  • Board of Ethics and Medical Registration for
• Advisory Council for Homoeopathy
• Entrance examinations for UG, PG and license for practice.
• National Teachers’ Eligibility Test
• Appeal on matters related to professional and ethical misconduct: The State Medical Councils and the Board of Ethics and Medical Registration for Homoeopathy have the power to take disciplinary action against the medical practitioner including imposing a monetary penalty.

The Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda (ITRA) Act, 2020

• It seeks to merge three Ayurveda institutes into one institution by the name of Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda (ITRA). The proposed Institute will be situated in the campus of Gujarat Ayurveda University, Jamnagar and will be an institution of National Importance.
• Objectives of the Institute:
  • develop patterns of teaching in medical education in Ayurveda and pharmacy,
  • bring together educational facilities for training of personnel in all branches of Ayurveda,
  • attain self-sufficiency in postgraduate education to meet the need for specialists and medical teachers in Ayurveda, and
  • make an in-depth study and research in the field of Ayurveda.

(4) Code on Industrial Relations, 2020

• The code combines the features of three erstwhile laws: Trade Unions Act 1926, Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Major provisions under the code:

• Definition of worker: It defines a ‘worker’ as any person who work for hire or reward. It excludes persons employed in a managerial or administrative capacity, or in a supervisory capacity with wages exceeding Rs 18,000.
• Standing Orders: All industrial establishment with 300 workers or more must prepare standing orders on the matters relating to:
  • classification of workers,
  • manner of informing workers about work hours, holidays, paydays, and wage rates
  • termination of employment, and o grievance redressal mechanisms for workers.
• Prior permission of the government for closure, lay-off and retrenchment: It is required for an establishment having at least 300 workers to seek prior permission of the government before closure, layoff, or retrenchment. Central government is empowered only to allow an increase in the threshold through notification.
• Negotiating Union and Council
  • Sole Negotiating Union: If there are more than one registered trade union of workers functioning in an establishment, the trade union having more than 51% of the workers as members would be recognised as the sole negotiating union.
  • Negotiation Council: In case no trade union is eligible as sole negotiating union, then a negotiating council will be formed consisting of representatives of unions that have at least 20% of the workers as members.
• Tribunals for settlement of disputes: for the settlement of industrial disputes. Each Industrial Tribunal will consist of a Judicial member and an Administrative member.
  • The code classifies any dispute in relation to discharge, dismissal, retrenchment, or otherwise termination of the services of an individual worker to be an industrial dispute.
• Fixed term employment: Fixed term employment refers to workers employed for a fixed duration based on a contract signed between the worker and the employer. It may allow employers the flexibility to hire workers, reduce the role of a middleman such as an agency or contractor, and also benefit the worker and help improve the conditions of temporary workers in comparison with contract workers who may not be provided with such benefits.
• Re-skilling fund: To re skill those workers who are fired from their jobs. Contributions for the fund will be made from the employer of an industrial establishment amounting to fifteen days wages last drawn by the worker immediately before the retrenchment along with the contribution from such other sources.

(5) Code on Social Security, 2020

The Code replaces nine laws related to social security. These include the Employees’ Provident Fund Act, 1952, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008 among others.

Major provisions of the code

• Applicability: The code is applicable to any establishment (subject to size-threshold as may be notified by the central government).
• Social security fund: The code states that the central government will set up such a fund for unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers. Further, state governments will also set up and administer separate social security funds for unorganised workers.
• Provisions for registration of all three categories of workers – unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers.
• National Social Security Board: for the purposes of welfare of above three categories of workers and recommend and monitor schemes for them.
• Contribution for Schemes: schemes for gig workers and platform workers may be funded through a combination of contributions from the central government, state governments, and aggregators.
• Changes in definitions: These include expanding the definitions of

(i) ‘employees’ to include workers employed through contractors,

(ii) “inter-state migrant workers” to include self-employed workers from Gig workers refer to workers outside the traditional employer-employee relationship.

