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  • Streak Daily Compilation of Questions & Videos: Aug 23, 2021

    Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

    Please register for Streak free initiative through this link:- https://www.civilsdaily.com/course/streak-daily-initiative/

    You will get following study material:-

    1. Questions (PDF).
    2. RSTV/Yojana monthly notes (PDF).
    3. Burning issue (PDF).
    4. Subject specific (PDF).
    5. Mentor’s phone call for support & encouragement.

    _______________________________________________

    I. UPSC Daily Study Plan For 2021 and 2022 || STREAK

    II. CSAT for UPSC Prelims || Free CSAT Sessions by Civilsdaily

    III. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Science & Technology Current Affairs Most Probable Questions

    Q1) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Nuclear Medicines

    1. It uses small amounts of radioactive materials called radiotracers that are typically injected into the bloodstream, inhaled or swallowed.
    2. Hyperthyroidism, thyroid cancer, and bone pain from some types of cancer are few diseases treated with nuclear medicine.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only 

    (c) Both 1 and 2 

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q2) Consider the following statements with respect to Einsteinium

    1. It was discovered in the debris of the first atomic bomb “Little Boy” that was dropped over the city of Hiroshima, Japan.
    2. It is a naturally occurring element which has radioactive properties.

    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
    (a) 1 Only
    (b) 2 Only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q3) Consider the following statements about Trans fat

    1. Trans fat are saturated fatty acids that come from either natural or industrial sources.
    2. It is industrially produced by adding hydrogen to vegetable oil converting the liquid into a solid, resulting in “partially hydrogenated” oil (PHO). 
    3. FSSAI has notified that Trans fat in oil and fats to be limited to 3% in all fats and oils by 2021 and 2 % by January 2022.

    Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) All of the above

    Q4) Consider the following statements about Vigyan Jyoti programme

    1. It is an initiative by the Department of Science and Technology.
    2. It is to encourage girls to take interest in Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics (STEM). 

    Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q5) Consider the following statements with respect to Arjun Main Battle Tank MK-1A

    1. It is jointly designed, developed and manufactured by DRDO and Lockheed Martin, an US corporation. 
    2. It has a computer-controlled integrated fire control system with stabilised sighting that works in all lighting conditions.

    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    IV. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Most Probable Questions for UPSC Prelims 2021

    Q1) Select the correct statement/s from the following statements. 

    1. Both Covid-19 and Swine flu are caused due to viruses from non-human hosts.
    2.  Both are respiratory viruses that spread through contact.
    3. Both are zoonotic diseases

    Which of above statement are true?

    A. 1  and 2 only

    B. 2 and 3 only

    C. 1 and 3 only

    D. All of them

    Q2) Which of the following tests are being used for testing COVID-19? 

    1. Rapid Antigen Test (RAT) 
    2. Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) test 
    3. Serology Test 
    4. TrueNat test 
    5. ELISA test

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1, 2, and 4 only 

    (b) 1, 2, and 3 only 

    (c) 4 and 5 only 

    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Q3) Select the correct statement/s from the following statements with respect to Angiotensin Converting Enzyme 2 (ACE2). 

    1. ACE2 is a protein on the surface of many cell types. 
    2. 2. The SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2, using the spike like protein on its surface.

    Which of above statements is/are true?

    A. 1 only

    B. 2 only

    C. 1 and 2 

    D. None of them

    Q4) Consider the following statements in context to “happy hypoxia” sometimes seen in news. 

    1. This condition is characterized by extremely low blood oxygen levels in humans. 
    2. Such patients show signs of breathlessness. 
    3. Patients with such a condition live in great distress. 

    Select the correct code from the codes given below.

    A. 1  and 2 only

    B. 2 and 3 only

    C. 1 only

    D. All of them

    Q5) Consider the following statements about ZyCoV-D

    1. It is first Covid vaccine approved for Children in India
    2. It is fully Funded by Department of Biotech under its Covid Suraksha Mission
    3. It is also a two dose vaccine
    4. It is administered intra-dermal. 

    Which of above statements are true?

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only

    B. 2, 3 and 4 only

    C. 1, 3 and 4 only

    D. 1 and 4 only

    V. Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News

  • Important articles & schedules of Constitution/Fundamental Rights

     


    17th Apr 2021

    The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India. The document lays down the framework demarcating fundamental political code, structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens. 

