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  • Who was Lachit Borphukan?

    The Prime Minister has paid tribute to Lachit Borphukan on Lachit Diwas.

    Who was Lachit Borphukan?

    • The year was 1671 and the decisive Battle of Saraighat was fought on the raging waters of the Brahmaputra.
    • On one side was Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb’s army headed by Ram Singh of Amer (Jaipur) and on the other was the Ahom General Lachit Borphukan.
    • He was a commander in the Ahom kingdom, located in present-day Assam.
    • Ram Singh failed to make any advance against the Assamese army during the first phase of the war.
    • Lachit Borphukan emerged victorious in the war and the Mughals were forced to retreat from Guwahati.

    Lachit Diwas

    • On 24 November each year, Lachit Divas is celebrated state-wide in Assam to commemorate the heroism of Lachit Borphukan.
    • On this day, Borphukan has defeated the Mughal army on the banks of the Brahmaputra in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671.
    • The best passing out cadet of National Defence Academy has been conferred the Lachit gold medal every year since 1999 commemorating his valor.

    Try this PYQ:

    Q.What was the immediate cause for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?

    (a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore

    (b) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg khan invited him to invade Punjab

    (c) He wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujrat Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur)

    (d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab upto borders of Delhi to his kingdom

     

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  • In news: P-8I Aircraft

    Aviation and defence colossus Boeing delivered India’s 12th maritime surveillance and anti-submarine warfare P-8I aircraft.

    P-8I Aircraft

    • It is a multi-mission aircraft with state of the art sensors, proven weapons systems, and a globally recognised platform.
    • The first aircraft produced by Boeing flew in 2009, and has been in service with the US Navy since 2013, the same year as the Indian Navy.
    • Apart from India and the US, it has been chosen by six other militaries in the world.
    • The aircraft has two variants — the P-8I, which is manufactured for the Indian Navy, and the P-8A Poseidon.
    • The aircraft is designed for long-range anti-submarine warfare (ASW), anti-surface warfare (ASuW), and intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) missions.

    Naval operations

    • While the Indian Navy uses it for maritime operations, the aircraft was also used in eastern Ladakh in 2020 and 2021, when the standoff with China was at its peak.
    • The aircraft for the Indian Navy are called P-8I, and have replaced the ageing Soviet/Russian Tupolev Tu-142s.

    Specifications and features

    • The P-8I can fly as high as 41,000 feet, and has a short transit time, which reduces the size of the Area of Probability when searching for submarines, surface vessels or search and rescue survivors.
    • The aircraft has two engines, and is about 40 metres long, with a wingspan of 37.64 metres.
    • Each aircraft weighs about 85,000 kg, and has a top speed of 490 knots, or 789 km/hour.
    • It requires a crew of nine, and has a range of 1,200+ nautical miles, with 4 hours on station, which means about 2,222 km.
    • According to Boeing, more than 140 P-8 aircraft have “executed more than 400,000 mishap-free flight-hours around the globe”.

     

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  • Species in news: Dugong

    India’s first Dugong conservation reserve will be built in Tamil Nadu for the conservation of Dugong, a marine mammal.

    Dugong Conservation Reserve

    • The reserve will spread over an area of 500 km in Palk Bay on the southeast coast of Tamil Nadu.
    • Palk Bay is a semi-enclosed shallow water body with a water depth maximum of 13 meters.
    • Located between India and Sri Lanka along the Tamil Nadu coast, the dugong is a flagship species in the region.

    Dugong: The sea cow

    • Dugong or the sea cow is the State animal of Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
    • This endangered marine species survive on seagrass and other aquatic vegetation found in the area.
    • It is the only herbivorous mammal that is strictly marine and is the only extant species in the family Dugongidae.
    • Dugongs are usually about three-meter long and weigh about 400 kg.
    • Dugongs have an expanded head and trunk-like upper lip.
    • Elephants are considered to be their closest relatives. However, unlike dolphins and other cetaceans, sea cows have two nostrils and no dorsal fin.

    Their habitat

    • Distributed in shallow tropical waters in the Indo-Pacific region, in India, they are found in the Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
    • Dugongs are long-living animals, that have a low reproductive rate, long generation time, and high investment in each offspring.
    • The female dugongs do not bear their first calf until they are at least 10 and up to 17 years old.
    • A dugong population is unlikely to increase more than 5% per year. They take a long time to recover due to the slow breeding rate.

