Category: Ranker Webinars

Students,

If you have cleared interviews last year, then most of you are re-appearing for the exam either because you missed by a small margin or because you want to improve your rank. 

Dear students,

We are excited to host Nabal. Nabal is one of the youngest to enter the services. Besides he has a background in Chartered Accountancy. His story is a complete contrast from today’s session of Deb.

His session will be held tomorrow – 14th June

Time – Sharp 2.15 PM

Venue – Near Connaught Place. The exact venue will be communicated to students once their attendance is confirmed.

Interested students are expected to email hello@civilsdaily.com. 

Our previous 1-1 sessions have benefitted students a lot.  They have left the place with a lot more clarity and precise strategy.

Unfortunately, we have limited slots on a first come first serve basis. Please let us know your availability asap. 

thanks

 

Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

Dear Students,

With changing patterns of the exam, institutes have almost let go of the tradition of providing the list of repeated questions and analysis around the same.

We are out with the first draft of a compilation of the list of repeated questions. This list does *NOT* contain questions from our free initiatives – Nikaalo Prelims, Prelims Daily + Video Discussion and Open Tests.

Further, we will be adding more questions as soon as our analysis ends.

A 1-1 match is almost impossible. You will notice that we have asked questions on similar themes. We have tried to dig deep and get hold of the important keywords/terms so we could test you on the same. 

If you do nothing but study our TS solutions thoroughly (meaning do some digging on your own around terms asked, concepts, etc and retain them) you will easily clear the exam.

Close to 30 questions that would have given you an edge over competition were covered in our Test Series. With easier questions combined, almost 70 questions were solvable using our Test Series.

Having said that, we realize that we need to go deeper and ask tougher questions. At the same time, it is important that we highlight the tough questions we have asked so you can keep an eye on them.

 

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1. Actual Question in the exam

What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit nd current account deficit

(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments

(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more

(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JULY CA

Consider the following statements about Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) :

1. It is under the aegis of the Indian Banks’ Association.

2. It follows the recommendations of the C. Rangarajan committee on financial inclusion.

3. Private and Foreign banks have signed ICA agreements under Sashakt project to resolve stressed assets.

Select the correct statements using the code given below

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2. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements :
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”

Original Question from Test Series

Test – Economics

With reference to Asian Infrastructure and Investment Bank, consider the following statements:

1. It is a brain child of China.
2. The primary aim of the AIIB is to promote infrastructure development.

Select the correct ​statements using the code below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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3. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE ‘is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.

2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series –

5G is a wireless communication technology and the next generation mobile networks technology after 4G LTE networks. Consider the following regarding this:

1. 5G will help aid incorporate Artificial Intelligence in our lives.
2. It will create the ecosystem for Internet of Things (IoT).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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4. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017, consider the following statements:

1. This act applies to all organisations with 20 or more employees,
2. It has made it mandatory for every organisation with 100 or more employees to have a crèche.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – DEC CA

With reference to the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017, consider the following statements:

1. This act applies to all organizations with 20 or more employees,
2. It has made it mandatory for every organization with 100 or more employees to have a crèche.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

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5. Actual Question in the exam

The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

a) Integrated Rural Programme

b) Lead Bank Scheme

c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

d) National Skill Development Mission

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ECONOMICS

Consider the following statements regarding Lead Bank Scheme:
1. Under the scheme, individual banks
adopt particular districts for intensive
development.
2. It is applicable only to Public Sector
Banks.
3. It covers all the districts in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

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6. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.

2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

With reference to India’s external debt profile, consider the following statements:

1. NRI deposits form the highest component of India’s external debt.
2. A large majority share of total external debt is in the form of long-term debt.
3. US dollar-denominated debt continues to be the largest component of India’s external debt.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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7. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector

2. Increasing government expenditure

3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JULY CA

Which of the following factor will affect Rupee :
1. Trade wars.
2. Sanctions on Iran.
3. Oil prices
4. The US Fed rate decisions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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8. Actual Question in the exam

Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

a) Certificate of Deposit

b) Commercial Paper

c) Promissory Note

d) Participatory Note

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ECONOMICS

Consider the following statements about Participatory Notes:

1. They are offshore derivative instruments.
2. They are used by Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) who are registered with SEBI.
3. They are used on Indian shares, but at a location outside of India.
Select the correct statements using the code given below:

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9. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.