    It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 26 November 1949 and became effective on 26 January 1950. The constitution replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country’s fundamental governing document, and the Dominion of India became the Republic of India. To ensure constitutional autonomy, its framers repealed prior acts of the British parliament in Article 395. 

    The constitution declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality and liberty, and endeavours to promote fraternity. The original 1950 constitution is preserved in a helium-filled case at the Parliament House in New Delhi. The words “secular” and “socialist” were added to the preamble in 1976 during the emergency.

    The Indian constitution is the world’s longest for a sovereign nation. At its enactment, it had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. At about 145,000 words, it is the second-longest active constitution – after the Constitution of Alabama – in the world.

    Articles in Indian Constitution: As the written constitution is a compact document like a book, it has various parts, parts have various chapters, chapters have various articles.

    The constitution has a preamble and 395 articles, which are grouped into 25 parts. With 12 schedules and five appendices, it has been amended 103 times; the latest amendment became effective on 14 January 2019. Despite various amendments, the number of articles in the Constitution still remains 395. There is nothing like Article 396. The new articles are always inserted in between i.e. Article 31A.

    IMPORTANT TITBIT:  If counted separately there are 444 Articles but in the Constitution of India there are only 396 Articles. The rest are merely clauses or sub-clauses added later. The reason behind this is that there is a rule that no one can alter the basic structure of the COI. Now a problem came up, which was how to include more articles as you cannot add a 397th article as it would be against the Basic Structure Doctrine, so a solution that came up, which was that to include the new articles in clauses or sub-clauses of the existing articles.

    Here are the lists of various important Articles of the Indian Constitution: 
    S.No  
    Article  
    Deals with
    1 1 Name and Territory of Union
    2 3 New States Formation, Alteration of Boundaries, etc.
    3 13 Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights
    4 14 Equality before Law (popularly known as Right to Equality)
    5 15 Prohibition of Discrimination (on basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth)
    6 16 Equality in case of Public Employment
    7 17 Abolition of Untouchability
    8 18 Abolition of Titles
    9 19 Protection of Certain Rights to Freedom (popularly known as Right to Freedom)
    10 19 (a) Freedom of Speech & Expression
    11 19 (b) Right to Peaceful Assembly
    12 19 (c) Freedom of Association
    13 19 (d) Right to Move Freely through India
    14 19 (e) Freedom of Settlement & Residence
    15 19 (f) (Omitted as a fundamental right – governed by article 300A.) Right to Own Personal Property.
    16 19 (g) Freedom to Practise any Profession, Occupation, Trade or Business
    17 21 Right to Life and Personal Liberty
    18 21A Right to Education
    19 23 Prohibition of Human Trafficking and Forced Labour
    20 24 Prohibition of Child Labour
    21 25 Freedom to Practise & Propagate Religion Freely
    22 29 Protection of Interests of Minorities
    23 32 Remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights including writs
    24 44 Uniform Civil Code
    25 50 Separation of Judiciary from Executive
    26 51 Promotion of International Peace and Security
    27 51A Fundamental Duties
    28 72 Powers of President to Grant Pardons etc.
    29 76 Attorney-General of India
    30 78 Duties of Prime Minister
    31 85 Sessions of Parliament, Prorogation and Dissolution
    32 93 The Speaker & Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
    33 100 Voting in Houses
    34 105 Powers, Privileges, etc. of Members of Parliament
    35 106 Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament
    36 108 Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament
    37 109-110 Money Bills
    38 112 Budget
    39 123 President’s Power to Promulgate Ordinance while Parliament in Recess
    40 127 Appointment of ad hoc Judges in the Supreme Court
    41 139 Supreme Court’s Powers to Issue Certain Writs
    42 141 Supreme Court’s Law Binding on All Courts
    43 148-149 Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
    44 155 Appointment of Governor
    45 161 Power of Governors to Grant Pardon etc.
    46 165 Advocate-General for the State
    47 167 Duties of Chief Minister
    48 224 Appointment of Additional & Acting Judges in High Courts
    49 224A Appointment of Retired Judges in High Courts
    50 226 Power of High Courts to issue writs
    51 280 Finance Commission
    52 312 All India Services
    53 324 Election Commission
    54 335 SCs and STs claim to Services and Posts
    55 343 Official Language
    56 352 National Emergency
    57 356 President’s Rule in case of Failure of Constitutional Machinery in States
    58 360 Financial Emergency
    59 368 Power of Parliament to Amend the Constitution
    60 370 Temporary provisions with respect to the state of Jammu and Kashmir
    61 392 Power of the President to remove difficulties