(iii) “platform worker” to additional categories of services or activities as may be notified by the government,

(iv) audio-visual productions to include films, web-based serials, talk shows, reality shows and sports shows

• Term of eligibility for gratuity for journalists: The code reduces the gratuity period from five years to three years for working journalists.
• Offences and penalties: The code changes the penalties for certain offences. For example, the maximum imprisonment for obstructing an inspector from performing his duty has been reduced from one year to six months.

(6) Code on Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions, 2020

• It consolidates 13 existing acts regulating health, safety and working conditions. These include the Factories Act, 1948, the Mines Act, 1952, and the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970.

Major provisions under the code:

• Threshold for coverage of establishments
  • Factory: It defines a factory as any premises where manufacturing process is carried out and it employs more than: (i) 20 workers, if the process is carried out using power, or (ii) 40 workers, if it is carried out without using power.
  • Establishments engaged in hazardous activity: It includes all establishments where any hazardous activity is carried out regardless of the number of workers.
  • Contract workers: Code will apply to establishments or contractors (including the offices of the central and state governments) employing 50 or more workers (on any day in the last one year) and prohibits contract labour in core activities (to be determined by the appropriate government). It also defines a list of non-core activities comprising 11 works including: (i) sanitation workers, (ii) security services, and (iii) any activity of intermittent nature.
• Work hours and employment conditions
  • Daily work hour limit: fixes the maximum limit at eight hours per day.
  • Employment of women: women will be entitled to be employed in all establishments for all types of work. In case they are required to work in hazardous or dangerous operations, the government may require the employer to provide adequate safeguards prior to their employment.
• Exemption: The code empowers the state government to exempt any new factory from the provisions of the Code in order to create more economic activity and employment.
• Inter-state migrant workers
  • Definition of inter-state migrant worker: any person who moves on his own to another state and obtains employment there and is earning a maximum of Rs 18,000 per month, or such higher amount which the central government may notify.
  • Benefits for inter-state migrant workers: include: (i) option to avail the benefits of the public distribution system either in the native state or the state of employment, (ii) availability of benefits under the building and other construction cess fund in the state of employment, and (iii) insurance and provident fund benefits available to other workers in the same establishment.
  • The code removed the provision for Displacement allowance which was there in the 2019 bill to pay a displacement allowance to inter-state migrant workers at the time of their recruitment, which was equivalent to 50% of the monthly wages.
  • Database for inter-state migrant workers: the central and state governments to maintain or record the details of inter-state migrant workers in a portal and the migrant worker can register himself on the portal on the basis of self-declaration and Aadhaar.
  • Social Security Fund for the welfare of unorganised workers: The amount collected from certain penalties under the Code will be credited to the Fund. The government may prescribe other sources as well for transferring money to the Fund.

(7) Direct Tax Vivad Se Vishwas Act, 2020

• The Act provides an opportunity to taxpayers to settle direct tax disputes by paying due taxes with complete waiver of interest and penalty till June 30, 2020.
• It is applicable to all the appeals/petitions filed by taxpayers or the income tax department, with the following forums: Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals); Income-tax Appellate Tribunal; High Court; or Supreme Court as on the 31st day of January, 2020 irrespective of whether demand in such cases is pending or has been paid.
• Pending appeal may be against disputed tax, interest or penalty.
• Once the dispute is settled under the Act, taxpayer shall get the following immunities
  • Such cases cannot be reopened in any other proceeding by any tax authority or designated authority;
  • Opting for the scheme shall not amount to conceding the tax position and tax authority cannot claim that taxpayer has conceded to the decision on the disputed issue.

(8) The Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act, 2020

• Trade of farmers’ produce: The Act allows intra-state and inter-state trade of farmers’ produce outside: (i) the physical premises of market yards run by market committees formed under the state APMC Acts and (ii) other markets notified under the state APMC Acts.
• Electronic trading: It permits the electronic trading of scheduled farmers’ produce (agricultural produce regulated under any state APMC Act) in the specified trade area. An electronic trading and transaction platform may be set up to facilitate the direct and online buying and selling of such produce through electronic devices and internet.
• Market fee abolished: The Act prohibits state governments from levying any market fee, cess or levy on farmers, traders, and electronic trading platforms for trade of farmers’ produce conducted in an ‘outside trade area’.

