A recent Lancet three-paper series highlights the rapid rise in ultra-processed food (UPF) consumption globally, including India, and its strong link to rising obesity, diabetes, cardiovascular diseases, and premature mortality. The case of an 18-year-old Indian youth with obesity and early-onset metabolic disorders illustrates the growing public health crisis.
What are Ultra-Processed Foods?
According to the NOVA classification, ultra-processed foods are:
Industrial formulations with multiple chemical and cosmetic ingredients
Made using high-fructose corn syrup, hydrogenated oils, flavour enhancers, emulsifiers, preservatives, colours
Designed for long shelf life, hyper-palatable taste and convenience Examples: Soft drinks, chips, packaged noodles, biscuits, sugary beverages, chocolates, breakfast cereals, frozen pizzas, ready-to-heat meals, chicken nuggets, processed meats.
Difference from Processed Foods: Processed = minimal changes (washing, canning, cooking). Ultra-processed = heavy industrial formulations, low nutrients, high calories.
Note:NOVA is a food classification system developed by the University of São Paulo (Brazil) that categorises foods based on the extent and purpose of industrial processing, not nutrients.
India’s UPF Consumption – Why It’s a Concern?
Huge surge in consumption: Retail sales of UPFs in India jumped from USD 0.9 billion (2006) → USD 38 billion (2019) (approx. 40-fold increase).
Rising NCD (Non-Communicable Diseases) burden: As per ICMR–INDIAB (2023): Obesity: 28.6%, Diabetes: 11.4%, Prediabetes: 15.3%, Abdominal obesity: 39.5% and Childhood obesity rising: 2.1% → 3.4% (NFHS).
A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers? (2011)
1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Delhi’s air quality deteriorated sharply in November 2025. A major contributing factor identified is the continued operation of several thermal power plant units within a 300-km radius of Delhi without Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems.
What is FGD?
Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) is a pollution-control technology used in thermal power plants and industrial units to remove sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from exhaust flue gases before they are released into the atmosphere.
Status of FGD Installation
Thermal Power Plants within 300 km of Delhi
Total plants: 11
Total units: 35
Units with FGD (as of Apr 2025): 13
Units without FGD: 22
Units currently operating without FGD (Nov 2025):15
Units shut/reserve shutdown: 6
States & Operators
Haryana (HPGCL): Panipat TPS, Yamuna Nagar TPS.
Punjab (PSPCL): Guru Hargobind TPS and Ropar TPS.
Private: Talwandi Sabo (Vedanta).
Why SO₂ Emissions Matter?
SO₂ converts into secondary PM2.5, the most harmful pollutant for human health.
Causes: Respiratory diseases, Acid rain and Visibility reduction (smog)
Travels long distances, affecting entire regions beyond plant boundaries.
According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions? (2024)
According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), a low-pressure area formed over the Bay of Bengal on November 22, 2025. It is expected to intensify into a depression by November 24 and move west-northwestwards.
What Has the IMD Reported?
a) Formation: Low-pressure area formed near the Malacca Strait over the South Andaman Sea. It arose due to a cyclonic circulation.
b) Likely Path: Expected to move west-northwestwards. Likely to intensify into a depression over southeast Bay of Bengal & adjoining south Andaman Sea by November 24.
c) Further IntensificationCould intensify further over the southwest Bay of Bengal within 48 hours after formation. IMD is uncertain whether it will develop into a cyclonic storm.
d) State Impact (Odisha & Coastal Areas): System is far from Odisha coast → dry weather Farmers in coastal and southern regions have started harvesting mature paddy in anticipation of possible heavy rains. The State Agriculture Department has not yet issued advisories.
(2015) In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?
Why in the news? Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai, on November 23, 2025, clarified the Supreme Court’s advisory opinion in the 2025 Presidential Reference regarding timelines for Governors and the President in granting assent to State Bills.
What is a Presidential Reference?
Made under Article 143 of the Constitution.
The President can seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of law or matters of public importance.
Not binding, but carries high persuasive value.
Cannot overrule an existing judgment, but can clarify the law.
CJI Gavai emphasised that the advisory opinion is not a judicial review judgment.
Background:
Tamil Nadu Governor Case (April 8 Judgment) The April 8, 2025 Supreme Court judgment held:
Governors/President must act on pending Bills within 3 months,
Or else the Bill would be “deemed to have received assent”.
This introduced a judicially created timeline not explicitly present in the Constitution. This triggered the Presidential Reference seeking clarity.