    Schedules of the Indian Constitution

    Like a book contains appendices to explain things and provide extra info, the constitution contains various schedules. They are Lists that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and policy of the Government. They are kept separate because it is a lengthy document and hence, not included in the original text of constitution but they are very much part of the constitution. 

    Important Titbits:

    1. Originally they were 8 in number, now they are 12. 
    2. The 4 new schedules were added: IX through the 1st Constitution Amendment Act 1951); X through Anti-Defection Law 52nd CAA 1985; XI through the 73rd CAA Panchayati Raj 1992 and XII through the 74th CAA Municipality 1992.
    3. Matters added to the 9th schedule after 24th April 1973 (Kesavananda Bharati Case) are not immune to judicial review (I.R. Coelho case)

    Schedules of Indian Constitution

    Numbers  
    Subject Matter
    First Schedule
    1. Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction.
    2. Names of the Union Territories and their extent.
    Second Schedule Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of:
    1. The President of India
    2. The Governors of States
    3. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    4. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
    5. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
    6. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
    7. The Judges of the Supreme Court
    8. The Judges of the High Courts
    9. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
    Third Schedule Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for:

    1. The Union ministers

    2. The candidates for election to the Parliament

    3. The members of Parliament

    4. The judges of the Supreme Court

    5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

    6. The state ministers

    7. The candidates for election to the state legislature

    8. The members of the state legislature

    9. The judges of the High Courts

    Fourth Schedule Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
    Fifth Schedule Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
    Sixth Schedule Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
    Seventh Schedule Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Presently, the Union List contains 100 subjects (originally 97), the state list contains 61 subjects (originally 66) and the concurrent list contains 52 subjects (originally 47).
    Eighth Schedule Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71 st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
    Ninth Schedule Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) 19 of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system and of the. Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.
    Tenth Schedule Provisions relating to the disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, also known as Anti-defection Law.
    Eleventh Schedule Specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities ofPanchayats. It has 29 matters. This schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992.
    Twelfth Schedule Specifies the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities. It has 18 matters. This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992.

    Fundamental Rights

    • Enshrined in Part-III of Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights are the basic human rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India. The six fundamental rights include Right to Equality, Right to freedom, Right against exploitation, Right to freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights and Right to constitutional Remedies.
    • Fundamental Rights is one of the important topics in Indian polity subject in UPSC Syllabus. In this article, we will touch upon some of the most important points from this topic. We’ll also discuss some of the previously asked questions centered around Fundamental Rights.
    • Originally Right to property (Article 31) was also included in the Fundamental Rights. However, by the 44th Constitutional Ammendment Act, 1978, it was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the constitution.

    Fundamental Rights in India (Article 12-35)

    • The development of Fundamental Rights in India is heavily inspired by United State’s Bill of Rights. These rights are included in the constitution because they are considered essential for the development of the personality of every individual and to preserve human dignity.
      • Fundamental Rights are included in Part-III of the Indian constitution which is also known as Magna Carta of Indian Constitution.
      • These rights are called fundamental rights because they are justiciable in nature allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated

    Features of the Fundamental Rights

    • FRs are protected and guaranteed by the constitution.
    • FRs are NOT sacrosanct or absolute: in the sense that the parliament can curtail them or put reasonable restrictions for fixed period of time. However, the court has the power to review the reasonablity of the restrictions.
    • FRs are justifiable: The constitution allow the person to move directly to the Surpreme Court for the reinforcement of his fundamental right as and when they are violated or restricted.
    • Suspension of Fundamental Rights: All the Fundamental Rights are suspended during National Emergencies except the rights guaranteed under Article 20 and 21.
    • Restriction of Fundamental Rights: The Fundamental Rights can be restricted during the military rule in any particular area.