(9) The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Services Act, 2020

• Farming agreement: The Act provides for a farming agreement between a farmer and a buyer prior to the production or rearing of any farm produce.
• Pricing of farming produce: The price of farming produce should be mentioned in the agreement. For prices subjected to variation, a guaranteed price for the produce and a clear reference for any additional amount above the guaranteed price must be specified in the agreement.
• Further, the process of price determination must also be mentioned in the agreement.
• Dispute Settlement: A farming agreement must provide for a conciliation board as well as a conciliation process for settlement of disputes. The Board should have a fair and balanced representation of parties to the agreement.

(10) The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act, 2020

• Regulation of food items: The Act provides that the central government may regulate the supply of certain food items including cereals, pulses, potatoes, onions, edible oilseeds, and oils, only under extraordinary circumstances.
• These include: (i) war, (ii) famine, (iii) extraordinary price rise and (iv) natural calamity of grave nature.
• The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 empowered the central government to designate certain commodities (such as food items, fertilizers, and petroleum products) as essential commodities. The central government may regulate or prohibit the production, supply, distribution, trade, and commerce of such essential commodities.
• Stock limit: The Act requires that imposition of any stock limit on agricultural produce must be based on price rise.
• A stock limit may be imposed only if there is: (i) a 100% increase in retail price of horticultural produce; and (ii) a 50% increase in the retail price of non-perishable agricultural food items.
• The increase in price will be calculated over the price prevailing immediately preceding 12 months, or the average retail price of the last five years, whichever is lower.

(11) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019

Major Provisions:

• It invalidates the practice of instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) as void and illegal.
• It also makes instant triple talaq a criminal offence with imprisonment up to three years and fine.
• It also provides to make the offence cognizable, if information relating to the commission of an offence is given to the Police, by the married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced or by any person related to her by blood or marriage (A cognizable offence is one for which a police officer may arrest an accused person without warrant.).
• The Act also provides scope for reconciliation without undergoing the process of Nikah Halala if the two sides agree to stop legal proceedings and settle the dispute.
• Allowance: A Muslim woman, against whom talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children. The amount of the allowance will be determined by the Magistrate.
• Custody: A Muslim woman, against whom such talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek custody of her minor children. The manner of custody will be determined by the Magistrate.

(12) The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019

• Definition of a transgender person: The Act defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth. It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and persons with socio-cultural identities, such as kinnar and hijra.
• Prohibition against discrimination: The Act prohibits 8 types of discrimination against a transgender person, including
  • denial of service or unfair treatment in relation to: education; employment; healthcare;
  • access to goods, facilities opportunities available to the public;
  • right to movement and right to reside, rent, or own property;
  • opportunity to hold public or private office; and o access to a government or private establishment which has custody of a transgender person.
• Recognition of Identity: It provides for the right to self-perceived gender identity. A certificate of identity as a transgender person can be issued by the District Magistrate. A revised certificate can also be obtained after Sex Reassignment Surgery (SRS).
  • Offences and penalties: It recognizes the following offences against transgender persons. Penalties for these offences vary between six months and two years, and a fine.
  • forced or bonded labour (excluding compulsory government service for public purposes),
  • denial of use of public places, o removal from household, and village,
  • physical, sexual, verbal, emotional or economic abuse.
• National Council for Transgender Persons will be setup with representatives from the government, transgender community and experts in the field. It will advise the government on formulating policies for the community, and monitor the implementation, and address grievances, among others.
• Welfare measures by the government: Government must take steps for their rescue and rehabilitation, vocational training and self- employment, create schemes that are transgender sensitive, and promote their participation in cultural activities.
• Health care: The government must take steps to provide health facilities to transgender persons including separate HIV surveillance centre and sex reassignment surgeries. The government shall review medical curriculum to address health issues of transgender persons and provide comprehensive medical insurance schemes for them.