2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ENVIRONMENT

Consider the following statements,

1. e-Green Watch has been developed for online monitoring of various afforestation works being carried out using CAMPA funds.
2. Net Present value [NPV] of forest is not defined under Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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10. Actual Question in the exam

Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates
are calculated by comparing the prices of the
same basket of goods and services in different
countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth
the largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JULY CA

According to the Purchasing Power Parity theory, the value of a currency should remain constant in terms of which of the below it can buy in different countries :

a) Bonds
b) Services
c) Goods
d) Capital

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11. Actual Question in the exam

Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May 2018?

a) Australia

b) Canada

c) The European Union

d) The United States of America

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JULY CA TEST

General Data Protection Regulation recently seen in news is related to which of the following:

a) United States
b) WIPO
c) European Union
d) WTO

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12. Actual Question in the exam

The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio

b) Increase in the banking habit of the population

c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio

d) Increase in the population of the country

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ECONOMICS

WIth reference to Measure of Money Supply in India,
consider the following statements:

1.M1 is equal to the sum of Currency with Public, Demand
Deposit with the public in the Banks, Other Deposits held
by the public with RBI.
2.M3 is also known as Broad Money.
3.M4 is the most liquid form of the money supply.

Select the correct statements using the code given below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

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13. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.

2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.

3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – FEB CA

As per the Recognition of Forest Rights Act, 2006 which of the following entity is considered as Minor Forest Produce?

1. Honey

2. Lac

3. Tendu Leaves

4. Bamboo

5. Wood Oil Select the correct alternative

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14. Actual Question in the exam

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

a) Article 19

b) Article 21

c) Article 25

d) Article 29

Original Question from Test Series –

Which of the following rights has been
declared as part of Article 21?

1. Right to travel abroad
2. Right to shelter
3. Right to reputation
4. Right to freedom from noise pollution

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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15. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.

2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.

3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

With reference to the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001, consider the following statements.

1. It recognizes and protects the rights of both breeders as well as farmers in relation to the plant varieties.
2. The Act facilitates the protection of only new plant varieties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the National Gene Fund,

1. It has been established by the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority.
2. It receives the contribution from National and State govt. only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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16. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

b) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.

c) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory Petri dishes.

Original Question from Test Series –

With reference to the Recombinant DNA technology, consider the following statements:
1. It involves joining together of DNA molecules from different species, which are then inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations.
2. It can be used to increase yield and improve the nutritional content of plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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17. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person

2. Sleep monitoring of a person

3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series

Test – FEB CA

The “Make Listening Safe” Initiative recently seen in news is organized by:

We had a tougher question.

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18. Actual Question in the exam

Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.

‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.

Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.

It enabled scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – SCIENCE TEST

With respect to black holes in space, consider the following statements:
1. It is a region in space where the pulling force of gravity is so strong that light is not able to escape.
2. It can result from the dying stars.
3. Milky Way is the only galaxy with no black holes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

In the context of ‘Black holes’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Most black holes form from the remnants of a large star that dies in a supernova explosion.
2. Black holes were predicted by Einstein’s theory of General relativity.
3. The Event Horizon Telescope is the first to capture an image of a black hole.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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19. Actual Question in the exam

Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people

2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases

3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series –

Consider the following statements,

1. Antimicrobial resistance occurs due to resistant bacteria and parasites only.
2. Red Line campaign to create mass awareness against the misuse of antibiotics.

Which of the following statements are correct?

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20. Actual Question in the exam

What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant

d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – SCIENCE TEST

CRISPR-Cas9 technology has become popular in recent years. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE CORRECT STATEMENT REGARDING CRISPR-Cas9.
1. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA and RNA sequences and modify gene function.
2. It was adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria and archaea.
3. The protein Cas9 is an enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA.
Select the code from the following:

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21. Actual Question in the exam

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Original Question from Test Series –

Hepatitis C has emerged as a major public health problem in India in the recent past. In this context, consider the following statements regarding Hepatitis C:

1. It is a viral disease that infects the liver.
2. It is transmitted by contaminated food.
3. It does not show symptoms immediately after infection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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22. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – FLT 7

With respect to the Mansabdari system under the Mughal rule, consider the following statements:

1. The mansabdars had both civil as well as military functions.
2. All mansabdars were paid in cash.
3. It was hereditary in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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23. Actual Question in the exam

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

a) International Monetary Fund

b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

c) World Economic Forum

d) World Bank

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JAN CA

Which of the following are correctly matched?
Reports Published by
1. Outbreak Readiness and Business Impact Report INSEAD
2. Global Competitiveness Index World Economic Forum
3. Global Risks Report World Bank
4. Airpocalypse III Greenpeace

Select the correct alternative from the following codes:

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24. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in III India only.