    Important Articles Related To Fundamental Rights

    Let us now look at some of the important articles related to the Fundamental Rights in India:

    Article 12: Defines the State

    Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines The State as:

    • The Government and Parliament of India,
    • The Government and legislatures of the states,
    • All local authorities and
    • Other authorities in India or under the control of the Government of India.

    Article 13: Defines Laws Inconsistent with or In derogation of Fundamental Rights

    • Article 13 of the Indian Constitution states that:
    • All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void.
    • The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
    • In this article, unless the context otherwise required, –

    (a) “law” includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law;

    (b)“laws in force” includes laws passed or made by a Legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be then in operation either at all or in particular areas.

    • Nothing in this article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under article 368.

    Classification of Fundamental Rights

    The fundamental rights are classified into the following six categories:

    Article 12: Defines the State

    Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines The State as:

    • The Government and Parliament of India,
    • The Government and legislatures of the states,
    • All local authorities and
    • Other authorities in India or under the control of the Government of India.

    Article 13: Defines Laws Inconsistent with or In derogation of Fundamental Rights

    • Article 13 of the Indian Constitution states that:
    • All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void.
    • The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
    • In this article, unless the context otherwise required, –

    (a) “law” includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law;

    (b)“laws in force” includes laws passed or made by a Legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be then in operation either at all or in particular areas.

    • Nothing in this article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under article 368.

    Classification of Fundamental Rights

    The fundamental rights are classified into the following six categories:

    (1) Right to Equality

    Art 14 – Equality before Law

    Art 15 – Prohibition of Discrimination

    Art 16 – Equality of Opportunity in Public Employment

    Art 17 – Abolition of Untouchability

    Art 18 – Abolition of Titles

    (2) Right to Freedom

    Art 19 – Protection of 6 Rights:

    • Right to freedom of speech and expression.
    • Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
    • Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.
    • Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
    • Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
    • Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

    Art 20 – Protection in Respect of Conviction for Offences

    Art 21 – Protection of Life and Personal Liberty

    Art 21-A Right to Education

    Art 22 – Protection against Arrest and Detention

    (3) Right against Exploitation          

    Art 23 – Prohibition of Human Trafficking and Forced Labor

    Art 24 – Prohibition of Child Labor

    (4) Right to Freedom of Religion   

    Art 25 – Freedom of Conscience, Profession, Practice, and Propagation

    Art 26 – Freedom to Manage Religious Affairs

    Art 27 – Freedom from Taxation for Promotion of a Religion

    Art 28 – Freedom from Attending Religious Instruction

    (5) Educational and Cultural Rights

    Art 29 – Protection of Interests of Minorities

    Art 30 – Right of Minorities to Establish and Administer Educational Institutions

    (6) Right to Constitutional Remedies         

    Art 32 – Right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights using five writs:

    • Habeas Corpus – to direct the release of a person detained unlawfully.
    • Mandamus – to direct a public authority to do its duty.
    • Quo Warranto – to direct a person to vacate an office assumed wrongfully.
    • Prohibition – to prohibit a lower court from proceeding on a case.
    • Certiorari – power of the higher court to remove a proceeding from a lower court and bring it before itself.

    Art 33 – Empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the ‘Members of the Armed Forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous forces

    Art 34 – Provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law (military rule) is in force

    Art 35 – Empowers the Parliament to make laws on Fundamental Rights

  • 23rd August 2021| Daily Answer Writing Enhancement(AWE)

    Topics for Today’s questions:

    GS-1    Salient features of world’s physical geography

    GS-2   Parliament and State Legislatures—Structure, Functioning, Conduct of Business, Powers & Privileges and Issues Arising out of these.

     GS-3   Indian Economy and issues relating to Planning, Mobilization of Resources, Growth, Development and Employment.