(13) New Education Policy, 2020

Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE)

• Present Status and issues: Quality ECCE is not available to crores of young children, particularly children from socio-economically disadvantaged backgrounds. Key Provisions under NEP 2020
• Universal Access for children of 3-6 years: bring the hitherto uncovered age group of 3-6 years (crucial stage for development of mental faculties of a child) under school curriculum.
• ECCE will be delivered through Anganwadis and pre-schools that will have teachers and Anganwadi workers trained in the ECCE pedagogy and curriculum.
• Pre-school sections covering at least one year of early childhood care and education will be added to Kendriya Vidyalayas and other primary schools, particularly in disadvantaged areas.
• NCERT will develop a National Curricular and Pedagogical Framework for Early Childhood Care and Education (NCPFECCE) for children up to the age of 8.
• Implementation to be jointly carried out by Ministries of HRD, Women and Child Development (WCD), Health and Family Welfare (HFW), and Tribal Affairs.

Attainment of Foundational Literacy and Numeracy

• National Mission on Foundational Literacy and Numeracy by MHRD: Under it, States/UTs will prepare an implementation plan for attaining universal foundational literacy and numeracy in all primary schools for all learners by grade 3 by 2025.
• National Book Promotion Policy is to be formulated to ensure the availability, accessibility, quality, and readership of books across geographies, languages, levels, and genres.
• National Repository of high-quality resources on foundational literacy and numeracy will be made available on the Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA).

Curtailing Dropout Rates and Ensuring Universal Access to Education at All Level

• Policy aims to achieve 100% GER in preschool to secondary level by 2030. Following are the initiatives to achieve this:
• Providing effective and sufficient infrastructure so that all students have access to safe and engaging school education.
• Open and Distance Learning (ODL) Programmes offered by the National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) and State Open Schools will be expanded and strengthened with special emphasis on Socio-Economically Disadvantaged Groups (SEDGs).
• Tracking students as well as their learning levels through counsellors or well-trained social workers.

Curriculum and Pedagogy Present status

• Restructuring school curriculum and pedagogy in a new 5+3+3+4 design
  • 5 years of the Foundational Stage (covering ages 3-8): 3 years of Anganwadi/pre-school + 2 years in primary school in Grades 1-2
  • 3 years of the Preparatory Stage (covering ages 8-11): Grades 3, 4, 5.
  • 3 years of the Middle Stage (covering ages 11-14): Grades 6, 7, 8.
  • 4 years of the High Stage (covering ages 14-18): Grades 9, 10, 11, 12.
• Reduced curriculum content to its core essentials to enhance essential learning and critical thinking.
• Experiential learning will be adopted in all stages, including hands-on learning, artsintegrated and sports-integrated education.
• Freedom of choosing a variety of subjectcombination: no rigid separation among ‘curricular’, ‘extracurricular’, or ‘co-curricular’, among ‘arts’, ‘humanities’, and ‘sciences’, or between ‘vocational’ or ‘academic’ streams.
• Introduction of contemporary subjects such as Artificial Intelligence, Design Thinking, Holistic Health, Organic Living, Environmental Education, Global Citizenship Education (GCED), etc..
• Vocational education through 10-day bagless period sometime during Grades 6-8 where students will intern with local vocational experts such as carpenters, gardeners, potters, artists, etc.
• National Curricular Framework for School Education will be developed by the NCERT.

Student Assessment

• School examinations in Grades 3, 5, and 8 which will be conducted by the appropriate authority.
• Board exams for Grades 10 and 12 will be continued but redesigned.
• National Assessment Centre, PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development), will be set up as a standard-setting body under MHRD.

Multilingualism and the power of language

• Medium of instruction up till grade 5, and preferably till Grade 8 and beyond, will be home language/ mother-tongue/ local language.
• ‘The Languages of India’ a fun project/ activity on to be taken by every student under the ‘Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat’ initiative.
• Three languages formula with greater flexibility.
• All classical languages (Sanskrit,Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Odia) will be widely available in schools as options. In addition, Pali, Persian, and Prakrit will also be widely available as options.
• Indian Sign Language (ISL) will be standardized across the country.