    Causes of extinction

    • Having being declared vulnerable, the marine animal calls for conserving efforts.
    • Studies have suggested the reasons for the extinction of the animal such as slow breeding rate, fishing, and the loss of habitat.
    • They are also known to suffer due to accidental entanglement and drowning in gill-nets.

    Conservation in India

    • The conservation reserve can promote growth and save vulnerable species from the verge of extinction.
    • Dugongs are protected in India under Schedule 1 of the Indian Wildlife Act 1972 which bans the killing and purchasing of dugong meat.
    • IUCN status: Vulnerable

    Try answering this PYQ:

    Q. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
    2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
    3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1974.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 3 only

     

     

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  • Cyber warfare

    Alongside the missiles and bombs slamming down in Ukraine, the country has also been hit by a wave of cyber-attacks targeting critical infrastructure companies.

    What is Cyberwarfare?

    • Cyberwarfare has emerged as a new form of retaliation or passive aggression deployed by nations that do not want to go to actual war but want to send a tough message to their opponents.
    • In June 2020, security experts from Cyfirma uncovered a conspiracy by Gothic Panda and Stone Panda, two China-based hacker groups, to target media and critical infra companies in India.
    • They led large-scale attacks amid the border stand-off between India and China in Ladakh.
    • For many countries, cyberwarfare is a never-ending battle as it allows them to constantly harass and weaken geopolitical rivals.

    What has happened in Ukraine so far?

    • Ukraine  has  been  one  of  the  primary targets of Russia since 2020.
    • The recent spate of attacks started in mid-January and knocked out websites of the ministry of foreign affairs and the ministry of education.
    • Government websites and a number of banks have been hit by another mass distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.
    • DDoS attacks disrupt online services by overwhelming websites with more traffic than their server can handle.

    Which countries are behind state-backed cyberattacks?

    • Russia is one of the top perpetrators of state-backed cyberattacks.
    • According to an October 2021 report by Microsoft Corp., Russia accounted for 58% of state-backed attacks worldwide, followed by North Korea (23%), Iran (11%), and China (8%).
    • North Korea is said to have built a cyber-army of 7,000 hackers.

    Which companies are targeted and why?

    • State-backed cyberattacks are usually carried out to steal state secrets, trade deals and weapons blueprint, or target large multinationals to steal their intellectual property (IP) and use it to build local industry.
    • Cryptos are also on the radar now. North Korean hackers reportedly stole cryptos worth $400 million in 2021.
    • However, when states launch cyberattacks on other states as a result of worsening of geopolitical relations, the target is usually critical infrastructure firms to disrupt economic activity.

    How often is India targeted?

    • Such cyberattacks rose 100% between 2017 and 2021, according to a global study by Hewlett-Packard and the University of Surrey.
    • In 2019, the administrative network of the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant was hit by a malware attack by North Korea-backed Lazarus Group.
    • China-backed hackers were believed to be behind a power outage in Mumbai in 2020.
    • According to Black Lotus Labs, Pakistan-based hackers targeted power firms and one government organization in India in early 2021 using Remote Access Trojans.

     

     

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  • Who was Narsinh Mehta?

    Recently Junagadh University discovered a new species of spider and named it Narsinhmehtai in honour of Narsinh Mehta, the 15th-century poet who was a devotee of Lord Krishna.

    Narsinh Mehta

    • Mehta is believed to have been born in Talaja in present-day Bhavnagar district in 1410 and died in Junagadh in 1480s.
    • The family had its origin in Vadnagar in north Gujarat, and the caste name is believed to be Pandya but as members of the family were officers in kingdoms of those days.
    • They were called Mehta (one who keeps books of accounts) which later on became the family name.
    • His father died when Mehta was just 5 and it is believed that Mehta learnt to speak only when he was eight years old, after a holy man asked him to utter the name of Lord Krishna.
    • His elder brother Bansidhar and Bansidhar’s wife raised Mehta and arranged his marriage.