    GS-4   Case Studies

    Questions:

    Question 1)

     

    Q.1 Assess the impact of global warming on the coral life system with examples. (10 Marks)

     

    Question 2)

    Q.2 What are the provisions for punishing the Rajya Sabha member for misconduct inside and outside the House? Is there a need for improvement in the provisions? (10 Marks)

    Question 3)

    Q.3 Why the bond market in India is nowhere near equities in breadth, depth or innovation. What are the factors responsible for this? Suggest the way forward. (10 Marks)

    Question 4)  

    Q. 4 A fresh engineering graduate gets a job in a prestigious chemical industry. She likes the work. The salary is also good. However, after a few months she accidentally discovers that a highly toxic waste is being secretly discharged into a river nearby. This is causing health problems to the villagers downstream who depend on the river for their water needs. She is perturbed and mentions her concern to her colleagues who have been with the company for longer periods. They advise her to keep quite as anyone who mentions the topic is summarily dismissed. She cannot risk losing her job as she is the sole bread-winner for her family and has to support her ailing parents and siblings. At first, she thinks that if her seniors are keeping quiet, why should she stick out her neck. But her conscience pricks her to do something to save the river and the people who depend upon it. At heart she feels that the advice of silence given by her friends is not correct though she cannot give reasons for it. She thinks you are a wise person and seeks your advice. (a) What arguments can you advance to show her that keeping quiet is not morally right? (b) What course of action would you advice her to adopt and why? (20 Marks)

     

    HOW TO ATTEMPT ANSWERS IN DAILY ANSWER WRITING ENHANCEMENT(AWE)?

    1. Daily 4 questions from General studies 1, 2, 3, and 4 will be provided to you.

    2. A Mentor’s Comment will be available for all answers. This can be used as a guidance tool but we encourage you to write original answers.

    3. You can write your answer on an A4 sheet and scan/click pictures of the same.

    4.  Upload the scanned answer in the comment section of the same question.

    5. Along with the scanned answer, please share your Razor payment ID, so that paid members are given priority.

    6. If you upload the answer on the same day like the answer of 1st August is uploaded on 1st August then your answer will be checked within 72 hours. Also, reviews will be in the order of submission- First come first serve basis

    7. If you are writing answers late, for example, 1st August is uploaded on 3rd August, then these answers will be evaluated as per the mentor’s schedule.

    8. We encourage you to write answers on the same day. However, if you are uploading an answer late then tag the mentor like @Staff so that the mentor is notified about your answer.

    *In case your answer is not reviewed, reply to your answer saying *NOT CHECKED*. 

    For the philosophy of AWE and payment: 

  • Interview Guidance || Our Program Can Boost Your Interview Score by 10-20% and Rank by 100 Positions || Do Not Miss This Opportunity

    Interview Guidance || Our Program Can Boost Your Interview Score by 10-20% and Rank by 100 Positions || Do Not Miss This Opportunity

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    1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
    2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
    3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    B) In India, under cyber insurances for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (UPSC 2020)

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    3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion.

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    (c) 2 and 3 only

    C) Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015)

    1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
    2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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    There are limited slots available so we request you to enroll now!

    Date: 22/8/2021

    Time: 7:00 P.M.

  • Learn Over 10 different types of Question solving Techniques for Prelims.Join Sajal sir at 7 pm today||Learn the secret of scoring 125+ in Prelims 2021-22  || Free Session || Registration Closing soon ||

    Learn Over 10 different types of Question solving Techniques for Prelims.Join Sajal sir at 7 pm today||Learn the secret of scoring 125+ in Prelims 2021-22 || Free Session || Registration Closing soon ||

    Note: We will send you joining links over e-mail by 2 pm today

    Dear aspirants,

    Even with a similar syllabus and similar study materials, most candidates fall in one of the following four categories when it comes to their Prelims score:

    1) Prelims score 0-40: They need to work on improving their knowledge and learn answering tricks
    2) Prelims score 50-70: They have decent knowledge and decent answering tricks.
    3) Prelims score 80-100: They have good knowledge but they need to develop answering tricks.
    4) Prelims score 120+: They have excellent knowledge and know all the answering tricks.

    So, what to do?
    Clearing Prelims is all about Knowledge + Answering Tricks (Tikdams). And while you are studying hard to improve your knowledge, Sajal sir will help you improve your answering techniques, for absolutely FREE!

    Let’s look at a few examples. Sajal sir will explain how you can answer these questions with smart techniques, even if you DON’T know the answer.

    A) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements :(UPSC 2016)

    1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
    2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
    3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    B) In India, under cyber insurances for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (UPSC 2020)

    1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer.

    2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant willfully damages it, if proved so.

    3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion.

    4. Cost of defense in the court of law if any third party files a suit.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

    (b) 1,3 and 4 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    C) Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015)

    1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
    2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    You can solve these questions with the help of techniques that Sajal sir will teach you in the webinar.