Equitable and Inclusive EducationProvisions for Socio-Economically Disadvantaged groups –SEDGs

• Setting up of
• Gender Inclusion Fund for female and transgender students
• Special Education Zones (SEZs)- Large populations from SEDGs to be declared SEZs.
• Children with disabilities will be enabled to fully participate in the regular schooling process from the foundational stage to higher education.
• Every state/district will be encouraged to establish “Bal Bhavans” as a special daytime boarding school, to participate in art-related, career-related, and play-related activities.
• Free school infrastructure can be used as Samajik Chetna Kendras to promote social, intellectual, and voluntary activities.
• Special mechanisms for children belongingto tribal groups to receive quality education
• Fee waivers and scholarships will be offered to meritorious students from all SEDGs
• Additional Schools- Setting-up of additional JNVs and KVs in aspirational districts/SEZs

Robust Teacher Education and Recruitment

• New and comprehensive National Curriculum Framework for Teacher Education (by 2021)
• By 2030, the minimum degree qualification for teaching will be a 4-year integrated B.Ed. degree.
• NTA testing for admission to B.Ed.
• Setting-up of National Mission for Mentoring with a large pool of outstanding senior/retired faculty
• Teacher Eligibility Tests (TETs) for all teachers across Foundational, Preparatory, Middle and Secondary stage in both public and private schools.
• More autonomy to teachers in choosing aspects of pedagogy in classroom teaching
• National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST) will be developed by the National Council for Teacher Education by 2022.
• Restructuring of NCTE- National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) to be restructured as a Professional Standard Setting Body (PSSB) under General Education Council (GEC).

(14) The Consumer Protection Act, 2019

• Creation of Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA): Its primary objective is to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers and will be assisted by a Director General of Investigation which will look into cases and submit its report to the Authority.
• It is empowered to:
  • Conduct investigations into violations of consumer rights and institute complaints/prosecution. ▪ Order recall of unsafe goods and services.
  • Order discontinuance of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements.
  • Impose penalties on manufacturers/endorsers/publishers of misleading advertisements.
  • file Suo-motu cases on behalf of a class of customers, thereby initiating class action suits.

– Class Action, also known as Representative Action, is a form of lawsuit where a large group of people collectively brings a claim to the court.

-It is filed generally when a number of people have suffered the same or similar injuries.

• Simplification of consumer dispute adjudication process
  • State and District Commissions are now empowered to review their own orders
  • Empowerment of Consumer Commissions to enforce their orders.
  • Deemed admissibility of complaints if the question of admissibility is not decided within the specified period of 21 days.
  • Ease of approaching Consumer Commissions through filing from place of residence/work, e-filing, videoconferencing for hearing.
• Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanism
  • A complaint will be referred by a Consumer Commission for mediation, wherever scope for early settlement exists and parties agree for it.
  • Mediation will be held in the Mediation Cells to be established under the aegis of the Consumer Commissions.
  • No appeal against settlement through mediation.
• Regarding E-commerce entities:
  • They are required to provide information relating to return, refund, exchange, warranty and guarantee, delivery and shipment, modes of payment, grievance redressal mechanism, payment methods, security of payment methods, charge-back options, etc. including country of origin which are necessary for enabling the consumer to make an informed decision at the pre-purchase stage on its platform.
  • E-commerce platforms have to acknowledge the receipt of any consumer complaint within forty-eight hours and redress the complaint within one month from the date of receipt under this Act. For this purpose, they need to appoint a grievance redressal officer.
  • Sellers cannot refuse to take back goods or withdraw services or refuse refunds, if such goods or services are defective, deficient, delivered late, or if they do not meet the description on the platform.
  • The rules also prohibit the ecommerce companies from manipulating the price of the goods or services to gain unreasonable profit through unjustified prices
• Introduction of the concept of product liability: A manufacturer or product service provider or product seller to be responsible to compensate for injury or damage caused by defective product or deficiency in services.
• Punishment
  • The Act provides for punishment by a competent court for manufacture or sale of adulterant/spurious goods.
  • The court may, in case of first conviction, suspend any license issued to the person for a period of up to two years, and in case of second or subsequent conviction, cancel the license.
• Other provisions:
  • There will be no fee for filing cases up to ₹5 lakh.
  • The amount due to unidentifiable consumers will be credited to Consumer Welfare Fund (CWF).
  • The State Commissions will furnish information to Central Government on a quarterly basis on vacancies, disposal, pendency of cases and other matters.
  • It provides for Central Consumer Protection Council as an advisory body on consumer issues to be headed by the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution with the Minister of State as Vice Chairperson and 34 other members from different fields. It will also have Minister-incharge of consumer affairs from two States from each region- North, South, East, West, and NER.