2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.

3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Consider the following statements regarding Asiatic lion:

1. Asiatic Lions are listed as ‘critically Endangered’ under
the IUCN Red List.
2. It’s a project by the Centre and the Gujarat
government undertaking “habitat improvement” measures.

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25. Actual Question in the exam

In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

a) poverty rates vary from State to State

b) price levels vary from State to State

c) Gross State Product varies from State to State

d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ECONOMICS TEST

With reference to Poverty Estimation Committees in India,
consider the following statements:

1. The Tendulkar Committee suggested to do away with
the calorie-based criteria.
2. Rangarajan Committee recommended for state-specific
poverty lines.

Select the correct ​statements using the code below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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26. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions

b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

d) Reducing the global warming

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – NOV CA

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI)’

1. It could limit the effect and impact of climate change due to rising levels of greenhouse gases
2. It involves injection of all the inert gases

Select the correct code:

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27. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?

a) Extraction of rare earth elements

b) Natural gas extraction technologies

c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – SCIENCE TEST

Which of the following methods can be used to harness energy from Solid Waste?

1. Pyrolysis
2. Combustion
3. Pelletisation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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28. Actual Question in the exam

Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?

a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children

c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ENVT. TEST

With reference to microplastics, consider the following
statements:

1. They are responsible for the bulk of the Great
Pacific Garbage Patch.
2. Microplastics can be ingested directly by the zooplankton.
3. They are commonly found in cosmetic and toothpaste.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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29. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.

2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – FLT 4

Consider the following pairs:

Poet:  Contemporary king
1. Tulsi Das: Akbar
2. Amir Khusrau: Alauddin Khili
3. Surdas: Shah Jahan

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Which of the following are the famous writings of kabir?

1.Sakhi Granth
2.Anurag Sagar
3.Bijak
4.Gita Govinda

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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30. Actual Question in the exam

On 21st June, the Sun

a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Original Question from Test Series –

Test –  March CA

Consider the following statements,

1. The equinox is the moment in Earth’s orbit when the sun appears to cross the celestial equator.
2. The vernal equinox comes on September 22/23.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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31. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.

2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.

3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test March CA

Which of the following are impacts on the environment by Nitrogen pollution?

1. The release of Nitric Oxide is essentially a
greenhouse gas which is harmful to the environment.
2. Nitrogen pollution creates dead zones in our waterways and oceans.
3. Excessive nitrogen fertiliser application contributes
to soil nutrient depletion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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32. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test FLT – 6 

Consider the following statements about Hydrogen-CNG (H-CNG):

1. Compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG
can reduce the emission of carbon monoxide up to 99%.
2. The thermal efficiency of HCNG increases with increase in load.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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33. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following pairs:

Sea: Bordering country

1. Adriatic Sea: Albania

2. Black Sea: Croatia

3. Caspian Sea: Kazakhstan

4. Mediterranean Sea: Morocco

5. Red Sea: Syria

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – FEB CA

Which of the following share(s) border with both Caspian Sea and Persian Gulf?
1. Iraq
2. Iran
3. Turkmenistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which of the following lie along the Mediterranean coasts?

1. Syria,
2.Lebanon
3. Cyprus
4. Gaza Strip.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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Watch this video for further analysis – 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7TQmjb2MYt4

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Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

 

Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

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Dear students,

31st May 2020 is the D-day for all civil service aspirants.

“Give me six hours to chop down a tree and I will spend the first four sharpening the axe. “

This Quote by Abraham Lincoln clearly sums up how one should prepare for that day. So before entering the battlefield alone should have enough practice. Our Prime Prelims Test series which shall enrich you to acquaint yourself with the pattern of CSE-2020, assess your abilities, rectify your mistakes and make you confident to appear on the examination day.

Our Prime Prelims Test Series follows the same approach as that adopted by UPSC. Our team of experts is quite enriched with the UPSC pattern and focal point of the questions and hence creates more chances for the aspirants to crack civil service examination by appearing our Test Series.

Nothing speaks more than the facts itself rather than a mere jargon. Here is a list of 5 sample questions from the upcoming test which will help you in identifying the standards and approach we follow. (you can skip this if you want to attempt these directly in the test). 

Noone but only you can assess how it will help you in the being the top percentile of aspirants. You have to practice ruthlessly and civils Daily provides you with a platform to hone your skills.