A five-judge Bench led by CJI Gavai issued the following clarifications:
a) No Mandatory Timeline: The Constitution does not prescribe specific timelines for Governors or the President. Judiciary cannot read timelines into the Constitution.
b) “Reasonable Period” Standard: Governors and President must act within a “reasonable period”. However, the Court did not define what constitutes “reasonable”.
c) No Endless Delay: Governors cannot sit indefinitely on Bills. Courts may exercise limited judicial review in extreme delay cases.
d) Context Matters: Routine Bills → 1 month may be reasonable. Bills related to internal/external emergency → may require more time.
Key Constitutional Provisions Involved
Article 200 – Governor’s options on State Bills
Give assent
Withhold assent
Return the Bill (if not a Money Bill)
Reserve the Bill for President’s consideration
Article 201 – President’s powers over reserved Bills
Grant or withhold assent
No fixed timeline prescribed
Article 143 – Presidential Reference
Supreme Court gives advisory opinion
Why is this Important for UPSC Prelims?
This case clarifies the separation of powers, federalism, and the role of constitutional authorities.
Prelims often tests:
Powers of Governor
Assent procedures for Bills
Nature of advisory jurisdiction
Limits of judicial interpretation
Other Key Statements by CJI Gavai (Factual Highlights)
a) Advisory Opinion vs Judgment: Advisory opinion cannot overturn a judgment.
b) Judiciary–Executive Relations: CJI rejected the idea that “friction” is necessary between judiciary and government.
c) Judicial Independence: A judge’s independence is not measured by ruling against the government.
d) High Court Judge Transfers: Transfers made for administrative reasons and sometimes due to complaints after verification.
e) Personal Note: CJI forgave a lawyer who threw an object at him: “It’s how I was brought up.”
Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (PYQ 2014)
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Most UPSC aspirants make one crucial mistake, they prepare for Prelims and Mains as two separate exams.
But the truth is, UPSC doesn’t test you twice, it tests the same understanding in two different formats.
If you have ever wondered why your Mains content doesn’t help in Prelims, or why Prelims facts don’t convert into Mains ready notes, this session is for you.
Prayas Sir, Civilsdaily IAS
What I will cover (practical, no fluff):
1. Understanding the Microtheme Loop
What is a microtheme and how it acts as a bridge between Prelims and Mains.
Why most aspirants fail to close the loop between static, dynamic, and analytical dimensions.
2. GS Wise Explanation with Real Examples We will take one microtheme from each paper and see how it appears differently across stages:
GS 1: River systems, from Prelims facts to Mains questions on geography, culture, and disaster management.
GS 2: Cooperative Federalism, from Article 263 in Prelims to NITI Aayog vs Finance Commission in Mains.
GS 3: Green Hydrogen Mission, how to go beyond schemes and use it in Mains energy security context.
GS 4: Empathy in Public Service, turning static ethics terms into practical case study material.
3. How to Build Microtheme Notes
The exact note making model that merges Prelims recall with Mains analysis.
How to derive microthemes from PYQs instead of random topics.
How to link editorials, reports, and government documents under a single microtheme.
Creating 360° coverage using one pagers, from keywords to perspectives.
4. The Prelims to Mains Continuity Method
How to use Prelims revision data for Mains enrichment.
Daily routine to sync reading, note making, and test practice.
How to decide what goes in short notes vs long form Mains notebooks.
Why attend this session:
• To stop preparing in fragments and start connecting Prelims and Mains preparation organically.
• To learn a repeatable system that turns every current affair into both a Prelims and Mains asset.
• To master microthemes that will anchor your preparation for the next 18 months.
• To receive a Prelims Microthemes PDF upon registration for structured reference.
It will be a 45 minute session, post which we will open up the floor for all kinds of queries which a beginner must have. No questions are taboo and Lakshay sir is known to be patiently solving all your doubts.
Join us for a Zoom session on 14th Nov at 7 PM. This session is a must attend for you If you are attempting UPSC for the first time or have attempted earlier and now preparing for 2026/2027, then it is going to be a valuable session for you too.
See you in the session”
Register for the session for a complete in-depth UPSC Prep
(Don’t wait—the next webinar/session won’t be until End Nov’25)
These masterclasses are packed with value. They are conducted in private with a closed community. We rarely open these webinars for everyone for free. This time we are keeping it for 300 seats only.
The Centre notified all four Labour Codes, introducing major reforms and replacing 29 outdated labour laws dating back to the 1930s.
