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  • African Grey Parrot Trade in India

    Why in the News?

    • A series of RTI applications filed by The Hindu across 19 States/UTs revealed that most State Forest Departments have no records of breeders, pet shops, or ownership registrations for the African Grey Parrot, despite the species being widely available in pet markets.
    • Only Kerala reported receiving 17 breeder licence applications through the PARIVESH portal, exposing major gaps in India’s monitoring of exotic species trade.

    About Species Profile

    • African Grey Parrot (Psittacus erithacus)
    • IUCN Status: Endangered
    • CITES Status: Appendix I (Highest level of protection; commercial international trade highly restricted)
    • WPA 1972: Listed under Schedule IV (post-2022 amendments)

    Legal & Regulatory Framework (India)

    Living Animal Species (Reporting and Registration) Rules, 2024

    • Mandatory registration of all exotic live species on PARIVESH 2.0.
    • Applies to: Pet owners, Pet shops and Breeders.

    Breeders of Species Licence Rules, 2023

    To breed any CITES Appendix I species, an applicant must possess:

    • Breeding Licence from State Chief Wildlife Warden
    • CITES Import Permit
    • DGFT Import Licence Number
    • NOC from State Chief Wildlife Warden prior to import

    Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972

    • African Grey Parrot → Schedule IV
    • Illegal possession/trade punishable under WPA
    With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015)

    (1) IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments. 

    (2) IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments. 

    (3) CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws. 

    Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

    (a) 1 only 

    (b) 2 and 3 only 

    (c) 1 and 3 only 

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • Auramine O Adulteration in Food: A Persistent Food-Safety Challenge in India

    Why in the News?

    • Recent inspections by state food-safety departments and laboratory analyses by academic institutions have once again detected the presence of Auramine O — a banned industrial dye — in sweets, savoury items, and brightly coloured chickpeas sold in public.

    What is Auramine O?

    • A synthetic bright yellow industrial dye.
    • Uses: textiles, leather, printing inks, paper, microbiological staining.
    • Not permitted as food colour in India, USA, EU, or most countries.
    • IARC Classification: Possibly carcinogenic to humans (Group 2B).

    Why is Auramine O Harmful?

    • Toxicological risks:
      • Liver & kidney damage
      • Spleen enlargement
      • Mutagenic effects
      • Potential carcinogenicity
      • Organ lesions even at low doses

    How Does Auramine Enter the Food Chain?

    • Cheap industrial dyes are sold informally in markets.
    • Used by small vendors to mimic:
      • Saffron
      • Turmeric
      • Approved synthetic colours
    • Usage spikes during festivals when brightly coloured sweets/snacks are in demand.
    • Lack of awareness and cost pressure lead to misuse.

    Commonly Adulterated Food Items

    • Bright yellow chickpeas
    • Laddus, peda, halwa
    • Namkeen, mixtures
    • Pickles and condiments

    Regulatory Framework – India

    Food Safety and Standards Act (2006)

    • Defines adulteration.
    • Penalties: fines + imprisonment (for injury/death).

    FSSAI Initiatives

    • Sampling & crackdown during festive seasons.
    • Seizures of illegal dyes and prosecution.
    • New order: bold, larger nutritional information on labels.
    • Awareness programs for:
      • Micro and small enterprises
      • Street vendors

     

    Consider the following statements: (2018)

    1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 
    2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

    1. 1 only 
    2. 2 only 
    3. Both 1 and 2 
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  • [25th November 2025] Hindu OpED Bridging India’s numeracy gap