 

Q1. Provisions of Directive Principles of State Policy(DPSP) deals with which of the following institutions?

1. Supreme Court

2. Panchayati Raj Institutions

3. Archeological Survey of India

4. District Mineral Foundation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.1 only

B.1 and 2 only

C.2 and 4 only

D.1, 2 ,3 and 4

Answer – D

THEME- DPSP-INSTITUTIONS INHERENT IN PART IV

INTERACTIVE QUESTION

Explanation

The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in the governance of the country’ and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

These lay down that the State shall strive to promote welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice – social, economic and political, shall inform all institutions of national life.

1. Supreme Court

2. Panchayati Raj Institutions- Art 43 to organize village panchyats.

3. Archaeological Survey of India-Art 49 Protection of monuments and places of national importance.

4. Khadi and Village Industries Commission

5. NALSA- Articles 39A, which directs the state to secure Equal justice and free legal aid

6. District mineral foundation

7.NGT- Article 48A, which ensures Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife

Q2. Which of the following provisions/mechanism provide environmental protection under the constitutional framework of India?

1. Public Interest Litigation

2. Panchayats

3. Fundamental Rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A.1 and 3 only

B.1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D.1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

 

THEME-ASPECTS AVIALABLE TO PROTECT ENVIRONMENT IN CONSTITUTION STARMARKED QUESTION

Explanation

It is a indirect and vague question. UPSC loves to ask these kind of questions. Article 51-A (g), says that ―It shall be duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures. Article 47 provides that the State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties. The improvement of public health also includes the protection and improvement of environment without which public health cannot be assured. Article 48 deals with organization of agriculture and animal husbandry. It directs the State to take steps to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines. In particular, it should take steps for preserving and improving the breeds and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle. Article 48 -A of the constitution says that ―the state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country‖. Article 21 of the constitution, ―no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law‖. Right to environment, free of danger of disease and infection is inherent in it. Right to healthy environment is important attribute of right to live with human dignity. The constitution of India under Article 19 (1) (a) read with Article 21 of the constitution guarantees right to decent environment and right to live peacefully. Article 19 (1) (g) of the Indian constitution confers fundamental right on every citizen to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.This is subject to reasonable restrictions. A citizen cannot carry on business activity, if it is health hazards to the society or general public. Thus safeguards for environment protection are inherent in this. Public Interest Litigation under Article 32 and 226 of the constitution of India resulted in a wave of environmental litigation. At local and village level also, Panchayats have been empowered under the constitution to take measures such as soil conservation, water management, forestry and protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspect. Hence, All statements are correct.

Q3. The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in matters of which of the following election disputes?

1. Office of President

2. Office of Vice- President

3. Election of members of Parliament

4. Election of members of state legislatures.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A.1, 2 and 3 only

B.1 and 2 only

C.2, 3 and 4 only

D.1,2,3 and 4

Answer – B

THEME-SUPREME COURT-VARIOUS JURISDICTION

CONSOLIDATED QUESTION

Explanation

The original jurisdiction of a court is the power to hear a case for the first time, as opposed to appellate jurisdiction, when a higher court has the power to review a lower court’s decision. Original jurisdiction refers to the right of the Supreme court to hear a case for the first time.

It has the exclusive right to hear all cases that deal with disputes between states, or between states and the union government. It also has original jurisdiction over cases brought to the court by ordinary people regarding issues to the importance of society at large.

In civil procedure, exclusive jurisdiction exists where one court has the power to adjudicate a case to the exclusion of all other courts. It is the opposite situation from concurrent jurisdiction (or non exclusive jurisdiction), in which more than one court may take jurisdiction over the case.

Any matter regarding the enforcement of Fundamental Rights comes under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Apart from this, Supreme Court is the Highest Interpreter of the Constitution and tribunal for final settlements of the disputes between Center and States as well as States and States.

The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in matters involving election disputes of the President and Vice-President. Hence, statement 1 and 2 is correct.

The High Courts have original jurisdiction in disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. Hence, statement 3 and 4 is not correct.

Q4. Right to form a political party in India is a:

A.Fundamental Right

B.Legal Right

C.Natural Right

D. Constitutional Right

Answer – A

THEME-FR- VARIOUS RIGHT

INTERACTIVE QUESTION

Explanation

Article 19(1) (c) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all its citizens the right ―to form associations, or unions or Co-operative Societies’.

The right to form association includes the right to form companies, societies, partnerships,trade union and political parties.