    This is your opportunity to learn the tricks that can help you score 120+ in your Prelims. Join Sajal sir for a free webinar and this is what you can learn:

    1. 10 Different types of elimination/intelligent guess techniques like (hard to verify facts, For this and NOT for this) through Solving Previous year UPSC questions.

    2. How to master the Elimination techniques, used by toppers.

    3. Ideal strategy for the Last 50 days for UPSC prelims 2021.

    4. How to prepare for 2022 Prelims.

    5. Which Topics to focus more upon while preparing for UPSC prelims (eg: Map should be given utmost importance while studying geography for prelims)

    6.Open Q&A with Sajal sir

    7.The art of Tikdam booklet by Dr V (Rank 20)

    We are inviting all the serious aspirants to grab this FREE opportunity to learn the tricks that toppers use to score more than everyone else. 

    There are limited slots available so we request you to enroll now!

    Date: 22/8/2021

    Time: 7:00 P.M.

  • Streak Daily Compilation of Questions & Videos: Aug 21, 2021

    Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

    Please register for Streak free initiative through this link:- https://www.civilsdaily.com/course/streak-daily-initiative/

    You will get following study material:-

    1. Questions (PDF).
    2. RSTV/Yojana monthly notes (PDF).
    3. Burning issue (PDF).
    4. Subject specific (PDF).
    5. Mentor’s phone call for support & encouragement.

    _______________________________________________

    I. UPSC Daily Study Plan For 2021 and 2022 || STREAK

    II. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Economy Current Affairs Most Probable Questions

    Q1) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to Arctic Amplification.

    1. The phenomenon highlights that over the past 30 years, the Arctic has warmed at roughly twice the rate as the entire globe.
    2. Iodic acid (HIO3) is one of the aerosol particles responsible for Arctic Amplification or Arctic Warming.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q2) Consider the following statements with respective to Vikas Engine.

    1. It is a family of Solid-propellant rocket engines which will be used in Aditya-L1 Mission.
    2. It is used in both Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to Man Portable Antitank Guided Missile (MPATGM)

    1. It is a low weight man portable missile which follows fire and forgets principle.
    2. It has been developed indigenously by the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO).

    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Q4) Which of the following is/are the disadvantage/s of 3D Priniting?

    1. More time
    2. Limited raw materials
    3. Cybersecurity concerns
    4. High cost
    5. Limited size

    (a) 1, 4 and 5 only

    (b) 2, 3 and 5 only

    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

    (d) All the above

    Q5) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with reference to “deep fakes”?

    1. It refers to the practice of setting up fictitious online profiles for luring another person into a fraudulent romantic relationship.
    2. Using AI algorithms a person’s words, head movements and expressions are transferred onto another person in a seamless fashion.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    III. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Most Probable Questions for UPSC Prelims 2021

    Q1) Which of the following given below are the features of capitalist economy? 

    1. Public ownership of means of production 

    2. Production takes place for selling the output in the market 

    3. Sale and purchase of labor services at a price called wage rate 

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below

    (a) 1 and 2

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1, 2 and 3

    (d) None of them

    Q2)  Which of the following are the benefits of contract farming? 

    1. Availability of quality seeds for farmers 

    2. Assured procurement of the produce 

    3. Reduction in price related risks 

    4. New markets for farm products 

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

    (c) 1,3 and 4 only

    (d) All of them

    Q3) Which of the following given below carry out the Buffer stocking operations in India? 

    1. Food Corporation of India 

    2. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) 

    3. Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) 

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below

    (a) 1 and 2

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1, 2 and 3

    (d) None of them

    Q4) Consider the following statements

    1. Angel investors are high net worth individuals who invest their personal income in business start-ups or small and medium scale companies. 

    2. Exemption from angel tax for companies has been increased to 200 crores as per new rules.

    Which of the following Statements are true?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) None of them

    Q5)  Which of the following are the features of the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020? 