    Miracles in his life

    • Mehta used to spend time in Krishna-bhakti (devotion to Lord Krishna) even after his marriage to Manekba, paying little attention to family duties.
    • Mehta is believed to have run away from home and done tapashcharya at a Shiva temple in Talaja for seven days.
    • After that, Mehta relocated with his family to Junagadh.
    • Nonetheless, folklore has it that Lord Krishna, by impersonating as Mehta, helped the devout poet organise shraadhha (a ritual performed post death of a family member) of his father, marriage of his son Shamaldas etc.
    • One of his bhajans narrates how Ra Mandlik, the then ruler of Junagadh had imprisoned him, accusing the poet of not having seen Lord Krishna and yet claiming to have done so.

    His poetry

    • Mehta penned more than 750 poems, called padd in Gujarat.
    • They mainly deal with devotion to Lord Krishna, gyan (wisdom) vairagya (detachment from worldly affairs).
    • Others like Shalmshano Vivah, Kunvarbainu Mameru, Hundi and Harmala are believed to be autobiographical accounts of different occasions in his life.
    • Vaishanavajn to tene kahiye, Mahatma Gandhi’s favourite bhajan is Mehta’s creation.

     

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  • NASA to decommission the International Space Station

    The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has announced plans to retire and decommission the International Space Station (ISS) by 2031.

    What is the ISS?

    • The ISS was launched in 1998 as part of joint efforts by the U.S., Russia, Japan, Canada and Europe.
    • The idea of a space station originated in the 1984 State of the Union address by former U.S. President Ronald Reagan.
    • The space station was assembled over many years, and it operates in low-earth orbit.
    • Since its inception, it has served as a laboratory suspended in space and has aided multiple scientific and technological developments.
    • The ISS was originally built to operate for 15 years.

    Why was ISS launched?

    • A space station permits quantum leaps in research in science, communications, and in metals and lifesaving medicines which could be manufactured only in space.
    • ISS has consistently maintained human presence for the past 21 years, providing astronauts with sophisticated technologies for scientific research.

    Why is NASA planning to decommission the ISS?

    • The space station has already surpassed that checkpoint by being active for 21 years, with plans to continue operations till 2030.
    • The ISS goes through 16 rotations of the earth per day, causing extreme temperature changes on the exterior.
    • The side facing the sun can get heated up to 121°C while the temperature on the opposite, darker side can fall to –157°C, causing intense expansion and contraction of the building material.
    • This orbital thermal cycling, coupled with dynamic loading, affects the longevity of the primary structure of the space station.
    • The technical lifetime is also limited by parts like radiators, modules and truss structures that tend to degrade over time.

    What is the procedure to de-orbit the ISS?

    • NASA plans to remove the ISS from its orbit around the earth and eventually plunge it into the ocean at a point farthest from human civilisation.
    • The space agency will use the dual method of natural orbit decay and a re-entry manoeuvre to bring an end to the ISS as we know it.
    • According to the plan, the earth’s natural atmospheric drag will be used in lowering the altitude of the ISS while setting up the de-orbit.
    • The space station operators will then provide the final push to it to lower the structure to the maximum possible height and ensure safe re-entry into the earth’s atmosphere.
    • It would then lead to Point Nemo over the South Pacific Oceanic Uninhabited Area (SPOUA).
    • Dissembling process would have posed huge logistical and financial challenges.

    How big is it?

    • The ISS is a huge structure — almost the size of a football field — and it was not designed to be disassembled easily in space.
    • The station currently operates in low-earth orbit above 400 km in altitude, at a point where it still experiences atmospheric drag and requires re-boosts to continue in its orbit.
    • The station also has a mass of over 4,30,000 kg.
    • Existing propulsion systems do not have the capacity to raise the station’s altitude to a high target and escape low-earth orbit.
    • The random re-entry method was discarded since it carries a huge risk for the human population on the ground.

    What is the future of space stations?

    • As the ISS plans to end operations in space, new players are already lining up to replace it.
    • In January 2022, China announced that its space station will be ready for operations this year.
    • Blue Origin, the aerospace company founded by Jeff Bezos, has also announced its plans to build Orbital Reef, a commercially developed, owned, and operated space station in low-earth orbit.
    • Blue Origin is working alongside Sierra Space on the project.

     

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  • Who is a Chess Grandmaster?

    India’s teenage chess grandmaster Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa has won praise for a stunning victory over world number one Magnus Carlsen in an online championship.