    PYQ Relevance
    [UPSC 2020] National Education Policy 2020 is in conformity with the Sustainable Development Goal-4 (2030). It intends to restructure and reorient education system in India. Critically examine the statement.
    Linkage: NEP 2020 aligns with SDG-4 by focusing on equitable, high-quality education and foundational learning. However, implementation gaps and weak learning outcomes, especially in numeracy, limit its SDG-4 impact so far.
    Mentor’s Comment
    India’s learning crisis has silently shifted from illiteracy to numeracy failure. While the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and NIPUN Bharat Mission strengthened foundational literacy, recent evidence shows that numeracy continues to stagnate sharply, closing the doors of higher education for millions. This article decodes why numeracy outcomes matter for economic, cognitive, and social mobility, and what a multi-pronged policy roadmap must look like.
    INTRODUCTION
    NEP 2020 identifies Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) as the cornerstone of future learning, and NIPUN Bharat translated this into classroom action. While literacy outcomes have shown improvement, numeracy remains stubbornly low, particularly in conceptual understanding and real-life application. India is now at a point where foundational literacy success must be expanded to higher-order mathematical learning.
    WHY IN THE NEWS 
    The Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2024 shows that while 48.7% of Class 5 students read fluently, only 30.7% can solve a basic division problem, marking an 18% performance gap between literacy and numeracy. No State reports higher numeracy than literacy, highlighting a national trend of mathematics stagnation. Also, nearly 70% of Class 8 students and more than 50% of Class 5 students remain unable to perform basic division, despite classroom-based math instruction. The gap between school learning and real-life mathematical use is widening, closing higher-education opportunities as teens fail to cross the Class 10 board exam numeracy threshold.
    Where does India’s numeracy gap originate?
    1. Hierarchical nature of mathematics: partial understanding in lower grades (e.g., place value) blocks higher concepts such as addition and decimals.
    2. Cumulative error effect: once gaps form, students rarely recover, unlike in language.
    3. Traditional syllabus-driven pedagogy: focuses on advancement, not mastery; students progress without clearing conceptual blocks.
    Why does classroom learning not translate into real-world mathematical ability?
    1. High classroom performance, low life applicability: Evidence from the Abdul Latif Jameel Poverty Action Lab: students who excel in assessments fail to apply math in real-life situations.
    2. Real-world tasks do not transfer to classroom problems: Children able to handle money or shop-related calculations cannot solve textbook problems.
    3. Mismatch in learning environment: Schooling moves faster than the pace of conceptual consolidation.
    What are the consequences of India’s numeracy stagnation?
    1. Academic roadblocks: students struggle in science and mathematics subjects that dominate board exams.
    2. Early exit from education: adolescents leave school before Class 10 due to fear of mathematics.
    3. Reduced human capital formation: failure to master numeracy blocks access to high-skill employment and technical careers.
    Why does Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) need expansion beyond early grades?
    1. Persistent learning gaps after Grade 3: 70% of Class 5 and more than 50% of Class 8 students cannot divide.
    2. COVID-19 widened numeracy deficits: most Class 3 students reached upper-primary without core math skills.
    3. Transferable higher-grade pedagogy required: FLN-style teaching must be extended to older students.
    What does an effective multi-pronged response look like?
    1. Strengthening middle-grade support: extend FLN interventions to Class 8 to prevent permanent numeracy loss.
    2. Teaching math through everyday life: bills, ratios, fractions, percentages, and measurements.
    3. Child-friendly activity-based pedagogy: aligned with real literacy levels rather than grade-based syllabus.
    4. Embedding numeracy across subjects: problem-solving in science, geography, social sciences.
    CONCLUSION
    India has cracked foundational literacy but not foundational numeracy. The nation stands at a turning point where classroom success must evolve into real-life mathematical competence, ensuring that students not only pass but thrive academically and economically. Extending FLN-style pedagogy to middle-grade stages remains the most urgent policy priority.