(15) Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Act, 2020

• Prohibition to accept foreign contribution: Under the Act election candidates, editor or publisher of a newspaper, judges, government servants, members of any legislature are prohibited to accept any foreign contribution.
  • The Amendment adds public servants to this list. Public servant includes any person who is in service or pay of the government, or remunerated by the government for the performance of any public duty.
• Transfer of foreign contribution: Under the Act, foreign contribution cannot be transferred to any other person unless such person is also registered to accept foreign contribution.
  • The Amendment prohibits the transfer of foreign contribution to any other person.
• Aadhaar, passport and OCI card for registration: Amendment adds that any person seeking prior permission, registration must provide the Aadhaar number of all its office bearers, directors etc. In case of a foreigner, they must provide a copy of the passport or the Overseas Citizen of India card for identification.
• FCRA account: Amendment states that foreign contribution must be received only in an account designated by the bank as ‘FCRA account’ in such branch of the State Bank of India, New Delhi, as notified by the central government.
  • No funds other than the foreign contribution should be received or deposited in this account.
  • The person may open another FCRA account in any scheduled bank of their choice for keeping or utilising the received contribution.
• Restriction in utilisation of foreign contribution: Under the Act, if a person accepting foreign contribution is found guilty of violating any provisions of the Act, the unutilised foreign contribution may be utilised, only with the prior approval of the central government.
  • The Amendment adds that the government may also restrict usage of unutilised foreign contribution for such persons based on a summary inquiry, and pending any further inquiry.
• Renewal of license: Under the Act, every person who has been given a certificate of registration must renew the certificate within six months of expiration.
  • Amendment adds that, the government may conduct an inquiry before renewing the certificate to ensure that the person has fulfilled all conditions specified in Act.
• Reduction in use of foreign contribution for administrative purposes: Under the Act, a person who receives foreign contribution must use it only for the purpose for which the contribution is received. Further, they must not use more than 50% of the contribution for meeting administrative expenses.
  • Amendment reduces this limit to 20%.
• Suspension of registration: Under the Act, the government may suspend the registration of a person for a period not exceeding 180 days.
  • Amendment adds that such suspension may be extended up to an additional 180 days.

(16) Aircraft (Amendment Bill, 2020) Passed by Parliament

• Bill amends Aircraft Act, 1934 that regulates manufacture, use, sale and license for civil aircrafts.
• It seeks to provide statutory status to three pre-existing bodies
  • Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA): carries out oversight and regulatory functions.
  • Bureau of Civil aviation security: carries out regulatory oversight functions related to civil aviation security.
  • Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau: carries out investigations related to aircraft accidents and incidents.
• It empowers DGCA to levy penalties of upto ₹1 crore on airlines, airports and other aviation entities.

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Topics for Today’s questions:

GS-1   Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc, geographical features and their location-changes in critical geographical features (including water-bodies and ice-caps) and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes.

GS-2    India and its Neighborhood- Relations.

 GS-3    Effects of Liberalization on the Economy, Changes in Industrial Policy and their Effects on Industrial Growth.

GS-4     Probity in Governance: Information sharing and_ transparency in government, Right to Information, Codes of Ethics, Codes of Conduct, Citizen’s Charters, Work culture, Quality of service delivery, Utilization of public funds, challenges of corruption.