    Why are we reading this?

    • UPSC had asked three questions on sports in CSP 2021. They were based on Laureus World Sports Award, Summer Olympics, and ICC World Test Championship.
    • Try to ace uncertainties. No one can memorize such facts.

    Grandmaster: Behind the Title

    • Grandmaster is the highest title or ranking that a chess player can achieve.
    • The Grandmaster title — and other chess titles — is awarded by the International Chess Federation, FIDE (acronym for its French name Fédération Internationale des Échecs).
    • It is the Lausanne-Switzerland-based governing body of the international game.
    • The title is the badge of the game’s super elite, a recognition of the greatest chess talent on the planet, which has been tested and proven against a peer group of other similarly talented players.

    Other (lesser) titles

    Besides Grandmaster, the Qualification Commission of FIDE recognises and awards seven other titles:

    1. International Master (IM)
    2. FIDE Master (FM)
    3. Candidate Master (CM)
    4. Woman Grandmaster (WGM), Woman International Master (WIM), Woman FIDE Master (WFM), and Woman Candidate Master (WCM) and so on .

    Titles are for life

    • All the titles, including that of Grandmaster, are valid for life, unless a player is stripped of the title for a proven offence such as cheating.

    Qualifications for Grandmaster

    • The qualifications for Grandmaster were changed several times, including in 1957, 1965, and 1970.
    • Currently, FIDE awards chess’s highest honour to a player who is able to achieve a FIDE Classical or Standard rating of 2,500, plus three Grandmaster norms.
    • Grandmaster norms are defined by a set of complex and rigorous rules regarding tournaments, games, and players, that are set out in the FIDE Title Regulations.
    • The current regulations were approved by the FIDE Council on October 27, 2021, and came into effect on January 1, 2022.
    • Each norm is very difficult to attain.
    • Broadly, a player must have a performance rating of 2,600 or higher in a FIDE tournament that has nine rounds.

    Who holds maximum titles?

    • FIDE has so far recognized fewer than 2,000 Grandmasters out of the millions who play the game around the world.
    • A vast majority of Grandmasters have been male. Russia (and the erstwhile USSR) has produced the most Grandmasters in the world, followed by the United States and Germany.

    Grandmasters in India

    • India became a chess powerhouse in the 2000s, and now has more than 70 Grandmasters.
    • In 2016, Praggnanandhaa had become the world’s youngest IM at age 10 years, 10 months, and 19 days.

    Try this question from CSP 2021:

    Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:

    1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
    2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
    3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.

    Which of the above statements are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

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  • [pib] Quantum Key Distribution

    A joint team of scientists from DRDO and IIT Delhi, for the first time in the country successfully demonstrated Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) link between Prayagraj and Vindhyachal in Uttar Pradesh, a distance of more than 100 kilometers.

    What is QKD Technology?

    • Quantum key distribution (QKD) is a secure communication method that implements a cryptographic protocol involving components of quantum mechanics.
    • It enables two parties to produce a shared random secret key known only to them, which can then be used to encrypt and decrypt messages.
    • It gives the ability of the two communicating users to detect the presence of any third party trying to gain knowledge of the key.
    • This is a result of a fundamental aspect of quantum mechanics: the process of measuring a quantum system, in general, disturbs the system.
    • By using quantum superposition or quantum entanglement and transmitting information in quantum states, a communication system can be implemented that detects data leak.

    How does it work?

    • QKD works by transmitting many light particles, or photons, over fiber optic cables between parties.
    • Each photon has a random quantum state, and collectively, the photons sent make up a stream of ones and zeros.
    • This stream of quantum states that make up ones and zeros are called qubits — the equivalent of bits in a binary system.
    • When a photon reaches its receiving end, it will travel through a beam splitter, which forces the photon to randomly take one path or another into a photon collector.
    • The receiver will then respond to the original sender with data regarding the sequence of the photons sent, and the sender will then compare that with the emitter, which would have sent each photon.

    Benefits offered

    • It allows the detection of data leak or hacking because it can detect any such attempt.
    • It also allows the process of setting the error level between the intercepted data in dependence.

     

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  • IT Ministry pitches for Data Monetization Policy

    The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology’s proposal to monetise data collected at the central level has data policy and other experts divided.