  • What will mean for Chandigarh if it is brought under Article 240

    Introduction
    Chandigarh is a Union Territory that also serves as the shared capital of Punjab and Haryana. The Governor of Punjab currently holds additional charge as the Administrator of Chandigarh. The proposal to place Chandigarh under Article 240 of the Constitution may allow the Centre to appoint an independent Administrator and frame regulations for Chandigarh without relying on state mechanisms. The move carries political, administrative, and federal ramifications, especially for Punjab and Haryana.
    Why in the news? 
    Bringing Chandigarh under Article 240 could give the Centre sweeping legislative and administrative powers over the Union Territory, including the ability to repeal or amend laws applicable to Chandigarh through Parliament or Presidential regulations. This marks a sharp departure from the existing model, where Punjab’s Governor also administers Chandigarh. The move could influence bureaucratic control, fiscal provisions, and power distribution among Punjab, Haryana, and the Centre, making the stakes exceptionally high.
    What is Article 240?
    • Empowers the President to make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of certain Union Territories.
    • Regulations issued under Article 240 have the force of Parliamentary law, making them equivalent to an Act of Parliament.
    • Allows amendment or repeal of existing laws in a UT, giving the Union direct legislative authority.
    • Applies to UTs without a legislative assembly: Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu.
    • Applies to Puducherry only when its Assembly is dissolved or suspended, enabling temporary Central control.
    • Enables the Centre to bypass State governments in UT governance, creating a more unitary administrative model.
    Chandigarh’s current administrative arrangement
    1. Shared capital system: Chandigarh serves as the capital of both Punjab and Haryana.
    2. Additional charge: The Governor of Punjab functions as the Administrator of Chandigarh.
    3. UT governance limitations: Chandigarh lacks its own Legislative Assembly.
    What Article 240 enables
    1. Sweeping Central authority: The President can make regulations for peace, progress, and good government for UTs.
    2. Regulatory override: Any law applicable to Chandigarh can be repealed or amended via Parliamentary legislation.
    3. Direct central rule template: Similar model followed in Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman & Diu, Puducherry (when its Assembly is dissolved/suspended).
    Implications if Chandigarh is brought under Article 240
    1. Independent Administrator: No additional charge by Punjab Governor; Centre appoints directly.
    2. Bureaucratic restructuring: Large administrative staff of Punjab and Haryana currently posted in Chandigarh may face institutional and coordination changes.
    3. Legislative possibilities: May enable eventual Legislative Assembly for Chandigarh in the future.
    4. Greater Central oversight: Budgetary and policy matters would fall more firmly under Union control.
    5. Concerns raised: Critics fear this would give excessive control to the Centre.
    Arguments that the move benefits Chandigarh
    1. Clear autonomy: Reduced administrative overlap from two states.
    2. Institutional accountability: A dedicated Administrator creates faster decision-making.
    3. Long-term governance clarity: Removes ambiguity caused by shared capital model.
    Previous administrative attempts
    1. 1984 attempt: Proposal to appoint an independent Administrator linked to counter-terror coordination; Punjab was under President’s Rule.
    2. 2016 attempt: Opposition arose due to the practice of Punjab Governor holding Administrator’s charge.
    Conclusion
    Placing Chandigarh under Article 240 reflects a significant recalibration of Centre-State dynamics. While the move promises administrative clarity and efficiency, it raises questions of federal balance and the political stakes of Punjab and Haryana. The issue remains a critical case-study in Indian federalism, constitutional design, and UT governance.
    PYQ Relevance
    [UPSC 2024] What changes has the Union Government recently introduced in the domain of Centre-State relations? Suggest measures to be adopted to build the trust between the Centre and the States and for strengthening federalism.
    Linkage: The question reflects the recent shift in Centre-State power balance through greater Union control in administrative, fiscal and institutional domains. It links directly with debates like Chandigarh under Article 240, Governor-State tensions, GST Council dynamics and UT re-organisation, core themes of Indian federalism in GS-II.
  • What does the SC’s advisory opinion imply?

    INTRODUCTION

    The advisory opinion of the Supreme Court was sought to address concerns raised by delays in assent to Bills passed by State Assemblies and the earlier judicial attempt to impose fixed timelines on Governors. The reference involved 14 constitutional questions focused on the interpretation of Articles 200 and 201 and the Court’s jurisdiction to intervene. The new opinion aims to clarify the contours of discretionary powers while protecting legislative authority under the Constitution.

    WHY IN THE NEWS

    The Supreme Court has issued a landmark advisory opinion on a Presidential reference under Article 143, reversing the April 2025 ruling that introduced the concept of “deemed assent” and mandated a three-month timeline for Governors and the President to act on Bills. The Court has clarified that while Governors ordinarily act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, their powers under Articles 200 and 201 are discretionary, without any judicially enforceable time limits. This ruling has reshaped the dynamics between constitutional heads and elected State governments, impacting legislative functioning and federal balance.