Questions:

Question 1)

 

Q.1 Identify the areas affected by and the causes of landslides in India. Mention different steps that need to be taken to mitigate the effects of landslides. (15 Marks)

 

Question 2)

Q.2 “India’s years of investments in infrastructure and grassroots development could act as a building block for cementing relations with the new regime in the coming years.” In light of this, examine the role India with its soft power can play in Afghanistan. (10 Marks)

Question 3)

Q.3 What are the similarities and differences in asset monetisation and privatisation? What are the challenges in carrying out asset monetisation? Suggest the way forward. (10 Marks)

Question 4)  

Q.4 Explain what you understand by the following values and discuss their importance for civil services: (a) Professionalism (b) Nishkama Karma or Selfless Action. (10 Marks)

 

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UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions – by Sukanya Rana

Q1) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to Arctic Amplification.

1. The phenomenon highlights that over the past 30 years, the Arctic has warmed at roughly twice the rate as the entire globe.
2. Iodic acid (HIO3) is one of the aerosol particles responsible for Arctic Amplification or Arctic Warming.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2) Consider the following statements with respective to Vikas Engine.

1. It is a family of Solid-propellant rocket engines which will be used in the Aditya-L1 Mission.
2. It is used in both the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to Man Portable Antitank Guided Missile (MPATGM)

1. It is a low weight man portable missile which follows fire and forgets principle.
2. It has been developed indigenously by the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q4) Which of the following is/are the disadvantage/s of 3D Printing?

1. More time
2. Limited raw materials
3. Cybersecurity concerns
4. High cost
5. Limited size

A. 1, 4 and 5 only

B. 2, 3 and 5 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. All the above

Q5) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with reference to “deep fakes”?

1. It refers to the practice of setting up fictitious online profiles for luring another person into a fraudulent romantic relationship.
2.  Using AI algorithms a person’s words, head movements and expressions are transferred onto another person in a seamless fashion.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Science & Technology by Santosh Gupta

Q1) Consider the following statements regarding PM-Science technology Innovation advisory council (STIAC):

1. It is a 20-member committee, chaired by Union Minister of Science & Technology
2. It was part of Science technology policy- 2013 but now has been reconstituted
3. The body advises the Prime Minister on all matters related to S&T, innovation and monitor the implementation as well.
4. PM-STIAC replaced the Scientific Advisory Committee (SAC) to PM and Cabinet.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1,  2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding DNA Technology (Use and Application Bill), 2019?

1. The Bill allows for DNA testing in both civil matters and criminal matters
2. Written consent is required for DNA samples from criminals  for prosecution.
3. It allows only to make a DNA database of convicted criminals and the database to be deleted once a sentence is served. 

Select the correct code:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 AND 3only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) ALL OF THEM

Q3) Consider the following statements with references to Digital Currencies:

1. Digital currency refers to the electronic form of fiat money issued by governments.
2. It can also be termed as a Digital Coin.
3. It is protected by strong encryption.
4. E- RUPI is one such digital currency

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1  and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 , 2  and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Q4) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Lymphatic Filariasis’:

1. It is considered as a ‘Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD)’.
2. It is the most disabling disease among people.
3. It is a vector-borne disease

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 1 and 3

(c) Only 3

(d) All of the above

Q5) Recently seen in news, consider the following statements regarding Green Hydrogen:

1. Green hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water using renewable energy.
2. Electricity splits water into hydrogen and oxygen with Water Vapor as by product.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above

Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News – by Shweta Mishra

 

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28st Aug 2021

Various Funds of Union Government of India and State Governments

 There are three types of funds of the Central Government – Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266), Contingency Fund of India (Article 267) and Public Accounts of India (Article 266) mentioned in the Indian Constitution. 