    Backgrounder to this policy

    • The idea of monetising citizens’ data for greater public good was first floated by the government in the Economic Survey of 2018-19.
    • It had noted that since such data is generated and belongs to the people, it should be used for the people.
    • The survey had also noted that private sector could be granted access to “select databases” for commercial use.

    India Data Accessibility and Use Policy, 2022

    Key Propositions:

    • Sale of Public Data: The data, which has been collected by the central government and undergone some value addition be allowed to be sold for some price.
    • Identifying value data: The draft of the policy suggests new framework for identifying “high value data-set” on the basis of the data’s degree of importance in the market.
    • Establishment of India Data Office: The draft has also suggested setting up of a central India Data Office will be created under MeitY.
    1. Chief Data Officer: All the central government’s line ministries will have to form their respective Data Management Unit, which will be headed by a Chief Data Officer.
    2. India Data Council: These chief data officers along with the India Data Officer will together form the IDC, which will decide on the policy matters of data accessibility and its usage.
    • Data sharing toolkit: It will be the broad umbrella to help respective central or state government ministries and departments “assess and optimally manage” the risks associated with the release and sharing of such data.

    Significance of the move

    • Non-personal data as national resource: The thought process to consider non personal data as community or national resource, in itself is commendable.
    • Revenue generation: The core problem with the government selling citizens’ data is the revenue generation.
    • Boosting investments: The new policy will encourage data sharing among government departments and potentially help the investor ecosystem.

    Issues flagged with the Policy

    • Individual privacy: Data monetization may happen at cost of individual privacy. The most sought-after datasets are those that contain sensitive personal data of individuals, ex. medical history, financial data.
    • Absence of Data Protection Law: The new draft policy has been announced at a time when the country is yet to finalise the countours of a data protection law.
    • State interference: The policy could also face pushback from big tech companies whose business model is based on the monetisation of large-scale data collection model.
    • Political risks: When the govt starts selling citizen data, even if anonymised, the government gets into business its making money.
    • Un-regulation: Once the govt starts making money, its very hard to reduce that activity or to regulate it in a manner where it is impartial to the public.
    • Anonymisation of data: There is a lack of proper standard and framework on data anonymisation leading to a possible that such data may be “reverse-engineered”.

    Way forward

    • This policy is a good intent in which the government can monetise the wide range of data it currently holds.
    • However it remains to be seen how the pricing mechanism would work.
    • It is important to understand that datasets cannot be priced uniformly, and the value of a particular dataset varies depending on the context in which it is solved.

     

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  • Panel on AFSPA removal misses ‘45-day’ deadline

    A committee constituted by the Union Home Ministry to study the withdrawal of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, or AFSPA, from Nagaland, slated to submit a report within 45 days is yet to conclude its findings.

    AFSPA: A Backgrounder

    • The AFSPA, 1958 came into force in the context of insurgency in the North-eastern States decades ago.
    • It provides “special power” to the Armed Forces applies to the Army, the Air Force and the Central Paramilitary forces etc.
    • It has been long contested debate whether the “special powers” granted under AFSPA gives total immunity to the armed forces for any action taken by them.

    Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958

    • Armed Forces Special Powers Act, to put it simply, gives armed forces the power to maintain public order in “disturbed areas.”
    • AFSPA gives armed forces the authority use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.
    • The Act further provides that if “reasonable suspicion exists”, the armed forces can also arrest a person without warrant; enter or search premises without a warrant; and ban the possession of firearms.

    What are the Special Powers?

    The ‘special powers’ which are spelt out under Section 4 provide that:

    (a) Power to use force, including opening fire, even to the extent of causing death if prohibitory orders banning assembly of five or more persons or carrying arms and weapons, etc are in force in the disturbed area;

    (b) Power to destroy structures used as hide-outs, training camps, or as a place from which attacks are or likely to be launched, etc;

    (c) Power to arrest without warrant and to use force for the purpose;

    (d) Power to enter and search premises without a warrant to make arrest or recovery of hostages, arms and ammunition and stolen property etc.

    What are the Disturbed Areas?

    • A disturbed area is one that is declared by notification under Section 3 of the AFSPA.
    • As per Section 3, it can be invoked in places where “the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary”.

    Who can declare/notify such areas?

    • The Central Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
    • A suitable notification would have to be made in the Official Gazette.