    What triggered the Supreme Court’s advisory opinion

    1. Presidential reference origin: Resulted from the two-judge bench judgment in State of Tamil Nadu vs Governor of Tamil Nadu (April 2025).
    2. Three-month timeline mandate: The earlier ruling specified that Governors and the President must act on Bills within three months.
    3. Deemed assent invocation: The bench used Article 142 to grant deemed assent for Tamil Nadu Bills pending with the Governor.
    4. Government concern: The Union Government sought clarity on whether Bills become justiciable before enactment and whether courts can prescribe time limits.
    5. Magnitude of reference: A total of 14 constitutional questions were raised relating to Articles 200 and 201 and the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction.

    What were the key takeaways from the Supreme Court’s opinion?

    1. Three constitutional choices under Article 200: The Governor may assent, return the Bill for reconsideration, or reserve it for the President’s consideration.
    2. Discretion of Governor: The Governor exercises discretion in choosing among the three options and is not necessarily bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers.
    3. Non-justiciability before enactment: Courts cannot compel Governors to act before a Bill becomes law due to absence of constitutionally prescribed timelines.
    4. Autonomy of President under Article 201: The President’s powers operate independently and cannot be substituted by judicial directives.
    5. Absence of deemed assent: The Constitution does not provide for deemed assent; judicial power under Article 142 cannot be used to invent such a mechanism.

    Does this opinion contradict earlier judicial interpretations?

    1. Earlier judicial logic: Decisions in Shamsher Singh (1974) and Nabam Rebia (2016) held that Governors act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
    2. Present reinterpretation: The Court has held that Article 200 functions fall within discretionary power despite the general rule of acting on ministerial advice.
    3. Shift in constitutional balance: The new interpretation expands discretionary authority when dealing with State legislation.
    What about time limits for Governors and the President?
    1. Punchhi Commission recommendation (2010): Suggested that the Governor should decide on assent within six months.
    2. Precedent in K.M. Singh case (2020): The Court had earlier prescribed a three-month limit for the Speaker to decide disqualification petitions; however, no such limit exists for Governors.
    3. Current ruling: The Supreme Court held that no enforceable time limit applies because the Constitution does not prescribe one.
    4. Implication: The possibility of prolonged delays in assent continues to exist, which may contribute to legislative gridlock.
    What concerns emerge from the current interpretation
    1. Democratic risk: Legislative functioning may be hindered when Bills remain pending without a time frame for disposal.
    2. Centre-State tension: Expanded discretion may tilt the institutional balance toward appointed constitutional heads over elected State governments.
    3. Potential politicisation: Use of gubernatorial office could intensify where State and Union Governments are politically opposed.
    Way Forward
    1. Introduce timelines: Fix a statutory/constitutional time limit for assent to Bills.
    2. Record reasons: Make reservation of Bills and delays explainable in writing.
    3. Structured coordination: Establish periodic Raj Bhavan-State Government consultation mechanism.
    4. Federal ethics: Encourage Governors to follow constitutional neutrality over political alignment.
    5. Legislative reporting: Present pendency reports of Bills before the State Legislature annually.
    6. Capacity building: Train Raj Bhavan staff on constitutional conventions and cooperative federalism.
    CONCLUSION
    The Supreme Court’s advisory opinion carefully aligns with constitutional text by overturning “deemed assent” and reaffirming discretion under Articles 200 and 201. However, it leaves unresolved the core challenge of prolonged delays in gubernatorial action on Bills passed by elected Assemblies. While the opinion respects constitutional separation of powers and prevents judicial overreach, it simultaneously highlights the need for clearer institutional safeguards to protect democratic accountability and cooperative federalism.
    PYQ Relevance
    [UPSC 2022] Discuss the essential conditions for exercise of the legislative powers by the Governor. Discuss the legality of re-promulgation of ordinances by the Governor without placing them before the Legislature.
    Linkage: This PYQ connects directly to current debates on Governors’ discretionary powers, assent to Bills, and constitutional limits on ordinance-making. It is highly relevant after the Supreme Court’s recent advisory opinion on Articles 200 and 201, which redefines executive-legislature balance and safeguards federalism.
  • 🔴[UPSC Webinar for 2026] By Sreejay Sir, Lead Prelims Prog, Civilsdaily IAS | Master the PYQs Language + Logic Combo to Dominate UPSC Prelims 2026 | Join on 25th November at 7PM

    🔴[UPSC Webinar for 2026] By Sreejay Sir, Lead Prelims Prog, Civilsdaily IAS | Master the PYQs Language + Logic Combo to Dominate UPSC Prelims 2026 | Join on 25th November at 7PM

    Register for the session


    Read about Webinar


    Every UPSC aspirant knows how unpredictable the Prelims can be. Yet, the toppers consistently score 110+ because they have cracked something that most miss , the hidden logic and language traps inside UPSC’s PYQs.