Funds of Government of India

The Indian government’s funds are kept in three parts, which are listed below:

1. Consolidated Fund of India
2. Contingency Fund of India
3. Public Accounts of India

(1) Consolidated Fund of India

• This term derives its origin from the Constitution of India.
• Under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India, ‘Consolidated Fund of India’ for the Union Government include –
  • all revenues (for example tax revenue from personal income tax, corporate income tax, customs, and excise duties as well as non-tax revenue such as license fees, dividends, and profits from public sector undertakings, etc.) received by the Union government
  • all loans raised by the issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all money received by the Union Government in repayment of loans
• Similarly, under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India, a Consolidated Fund of State (a separate fund for each state) has been established where
  • all revenues (both tax revenues such as Sales tax/VAT, stamp duty, etc.. And non-tax revenues such as user charges levied by State governments) received by the State government as well as
  • all loans raised by the issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all money received by the State Government in repayment of loans shall form part of the fund.
• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India audit these Funds and reports to the Union/State legislatures when proper accounting procedures have not been followed.
• The government meets all its expenditure from this fund.
• The government needs parliamentary approval to withdraw money from this fund.

(2) Contingency Fund of India

• The Contingency Fund of India is established under Article 267(1) of the Indian Constitution. It is in the nature of an imprest (money maintained for a specific purpose). Accordingly, Parliament enacted the contingency fund of India Act 1950.
• The fund is held by the Finance Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs) on behalf of the President of India and it can be operated by executive action. The Contingency Fund of India exists for disasters and related unforeseen expenditures.
• In 2005, it was raised from Rs. 50 crores to Rs 500 crore.
• Approval of the Parliament of India for such expenditure and for withdrawal of an equivalent amount from the Consolidated Fund is subsequently obtained to ensure that the corpus of the Contingency Fund remains intact.
• Similarly, the Contingency Fund of each State Government is established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution – this is in the nature of an imprest placed at the disposal of the Governor to enable him/her to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the State Legislature.
• Approval of the Legislature for such expenditure and for withdrawal of an equivalent amount from the Consolidated Fund is subsequently obtained, whereupon the advances from the Contingency Fund are recouped to the Fund.
• The corpus varies across states and the quantum is decided by the State legislatures.

(3) Public Accounts of India

• This is constituted under Article 266(2) of the Constitution.
• All other public money (other than those which are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India) received by or on behalf of the Government of India shall be credited to the Public Account of India.
• This is made up of:
  • Bank savings account of the various ministries/departments
  • National small savings fund, defense fund
  • National Investment Fund (money earned from disinvestment)
  • National Calamity & Contingency Fund (NCCF) (for Disaster Management)
  • Provident fund, Postal insurance, etc.
• Similar funds
  • The government does not need permission to take advances from this account.
  • Each state can have its own similar accounts.
  • The audit of all the expenditure from the Public Account of India is taken up by the CAG

The following table summarizes the three funds:

Fund	Consolidated Fund of India	Contingency Fund of India	Public Account of India
Income	Taxes and non-tax revenue	Fixed corpus of Rs. 500 crore	Public money other than those under consolidated fund
Expenditure	All expenditure	Unforeseen expenditure	Public money other than those under consolidated fund
Parliamentary Authorisation	Required prior to expenditure	Required after the expenditure	Not required
Articles of Constitution	266(1)	267(1)	266(2)

Controller General of Accounts (CGA)

• The CGA is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India. The office is in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, GOI.
• CGA is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India and is responsible for establishing and maintaining a technically sound Management Accounting System.
• It also prepares and submits the accounts of the Central Government.
• It is also in charge of the exchequer control and internal audits.

Functions

• The Office of CGA prepares monthly and annual analyses of expenditure, revenues, borrowings, and various fiscal indicators for the Union Government.
• Under Article 150 of the Constitution, the Annual Appropriation Accounts (Civil) and Union Finance Accounts are submitted to Parliament on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
• Along with these documents, an M.I.S Report titled ‘Accounts at a Glance’ is prepared and circulated to Hon’ble Members of Parliament.
• It is also responsible for the coordination and monitoring the progress of submission of corrective/remedial action taken notes (ATNs) on the recommendations contained in Public Accounts Committee’s (PAC) reports as well as the Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG) reports through its web-based Audit Para Monitoring System (APMS).

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