    Presently ‘Disturbed Areas’

    • AFSPA is currently in force in Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, 3 districts of Arunachal Pradesh, and areas falling within the jurisdiction of 8 police stations in Arunachal Pradesh bordering Assam.
    • In Jammu and Kashmir, a separate law Armed Forces (Jammu and Kashmir) Special Powers Act, 1990 has been in force.

     Is it a License to Kill?

    While the operation of the Section has been controversial in itself, it has attracted much criticism when actions have resulted in the death of civilians.

    • Power to kill: Section 4 of the Act granted officers the authority to “take any action” even to the extent to cause the death.
    • Protection against prosecution: This power is further bolstered by Section 6 which provides that legal can be instituted against the officer, except with the previous sanction of the Central Government.

    Supreme Court’s Observations over AFSPA

    • These extra-judicial killings became the attention of the Supreme Court in 2016.
    • It clarified that the bar under Section 6 would not grant “total immunity” to the officers against any probe into their alleged excesses.
    • The judgment noted that if any death was unjustified, there is no blanket immunity available to the perpetrator(s) of the offense.
    • The Court further noted that if an offense is committed even by Army personnel, there is no concept of absolute immunity from trial by the criminal court constituted under the CrPC.

    Constitutionality of AFSPA

    • Attempts have been made to examine the constitutionality of the Act on the grounds that it is contravention to the:
    1. Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21) and
    2. Federal structure of the Constitution since law and order is a State subject

    Recommendations to repeal AFSPA

    (1) Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy Commission

    • The 2004 Committee headed by Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy, the content of which has never officially been revealed by the Government, recommended that AFSPA be repealed.
    • Additionally, it recommended that appropriate provisions be inserted in the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, 1967 (UAPA) instead.
    • It also recommended that the UAPA be modified to clearly specify the powers of the armed forces and paramilitary forces and grievance cells should be set up in each district where the armed forces are deployed.

    (2) ARC II

    • The Administrative Reforms Commission in its 5th Report on ‘Public Order’ had also recommended that AFSPA be repealed.
    • It recommended adding a new chapter to be added to the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, 1967.
    • However, the recommendation was considered first and then rejected.

    Controversies with AFSPA

    (1) Sexual Misconduct by Armed Forces

    • The issue of violation of human rights by actions of armed forces came under the consideration of the Committee on Amendments to Criminal Law (popularly known as Justice Verma Committee) set up in 2012.
    • It observed that- in conflict zones, legal protection for women was neglected.

    (2) Autocracy

    • The reality is that there is no evidence of any action being taken against any officer of the armed forces or paramilitary forces for their excesses.

    Caution given by the Supreme Court

    A July 2016 judgment authored by Justice Madan B. Lokur in Extra Judicial Execution Victim Families Association quoted the “Ten Commandments” issued by the Chief of the Army Staff for operations in disturbed areas:

    1. Definite circumstances: The “power to cause death is relatable to maintenance of public order in a disturbed area and is to be exercised under definite circumstances”.
    2. Declaration preconditions: These preconditions include a declaration by a high-level authority that an area is “disturbed”.
    3. Due warning: The officer concerned decides to use deadly force on the opinion that it is “necessary” to maintain public order. But he has to give “due warning” first.
    4. No arbitrary action: The persons against whom the action was taken by the armed forces should have been “acting in contravention of any law or order for the time being in force in the disturbed area”.
    5. Minimal use of force: The armed forces must use only the “minimal force required for effective action against the person/persons acting in contravention of the prohibitory order.”
    6. Empathy with perpetrators: The court said that: the people you are dealing with are your own countrymen. All your conduct must be dictated by this one significant consideration.
    7. People friendliness: The court underscored how the Commandments insist that “operations must be people-friendly, using minimum force and avoiding collateral damage – restrain must be the key”.
    8. Good intelligence: It added that “good intelligence is the key to success”.
    9. Compassion: It exhorted personnel to “be compassionate, help the people and win their hearts and minds. Employ all resources under your command to improve their living conditions”.
    10. Upholding Dharma (Duty): The judgment ended with the final Commandment to “uphold Dharma and take pride in your country and the Army”.

    Conclusion

    • Despite demands by civil society groups and human rights activities, none of the recommendations have not been implemented to date.

     

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