    In this live session, I will show you how to stop guessing and start decoding the exact patterns UPSC uses, the phrasing, logical connectors, and conceptual traps that separate 75 marks from 110+.

    Srejay Sir, Civilsdaily IAS

    What I will cover (practical, no fluff):

    1. The Hidden Logic Behind PYQ

    • How UPSC frames questions to test reasoning, not facts.
    • Identifying trap words and keywords in questions that change the entire meaning.
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    • Understanding the tone and tense of UPSC questions.
    • Why words like “only,” “all,” “not,” “likely” decide your score.
    • Real question breakdowns, how rankers interpret options differently.

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    • The 3-step elimination framework for tricky questions.
    • Converting conceptual clarity into smart guessing.
    • When to take calculated risks, and when to leave.

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    • Examples where 90% of aspirants went wrong, and why.
    • Lessons from recent shifts in UPSC’s questioning style.

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    • How to integrate PYQs into your daily test plan.
    • Creating your own trap library, a collection of UPSC’s favourite tricks.
    • Using microthemes to connect PYQs with dynamic topics.


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  • Justice Surya Kant Sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India (CJI)

    Why in the News?

    Justice Surya Kant took oath as the 53rd Chief Justice of India (CJI) on November 24, 2025, administered by President Droupadi Murmu at Rashtrapati Bhavan.

    About Justice Surya Kant

    • Born: 10 February 1962, Hisar, Haryana.
    • Youngest Advocate General of Haryana (appointed 2000).
    • Judge, Punjab & Haryana High Court (2004).
    • Chief Justice, Himachal Pradesh High Court (2018).
    • Appointed to Supreme Court: 24 May 2019 (along with Justice B.R. Gavai).

    Tenure

    • Will serve until 2 February 2027 — a little over one year.

    Major Priorities as the 53rd CJI

    • Reduce pendency of 90,000+ cases in the Supreme Court to a “manageable number.”
    • Address growing trend:
      • Litigants bypassing High Courts and approaching SC directly.
      • Repeated “miscellaneous applications” causing prolonged litigation

    Major Cases Involving Justice Surya Kant

    • Abrogation of Article 370 (J&K’s special status removed).
    • Electoral Bonds Case – Bench struck down the scheme as unconstitutional.
    • Pegasus spyware case.
    • Suspension of sedition law deliberations.
    • Granted conditional interim bail to Ashish Mishra (Lakhimpur Kheri incident).

    Procedure for Selection of the Chief Justice of India (CJI)

    Constitutional Basis

    • Article 124(2) of the Constitution deals with the appointment of Supreme Court judges (including the CJI). The CJI is appointed by the President of India.

    Seniority Convention

    • By long-standing constitutional convention, the most senior judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the next CJI.
    • Seniority = date of appointment to the Supreme Court Bench.

    Role of the Collegium

    When the CJI’s post is falling vacant:

    • The outgoing CJI recommends the name of the senior-most SC judge to the Government of India.
    • This recommendation is part of the Collegium system, but only the CJI’s advice is required, not the full Collegium.

    Role of the Law Ministry

    • The Ministry of Law & Justice processes the recommendation.
    • Sends it to the Prime Minister, who advises the President.

    Appointment by the President

    • The President formally appoints the recommended judge as the Chief Justice of India.
    • Appointment is notified in the Gazette.

    Oath of Office

    • The President administers the oath of office to the new CJI at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
    • Oath is under Article 124(6).

    Tenure

    • The CJI holds office until the age of 65.

    Q. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

    1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.

    2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

    [A] 1 only 

    [B] 2 only 

    [C] Both 1 and 2 

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • INS Sahyadri–HMAS Ballarat in AUSINDEX 2025

     Why in the News?