1)Introduction to the Labour Codes Notification:
Major Reform Announcement: The Centre notified all four Labour Codes, introducing wide-ranging changes in India’s labour framework.
Key Focus Areas: The reforms expand social security to gig workers, ensure gender pay parity, enhance women’s workplace rights, and introduce fixed-term employment.
Replacement of Old Laws: The Codes replace 29 fragmented labour laws dating back to the 1930s–1950s.
2)Government’s Stance:
Prime Minister’s View: PM Modi described the reforms as one of the most comprehensive labour transformations since Independence.
Worker Empowerment: The government highlights that the Codes aim to ensure universal social security, timely wage payments, and safer workplaces.
Simplified Compliance: The reforms are expected to promote ease of doing business through simplified compliance mechanisms.
Minister’s Statement: Labour Minister Mansukh Mandaviya said the Codes will formalise employment and make the labour ecosystem globally aligned.
State-Level Readiness: Most States have already issued draft rules; the Centre is supporting those still finalising rules.
3)Key Provisions:
Women’s Safety and Rights: Expanded rights, including permission for night shifts and enhanced workplace safety.
Health and Social Security:Free annual health check-ups for workers above 40 and nationwide ESIC coverage, including hazardous units.
Simplified Procedures:A single registration, licensing, and return system for employers.
Wage and Safety Standards: Introduction of a national floor wage and creation of a National OSH Board for uniform safety standards.
Fixed-Term Employment: Allows fixed-term workers to receive all benefits equivalent to permanent workers.
New Work Categories:Gig workers, platform workers, and aggregators are legally defined for the first time.
Universal Account Number: Aadhaar-linked UAN ensures portability and easy access to welfare benefits.
Inclusion of Plantation Workers: Plantation workers brought under OSHWC and Social Security Codes.
4)Responses from Stakeholders:
Trade Union Concerns:
Opposition to Codes: Several central trade unions reject the Labour Codes, labelling themanti-worker and pro-employer.
Issues with Timing: CTUs argue implementing the Codes amid rising unemployment and inflation will worsen workers’ hardships.
Protest Plans: Unions have announced nationwide protests on November 26 and cite earlier strikes against the Codes.
Fear of Exploitation: Trade unions warn the reforms could revive a “master-servant” relationship, reducing worker protections.
BMS Standpoint: The Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh supports implementation but seeks amendments to remove perceived anti-worker provisions in OSH and Industrial Relations Codes.
Industry View: CII praises the reforms as a transformative step towards a modern and simplified labour ecosystem.
[UPSC 2021] With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements: 1.All casual workers are entitled to Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2.All casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment.
3.The government can, by notification, specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements are correct? Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only* (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
Farmers in Rajasthan’s Churu district held a ‘Kisan Ekta Tractor March’ demanding pending crop insurance claims, fertiliser availability, transparency in the insurance portal, and inclusion of certain crops in PM Dhan Dhanya Yojana. The protest was postponed after government assurances during late-night negotiations.
About Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):
Launch & Purpose:
Launched on 18 February 2016 by the Ministry of Agriculture to provide affordable crop insurance and financial protection against losses from natural calamities, pests, and diseases.
Implemented through insurance companies and banks.
Objectives:
Provide financial assistance for crop loss due to unforeseen events.
Stabilise farmer income and ensure continuity in farming.
Promote modern agricultural practices.
Encourage crop diversification, enhance creditworthiness, and improve agriculture sector competitiveness.
Eligibility:
All farmers including sharecroppers and tenant farmers growing notified crops in notified areas.
Compulsory:Loanee farmers with Seasonal Agricultural Operations (SAO) loans.
Voluntary:Non-loanee farmers.
Must have insurable interest and valid land ownership/tenure documents.
Must not receive duplicate compensation from other sources.
Special focus on SC/ST/Women farmers with proportional budget allocation.
Benefits:
Affordable Premiums:
Farmers pay 2% for Kharif, 1.5% for Rabi, and 5% for commercial/horticultural crops.
Government provides premium subsidy; pays full premium in NE states, J&K, and Himachal Pradesh.
Comprehensive Coverage:
Covers natural disasters, pests, diseases, and post-harvest losses (hailstorm, landslide).
Excludes losses due to war, nuclear risks, malicious damage, or preventable risks.
Timely Compensation:
Claims processed within two months of harvest.
Technology-Driven Implementation:
Uses satellite imaging, drones, and mobile apps for precise loss estimation.
NCIP for digital processing; YES-TECH for remote-sensing yield estimation; CROPIC for geotagged crop verification.