Rights are legal, social, or ethical principles of freedom or entitlement; that is, rights are the fundamental normative rules about what is allowed of people or owed to people, according to some legal system, social convention, or ethical theory.

Rights are of essential importance in such disciplines as law and ethics, especially theories of justice and deontology.

1. Natural rights are rights which are “natural” in the sense of “not artificial, not man-made”, as in rights deriving from human nature or from the edicts of a god. They are universal; that is, they apply to all people, and do not derive from the laws of any specific society. They exist necessarily, inhere in every individual, and can’t be taken away. For example, it has been argued that humans have a natural right to life. These are sometimes called moral rights or inalienable rights.

2. Legal rights, in contrast, are based on a society’s customs, laws, statutes or actions by legislatures. An example of a legal right is the right to vote of citizens. Citizenship, itself, is often considered as the basis for having legal rights, and has been defined as the “right to have rights”. Legal rights are sometimes called civil rights or statutory rights and are culturally and politically relative since they depend on a specific societal context to have meaning.

3. The Constitutional Rights are the rights granted by the Constitution of India to the citizens of our country.

All Constitutional Rights are not Fundamental Rights. For example, the right not to be subjected to taxation without authority of law under Article 265, right to property under Article 300A (earlier part of Fundamental Rights, until the forty-fourth Constitutional Amendment), and freedom of trade under Article 301, are granted by the Constitution but are not included in Part III (Fundamental Rights).

Thus, it can be said that the Fundamental Rights are a part of the Constitutional Rights and the Constitutional Rights are included in Legal Rights.

4. A claim right is a right which entails that another person has a duty to the right-holder. Somebody else must do or refrain from doing something to or for the claim holder, such as perform a service or supply a product for him or her; that is, he or she has a claim to that service or product (another term is thing in action).

Every claim-right entails that some other duty-bearer must do some duty for the claim to be satisfied. This duty can be to act or to refrain from acting. For example, many jurisdictions recognize broad claim rights to things like “life, liberty, and property”; these rights impose an obligation upon others not to assault or restrain a person.

5. A liberty right or privilege, in contrast, is simply a freedom or permission for the right-holder to do something, and there are no obligations on other parties to do or not do anything.

For example, if a person has a legal liberty right to free speech, that merely means that it is not legally forbidden for them to speak freely: it does not mean that anyone has to help enable their speech, or to listen to their speech; or even, per se, refrain from stopping them from speaking, though other rights, such as the claim right to be free from assault, may severely limit what others can do to stop them.

Q5. Consider the following statements,

1. Art. 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under article 19 only, while Art. 359 extends to all Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by Presidential order.

2. Art. 358 operates only in case of internal emergency, while Art. 359 operates in case of both internal and external emergency.

Which of the statements given above is/are

Correct?

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.Both 1 and 2

D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – A

THEME- NATIONAL EMERGENCY

COMPRATIVE QUESTION

Explanation

The differences between Articles 358 and 359 can be summarised as follows:

1. Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

2. Article 358 automatically suspends the fundamental rights under Article 19 as soon as the emergency is declared. On the other hand, Article 359 does not automatically suspend any Fundamental Right. It only empowers the president to suspend the enforcement of the specified Fundamental Rights.

3. Article 358 operates only in case of External Emergency (that is, when the emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression) and not in the case of Internal Emergency (ie, when the Emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion). Article 359, on the other hand, operates in case of both External Emergency as well as Internal Emergency. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

4. Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights under Article 19 for the entire duration of Emergency while Article 359 suspends the enforcement of Fundamental Rights for a period specified by the president which may either be the entire duration of Emergency or a shorter period.

5. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it.

6. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21.

7. Article 358 enables the State to make any law or take any executive action inconsistent with Fundamental Rights under Article 19 while Article 359 enables the State to make any law or take any execufive action inconsistent with those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.

There is also a similarity between Article 358 and Article 359. Both provide immunity from challenge to only those laws which are related with the Emergency and not other laws. Also, the executive action taken only under such a law, is protected by both.

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Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

Dear students,

We are excited to host Debraj. He is one of the most interesting candidates to have cleared the exam this year.

A working professional, he is an inspiration to everyone who has constraints and cannot leave their jobs but their heart lies in Civil Services.

His journey is inspiring and his advice is as real and practical as it gets. He has iterated through many strategies and becomes the best person to help you out with the same. Will also discuss how to stay motivated.

The details of the session are

Time – Sharp 3.45 PM (this is the slot we could manage)

Venue – Near Connaught Place. The exact venue will be communicated to students once their attendance is confirmed.