    INS Sahyadri of the Indian Navy and HMAS Ballarat of the Royal Australian Navy participated in the AUSINDEX 2025 bilateral maritime exercise in the Northern Pacific, strengthening India–Australia defence cooperation and enhancing interoperability.

    What is AUSINDEX?  

    • Bilateral naval exercise between India and Australia
    • First held in 2015
    • Aims at maritime cooperation, interoperability, and security
    • Conducted alternately in India and Australia / designated oceanic regions

    AUSINDEX 2025 

    • Location: Northern Pacific
    • Participants:
    • INS Sahyadri – Shivalik-class guided-missile stealth frigate
    • HMAS Ballarat – Anzac-class frigate
    • Focus areas:
        • Anti-submarine warfare (ASW)
        • Gunnery drills
        • Advanced flying operations
        • Joint maritime manoeuvres
    • Objective: Boost interoperability and reaffirm commitment to a free, open, inclusive Indo-Pacific
    With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs: (2025)

    I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft 

    II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft III. C-17 Globemaster 

    III : Military transport aircraft 

    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

    (a) Only one 

    (b) Only two 

    (c) All the three 

    (d) None

  • DRI Seizes 32 kg Methamphetamine in North East

    Why in the News?

    The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) has seized 32 kg methamphetamine tablets worth ₹32 crore in two separate operations in Assam and Tripura, exposing the continued use of the Indo–Myanmar route for drug trafficking. Three persons have been arrested under the NDPS Act, 1985.

    About Methamphetamine  

    • A synthetic psychostimulant
    • Known as Ya Ba / Speed pills in Southeast Asia
    • Highly addictive
    • Controlled under Schedule of NDPS Act, 1985

    What is Hydroponic Weed?

    • Marijuana grown in nutrient-rich water systems, not soil
    • Higher potency due to controlled conditions
    • New smuggling trend: carried by air passengers into NE India

    NDPS Act, 1985  

    • Regulates narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
    • Provides for seizure, arrests, forfeiture
    • Commercial quantity offences: 10–20 years imprisonment
    • Empowered agencies: DRI, NCB, Customs, State Police, BSF, Assam Rifles
    Q: India’s proximity to two of the world’s biggest illicit opium-growing states has enhanced her internal security concerns. Explain the linkages between drug trafficking and other illicit activities such as gunrunning, money laundering and human trafficking. What countermeasures should be taken to prevent the same? (UPSC 2018) 
  • HMDA to use bioremediation to clean up Hussainsagar lake

    Why in the News?

    The Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA) has announced a new advanced bioremediation initiative using enzyme solutions and biochar-based Bokashi balls to clean and restore Hussainsagar Lake, which has long suffered from algal blooms, foul odour, sewage inflow, and industrial pollution.

    About Hussainsagar Lake

    • A 16th-century artificial lake in Hyderabad.
    • Faces severe pollution due to:
      • Sewage inflow
      • Nutrient overload (nitrates, phosphates)
      • Industrial waste
    • Problems: algal blooms, foul odour, low Dissolved Oxygen (DO), high Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).

    What Is Bioremediation?

    • Definition: Use of microorganisms, enzymes, or biological materials to break down pollutants and restore ecosystems.
    • Types relevant here:
      • In-situ bioremediation – treating the lake onsite without removing water.
      • Bio-augmentation – adding microbial cultures to enhance degradation.
      • Aerobic/oxygenation systems – boost DO to improve water quality.

    New Intervention Planned by HMDA

    • Enzyme Solutions

        • Enhance microbial breakdown of organic pollutants.
        • Help reduce nutrient load responsible for algal blooms.
    • Bokashi Balls (with Biochar)

      • Bokashi = fermented organic matter rich in beneficial microbes.
      • Biochar:
        • Carbon-rich material produced from biomass.
        • Increases microbial activity, absorbs toxins, improves water clarity.
      • Purpose:
        • Reduce algae, odour, pathogenic bacteria.
        • Increase water transparency and DO levels.
    In the context of solving pollution problems what is/are the advantage/disadvantages of bioremediation technique? (2017)

    1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 

    2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 

    3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. 

    Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

    (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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