[UPSC 2020] In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture?
1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops
2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
3. Social Capital development
4. Free electricity supply to farmers
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system
6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Options: (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 3 and 6 only* (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
The government has designated CISF as the security regulator for 250+ seaports to strengthen coastal security.
1) New Security Framework:
Sovereign Entity at Seaports: Government to deploy CISF as a sovereign security force at private cargo-handling ports for a uniform security system.
Initial Coverage: CISF to regulate 80 major export-import seaports for access control, cargo screening, and seafront patrolling.
Phase-wise Expansion: Remaining 170 seaports will be brought under CISF in stages.
ISPS Code Role: CISF designated as the Recognised Security Organisation under the International Ship and Port Facility Security Code.
2)Framework for Seaport Security in India:
International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code:
India’s port security system aligns with the mandatory global ISPS Code, introduced after 9/11 to protect ships and port facilities from terrorism and other maritime threats.
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) as Security Regulator:
The Government of India has recently designated the CISF as the Recognised Security Organisation (RSO) for ports, marking a major reform to strengthen and standardise port security across the country.
3)Challenges to Port Security:
Non-Standardised Security Framework:
Security at many non-major ports historically lacked uniformity and expert oversight.
Heavy dependence on private security agencies or local police resulted in inconsistent standards.
Transnational & Non-Traditional Threats:
Maritime terrorism remains a persistent risk.
Smuggling and drug trafficking, with ports often used for large narcotics consignments.
Cyberattacks targeting port IT systems and critical infrastructure.
Infrastructure & Manpower Gaps:
Difficulty in ensuring uniform, high-quality security infrastructure across 250+ ports.
Significant manpower shortages: CISF requires 800-1,000 personnel per major seaport and has requested 10,000 additional personnel for initial deployment.
Coastal Vulnerabilities:
Large stretches of coastline remain open, poorly monitored, or unguarded.
Absence of a sovereign security force at private ports has created long-standing security gaps.
Identified Gaps in Official Reviews:
Coastal security flagged as a priority for discussion at the Director Generals of Police (DGP) Conference, attended by the Prime Minister.
The 2023 MHA guidelines highlighted major deficiencies and recommended comprehensive improvements.
4) Committee Recommendations:
Committee Findings: A 2024 Joint Committee (CISF + Director General Shipping) conducted gap analysis and proposed corrective measures.
Hybrid Security Model: Core security functions to be handled by CISF, while State Police/private agencies manage non-core duties.
5)About CISF:
Overview: CISF is a Central Armed Police Force under the Ministry of Home Affairs, headquartered in New Delhi; motto: “Protection and Security.”
Establishment:
Formed in 1969 through the CISF Act, 1968 with three battalions.
Declared an Armed Force of the Union after the 1983 amendment.
Expanded into a multi-skilled force with 188,000+ personnel.
Provides security to 359 establishments nationwide.
Organisation Structure:
Headed by a Director-General (IPS), assisted by an Additional DG.
An Indian Air Force Tejas fighter jet crashed during the Dubai Air Show, killing Wing Commander Namansh Syal, after spiralling out of control and igniting on impact at Al Maktoum International Airport.
1)Tejas Mk1A:
About: The Tejas Mk1A is an upgraded variant of India’s Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas, developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
Purpose: This version is aimed to enhance operational and combat capabilities, survivability and maintainability over the baseline Mk1.
Capabilities:
Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar integration.
Electronic Warfare Suite (EWS) – radar‑warning and self‑protection jamming.
Upgraded Flight Control Computer (DFCC Mk1A) for better maneuverability and stability.
Missile compatibility- Beyond Visual Range (BVR) missiles, Air-to-Air and Air-to-Ground missiles and Advanced Short Range Air-to-Air Missiles (ASRAAM).
Planned integration of Combined Interrogator and Transponder (CIT), Software Defined Radio (SDR) and Operating Data Link (ODL) with existing onboard avionics.
2) LCA Tejas:
About: The LCA Tejas programme, initiated by the Government of India in 1984, aimed to replace the ageing MiG-21 fighter jets. The programme is managed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA).
Features:
Lightest, smallest, and tailless multi-role supersonic fighter in its class.
Capable of carrying a variety of air-to-air, air-to-surface, and precision-guided weapons.
Maximum payload capacity of 4000 kg.
Maximum speed: Mach 1.8.
Range: 3,000 km.