    1. Issuance of shares and securities by cooperative banks 
    2. Supersession of Board of Directors 
    3.  Allowing the central bank to initiate a scheme for reconstruction or amalgamation
    4. Bringing all NBFCs under RBI regulation

     Select the correct answer using the codes given below 

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

    (c) 1,3 and 4 only

    (d) All of them

    IV. Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News

  • Learn the secret of scoring 125+ in Prelims 2021-22 by Sajal Sir || Free Session || Registration Open ||Learn Over 10 different types of Question solving Techniques

    Learn the secret of scoring 125+ in Prelims 2021-22 by Sajal Sir || Free Session || Registration Open ||Learn Over 10 different types of Question solving Techniques

    Dear aspirants,

    Even with a similar syllabus and similar study materials, most candidates fall in one of the following four categories when it comes to their Prelims score:

    1) Prelims score 0-40: They need to work on improving their knowledge and learn answering tricks
    2) Prelims score 50-70: They have decent knowledge and decent answering tricks.
    3) Prelims score 80-100: They have good knowledge but they need to develop answering tricks.
    4) Prelims score 120+: They have excellent knowledge and know all the answering tricks.

    So, what to do?
    Clearing Prelims is all about Knowledge + Answering Tricks (Tikdams). And while you are studying hard to improve your knowledge, Sajal sir will help you improve your answering techniques, for absolutely FREE!

    Let’s look at a few examples. Sajal sir will explain how you can answer these questions with smart techniques, even if you DON’T know the answer.

    A) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements :(UPSC 2016)

    1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
    2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
    3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    B) In India, under cyber insurances for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (UPSC 2020)

    1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer.

    2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant willfully damages it, if proved so.

    3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion.

    4. Cost of defense in the court of law if any third party files a suit.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

    (b) 1,3 and 4 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    C) Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2015)

    1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
    2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    You can solve these questions with the help of techniques that Sajal sir will teach you in the webinar.

    This is your opportunity to learn the tricks that can help you score 120+ in your Prelims. Join Sajal sir for a free webinar and this is what you can learn:

    1. 10 Different types of elimination/intelligent guess techniques like (hard to verify facts, For this and NOT for this) through Solving Previous year UPSC questions.

    2. How to master the Elimination techniques, used by toppers.

    3. Ideal strategy for the Last 50 days for UPSC prelims 2021.

    4. How to prepare for 2022 Prelims.

    5. Which Topics to focus more upon while preparing for UPSC prelims (eg: Map should be given utmost importance while studying geography for prelims)

    6.Open Q&A with Sajal sir

    7.The art of Tikdam booklet by Dr V (Rank 20)

    We are inviting all the serious aspirants to grab this FREE opportunity to learn the tricks that toppers use to score more than everyone else. 

    There are limited slots available so we request you to enroll now!

    Date: 22/8/2021

    Time: 7:00 P.M.

  • Learn the secret of scoring 125+ in Prelims by Sajal Sir || Free Session || Registration Open ||Learn Over 10 different types of Question solving Techniques

    Learn the secret of scoring 125+ in Prelims by Sajal Sir || Free Session || Registration Open ||Learn Over 10 different types of Question solving Techniques

    Dear aspirants,

    Even with a similar syllabus and similar study materials, most candidates fall in one of the following four categories when it comes to their Prelims score:

    1) Prelims score 0-40: They need to work on improving their knowledge and learn answering tricks
    2) Prelims score 50-70: They have decent knowledge and decent answering tricks.
    3) Prelims score 80-100: They have good knowledge but they need to develop answering tricks.
    4) Prelims score 120+: They have excellent knowledge and know all the answering tricks.

    So, what to do?
    Clearing Prelims is all about Knowledge + Answering Tricks (Tikdams). And while you are studying hard to improve your knowledge, Sajal sir will help you improve your answering techniques, for absolutely FREE!

    Let’s look at a few examples. Sajal sir will explain how you can answer these questions with smart techniques, even if you DON’T know the answer.

    A) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements :(UPSC 2016)

    1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
    2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
    3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    B) In India, under cyber insurances for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (UPSC 2020)

    1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer.

    2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant willfully damages it, if proved so.

    3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion.

    4. Cost of defense in the court of law if any third party files a suit.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

    (b) 1,3 and 4 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    You can solve these questions with the help of techniques that Sajal sir will teach you in the webinar.