Interested students are expected to email hello@civilsdaily.com. 

Our previous 1-1 sessions have benefitted students a lot.  They have left the place with a lot more clarity and precise strategy.

Unfortunately, we have limited slots on a first come first serve basis. Please let us know your availability asap. 

thanks

 

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7TQmjb2MYt4&feature=youtu.be

 

This year’s paper was marginally easier(marginally meaning by a small amount) than last year.

Our estimate of this year’s cut-off is 100-103.

Please remember, more often than not you will get 2-3 marks less when you see your scorecard than what you had totaled up from the keys.

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Our Prelims Prime TS is a kickass course. 

Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

Here’s the link to the Prime Prelims TS brochure. Click2download (To understand the points in depth, we recommend you download and read)

 

 

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_dwdfYKZDCM

 

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Dear students,

We are delighted to launch Samachar Manthan for 2019-2020. The course is designed to help you develop a solid command on your newspaper reading and current affairs analyzing skills. Since it builds your core, it is important for both prelims and mains.

What are we offering and how is it unique?

1. Mentorship and guidance taken to a whole new level 

Once you enroll, you’ll be assigned a one on one mentor group headed by Sajal Sir and rankers like Dr. Vipin Garg AIR 20, Swapnil Pawar AIR 525 and others.

Our past students have found this immensely beneficial.

• A convenient way to resolve your doubts and queries.
• You’ll be provided with value-added materials.
• You’ll have an ecosystem to study and learn from.
• Above all, it will help you stay focused every day 

2. 4 stage structure of Video->Notes->Testing->Review to perfect your preparation

The sequence of Video->Notes->Testing->Review is the best way to ensure maximum retention and a rock solid preparation. Each component of the program has been meticulously crafted.

3. Our video lectures and notes on weekly CA are brief but comprehensive

https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLZTYLkxalE7LiLrk97NLEe_PqmNvvrCp7

Click on the playlist to check out all videos.

Packed 3 – 3.5 hours Weekly videos will focus on news and its importance from both prelims and mains perspective. Sajal Sir will take care of the topics such as Economy, Polity, International Relations, etc. Rakesh Sir will help you cover topics related to Science & Technology, Geography, Environment.

We understand that the UPSC exam is a generalist exam. It’s more important to cover more issues than to cover one issue in more depth. Hence, we maintain a fine balance of covering cover many important news items and have a detailed discussion on selected topics which require the same.

This program will also help you understand how to utilize current affairs in all your prelims and mains papers.

This ideology makes this course the best utilization of your time.

Wide coverage of topics: As per the latest trends, UPSC had been asking questions from varied sources so we have covered topics not only from Hindu and Indian Express but also from various other sources such as Yojna, Kurukshetra, Live Mint, India Year Book, PIB, Down to Earth, etc.

4. Guest Lectures on specific issues by ranker holders like Swapnil Sir, Parth Sir, etc

Besides the above, you will have access to our monthly magazines and weekly notes/links to important news/external material. You will have access to all modules included in our Mentorship program – Study-plan, strategy discussion, specific weaknesses, overall guidance. Since our mentors will have information about your performance

5. Weekly Mains Test and Evaluation by our team of subject experts

The video and notes will be followed by a test released every weekend. It will have 10 high-quality questions. This will complete your study loop and enhance your retention.

>Mains level questions with feedback.

> Answer Enhancement

We chose the Question & Answer format because it is perfectly aligned with the requirements of the exam. Having information is very different from presenting it in an answer with a proper structure. This will help in better retention of prelims specific information and prepare a solid ground for your mains prep.

After every 2nd test you attempt, you can reach out to our mentors for personalized feedback.

6. Current Affairs Monthly Prelims Test package

This was a feedback we received from many students who desired more focus on Prelims based preparation. Hence, we included monthly Current Affairs Tests.

7. Other important material like Monthly Magazines, Listicles, etc.  

 

Samachar Manthan Yearly with Answer Writing Module 2019-20(June 2019 to May 2020)- Rs. 16000 + taxes Click2Join

Samachar Manthan Yearly 2019-20(June 2019 to May 2020)- Rs.11,000 + taxes Click2Join

Samachar Manthan Half Yearly 2019-20(June 2019 to November 2019)-Rs.7000 + taxes Click2Join

Samachar Manthan Half Yearly with Answer Writing Module 2019-20(June 2019 to November 2019)- Rs. 10,000 + taxesClick2Join