Variants of Tejas:
Tejas Trainer: 2-seater operational conversion trainer for training air force pilots.
LCA Navy: Twin- and single-seat carrier-capable for the Indian Navy.
LCA Tejas Navy MK2: This is phase 2 of the LCA Navy variant.
LCA Tejas Mk-1A: This is an improvement over the LCA Tejas Mk1 with a higher thrust engine.
3)Fifth Generation Fighter Jets:
About:
Combat Role: Designed for highly contested combat zones with advanced air and ground threats.
Stealth & Speed: Feature stealth technology and supercruise capability.
Key Advantages:
Multi-spectral low-observable design
Enhanced self-protection
Radar jamming capabilities
Fully integrated avionics systems
Global Operators:
Russia: Sukhoi Su-57
China: Chengdu J-20
United States:F-35 series
Need for India:
Squadron Strength: IAF has ~30 squadrons, below the sanctioned 42.
Ageing Fleet:
MiG-21
MiG-29
Jaguar
Mirage 2000
All to be phased out by mid-next decade.
Airpower Gap:
China: 3,304 aircraft
India: 2,296 aircraft
Pakistan: 1,434 aircraft
Strategic Need: Strengthen air defences against China and Pakistan and increase defence self-reliance.
Indigenous Development:
Developing AMCA
Five prototypes planned
Joint effort by ADA, HAL, and private industry
Strategic Positioning: 5G fighters would place India alongside the US, Russia, and China.
[UPSC 2024] Question: Consider the following aircraft:
1. Rafael
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None*
The Sangai Festival in Manipur opened amid protests by IDPs and NGOs, lowering attendance. Critics say the government should prioritise resolving the Kuki-Zo–Meitei ethnic conflict and resettling displaced people before holding tourism events after the May 2023 violence.
1) About Sangai Festival:
Celebration Period: Manipur Sangai Festival is held every year from 21-30 November.
Objective: The festival aims to showcase Manipur as a world-class tourism destination.
Name Origin: It is named after the State animal – the Sangai, the brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur.
Beginning: The festival started in 2010.
Theme: The theme for this year is “Festival of Oneness.”
Focus Areas: It highlights Manipur’s tourism potential in Arts & Culture, Handloom, Handicrafts, Indigenous Sports, Cuisine, and Music.
2) About Sangai Deer:
General Information:
Scientific Name:Rucervus eldii
Common Names:Sangai, Brow-antlered Deer, Dancing Deer
Population: About 260 (Forest Department census, 2016).
Habitat: Exclusively in Keibul Lamjao National Park, located on phumdi in Loktak Lake, Bishnupur district.
Characteristics:
Medium-sized deer with distinctive long brow antlers forming the main beam.
Antlers appear to grow from the eyebrow, giving the name brow-antlered deer.
Possesses a dark reddish-brown winter coat that becomes paler in summer.
Walks with mincing hops on floating phumdi, hence called the Dancing Deer.
Status:
State Animal of Manipur.
Listed in Schedule-I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Conservation Issues:
Threatened by degenerating phumdi habitat due to continuous inundation from the artificial reservoir.
Invasion of non-native plants like Paragrass.
Risks from diseases, inbreeding depression, and poaching.
3) Manipur Crisis:
About the Violence:
Violence occurred between Kuki tribe and Meitei community across multiple regions of Manipur.
The Imphal Valley (10% of land) is dominated by Meiteis (64% of population) and elects 40 of 60 MLAs.
The hills (90% of land) are inhabited by 35%+ recognised tribes, electing 20 MLAs.
Unrest began in February 2023 after an eviction drive seen as targeting a tribal group.
Meitei Demand for ST Status:
Supported by the Scheduled Tribes Demand Committee of Manipur (STDCM) since 2012.
Claim that Meiteis were recognised as a tribe before the 1949 merger with India.
Demand ST status to preserve land, culture, language, and ancestral identity.
Argue they face marginalisation and cite population decline from 59% (1951) to 44% (2011).
Why Tribal Groups Oppose ST Status for Meiteis:
Tribals argue Meiteis already hold demographic, political, and economic advantages.
Fear ST status will allow Meiteis to acquire land in the hills, reducing tribal land rights.
Meitei dominance includes:
Manipuri language in the Eighth Schedule
Sections already under SC/OBC categories
Tribes believe Meitei claims of cultural vulnerability are self-defeating.
[UPSC 2017] Consider the following pairs : Traditions Communities
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra — Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari — Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Options: (a) 1 only* (b) 2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only (d) None of the above
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