    This is your opportunity to learn the tricks that can help you score 120+ in your Prelims. Join Sajal sir for a free webinar and this is what you can learn:

    1. 10 Different types of elimination/intelligent guess techniques like (hard to verify facts, For this and NOT for this) through Solving Previous year UPSC questions.

    2. How to master the Elimination techniques, used by toppers.

    3. Ideal strategy for the Last 50 days for UPSC prelims 2021.

    4. How to prepare for 2022 Prelims.

    5. Which Topics to focus more upon while preparing for UPSC prelims (eg: Map should be given utmost importance while studying geography for prelims)

    6.Open Q&A with Sajal sir

    7.The art of Tikdam booklet by Dr V (Rank 20)

    We are inviting all the serious aspirants to grab this FREE opportunity to learn the tricks that toppers use to score more than everyone else. 

    There are limited slots available so we request you to enroll now!

    Date: 22/8/2021

    Time: 7:00 P.M.

  • [RSTV Archive] Project 75 India

    The Government has recently issued a Request for Proposal (RPF) to the two selected Indian Strategic Partners (SP) – for building six conventional submarines indigenously under Project 75 India or P-75I.

    A backgrounder

    • Project 75 India is a part of India’s thirty-year-old submarine building plan by which all the six submarines which are under the project should already be sailing and it should have been followed by the submarines now for which the RFP has been issued.
    • It is a long-awaited and long-overdue project.
    • This should have happened way back but it got delayed because it was difficult to find a strategic partnership model.

    What is Project-75I?

    • The Project 75I-class submarine is a follow-on of the Project 75 Kalvari-class submarine for the Indian Navy.
    • In the late 1990s, around the time of Kargil war, a three-decade plan took shape for indigenous construction of submarines.
    • It was known to have two separate series of submarine building lines – codenamed Project 75 and Project 75I — in collaboration with foreign entities.
    • Under this project, the Indian Navy intends to acquire six diesel-electric submarines, which will also feature advanced air-independent propulsion systems.
    • This is for enabling them to stay submerged for longer duration and substantially increase their operational range.

    Air-independent propulsion (AIP)

    • AIP has the fuel cell technology which permits the batteries of the submarines to continue functioning even after it gets discharged.
    • It also reduces the chances of detection because the moment it comes closer to the surface, submarines are very prone to detection and after that, it becomes very difficult for a submarine to hide because it cannot move quickly under the water. 
    • Hence, AIP gives longer endurance to submarines than what a conventional battery submarine can offer.
    • AIP is required on an urgent basis for the Indian Navy subs in view of the growing presence of the Chinese in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

    Strategic importance of submarines development

    • Ageing arsenal: Currently, India has less number of submarines than what is required with some more of those from both types being at various stages of construction. India currently operates one submarine each in nuclear-powered Classes of Chakra and Arihant and in addition to 14 submarines belonging to three classes of Diesel Electric category — Kalvari, Shishumar and Sindhughosh, some of which are ageing.
    • Combat roles in near future: The nuclear powered and diesel-electric submarines have their designated roles in the Carrier Battle Groups, which are formations of ships and submarines with Aircraft Carriers at the lead role.
    • Strategic deterrence: As per the basic principles of submarine deployment and the minimum requirement for India to create a strategic deterrence, there is a specific number of submarines of both types that India needs to have in active service.

    Significance of Project 75 India

    • ‘Make in India’ Projects: It will serve to facilitate faster and more significant absorption of technology and create a tiered industrial ecosystem for submarine construction in India.
    • Self-Reliance: From a strategic perspective, this will help reduce current dependence on imports and gradually ensure greater self-reliance and dependability of supplies from indigenous sources.
    • Securing Indo-Pacific: China is increasing its presence in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) and this is creating pressure on the Indian Navy in sprucing up the submarine arm.

    UPSC 2022 countdown has begun! Get your personal guidance plan now!


    Back2Basics: Various classes of Submarines in India

    In maritime terms, a class of ships is a group of vessels that have the same make, purpose and displacement.

    Chakra Class: Under a 10-year lease from Russia since 2012

    Arihant Class: Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines

    Shishumar Class: Diesel-electric attack submarines Indian variant of the Type 209 submarines developed by the German Navy

    Kalvari Class: Diesel-electric attack submarines designed by French company DCNS

    Sindhughosh Class: Kilo-class diesel-electric submarines built with the help of Russia