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  • Why Supreme Court bar unregulated soil extraction for linear projects?

    Why in the News?

    Recently, the SC revoked the notification given by the Environment Ministry to exempt the extraction of ordinary earth for linear projects, such as road and railway construction.

    • It was challenged before the National Green Tribunal (NGT), which asked the Ministry to review it within three months. However, the Ministry did not take any action, leading the matter to reach the SC.

    What are the linear projects? 

    Linear projects refer to Construction or Development Projects. It includes the construction of linear structures like utility lines, pipelines, railroad tracks, highways, stormwater channels, and stream restoration activities.

    What was the 2020 exemption?

    • September 2006: The Environment Ministry issued a notification under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, on activities that would require prior Environmental Clearance.
    • January 2016: A second notification was issued, exempting certain categories of projects from this requirement.
    • March 2020: It added “Extraction or sourcing or borrowing of ordinary earth for the linear projects such as roads, pipelines, etc” to the list of exempted activities.
      • The general purpose of the 2020 notification was to conform to the amendments made to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, in March 2020, allowing new lessees to continue mining for two years with the statutory clearances and licenses issued to their predecessors.

    Nexus between the Judiciary and the Union Government (Ground for Challenges)

      • Judicial stand: The SC invalidated the broad and random exception, highlighting that the announcement was rushed during the COVID-19 lockdown without seeking feedback or objections through prior notification.
    • The exemption granted without incorporating safeguards was deemed arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution.
    • The court emphasized that the absence of safeguards defeats the purpose of the Environment Protection Act (EP Act).
    • An argument by the center: The Center contended that the exemption was essential “to benefit the general public” and would support “the kumhars (potters), farmers, gram panchayats, banjaras, roads of Gujarat,” and all non-mining activities recognized by the states.
      • However, the Apex court stated that the Centre had failed to provide reasons for concluding that the notification was issued in the public interest.

    Similar Judicial Scrutiny in the Past:

    • January 2018: The NGT quashed an exemption offered by the Ministry’s 2016 notification from the requirement of prior EC for building and construction activities having built-up areas of more than 20,000 sq m. According to the Tribunal, there was nothing to suggest an improvement in the quality of the environment to justify the exemption.
    • July 2015: Underlining that the EP Act mandates prior approval, the NGT struck down two Office Memorandums issued by the Ministry in December 2012 and June 2013 for granting ex-post facto EC to projects under the 2006 notification.
    • July 2021: Another notification of the Ministry that sought to perpetuate an amnesty window opened for just six months in March 2017 to clear projects under the “violation category” and issued ex-post facto approval to more than 100 projects, until the SC stayed it in January this year.
    • March 2024: The Kerala HC quashed a 2014 notification that exempted educational institutions and industrial sheds with built-up areas of more than 20,000 sq m from obtaining EC.

     

    Conclusion: The Supreme Court invalidated the Environment Ministry’s exemption for earth extraction in linear projects due to a lack of justification and safeguards, emphasizing compliance with Environmental Clearance to minimize environmental harm, safeguarding the Environment Protection Act’s purpose.

    Mains PYQ

    Q How does the draft EnvironmentImpact Assessment(EIA)Notification, 2020 differ from the existing EIA Notification, 2006? (UPSC IAS/2020)

  • 90 years of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

    Why in the news?

    Recently, the RBI celebrated its 90th year in Mumbai, marking a significant milestone.

    Dr. Ambedkar’s Role in the Establishment of RBI:

    • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s contributions were particularly notable during the Hilton Young Commission discussions in 1926, where he presented his recommendations based on his book “The Problem of the Rupee – Its Origin and Its Solution.”
    • These discussions laid the foundation for the establishment of the RBI on April 1, 1935.

    About Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

    • The RBI is the central bank and monetary authority of India.
    • It was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
    • Its idea was incepted from the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
    • Sir Osborne Arkell Smith, an Australian, served as the inaugural Governor.
    • He was succeeded by Sir C D Deshmukh, the first Indian to hold the position.
    • It is a centralized institution for India to effectively regulate its monetary and credit policies.
    • RBI had its initial headquarters in Kolkata, later moving permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
    • Initially, the RBI operated as a privately owned entity until its full nationalization in 1949.

    Functions and Initiatives:

    • Monetary Authority: The RBI controls the supply of money in the economy to stabilize exchange rates, maintain a healthy balance of payment, and control inflation.
    • Issuer of Currency: Sole authority to issue currency and combat circulation of counterfeit notes.
    • Banker to the Government: Acts as a banker to both the Central and State governments, providing short-term credit and financial advisory services.
    • Lender of Last Resort: Provides emergency liquidity assistance to banks during crises.
    • Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves: Manages foreign exchange reserves and administers the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA).
    • Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems: Oversees payment and settlement systems in the country, ensuring efficiency and security.
    • Credit Control and Developmental Role: Promotes credit availability to productive sectors and fosters financial infrastructure development.

    Transformative Reforms initiated by the RBI

    • Green Revolution (1960s-1970s): Supported agricultural growth through credit facilities and rural credit accessibility enhancements.
    • Banks Nationalization (1969): Aimed at aligning banking sector objectives with national policy goals.
    • Priority Sector Lending (1972): Ensures timely credit flow to key sectors of the economy.
    • Economic Liberalization (1991): Opened up the economy to global markets, fostering market-oriented growth.
    • Unified Payment Interface (UPI), 2016: Enabled seamless and instant transactions across India.
    • Inflation Targeting Framework, 2016: Set inflation targets to guide monetary policy decisions.
    • Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), 2019: Launched an integrated bill payment system for customer convenience.
    • Aadhar-based eKYC (2019): Streamlined customer authentication processes for financial institutions.
    • Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), 2020: Provided credit assistance to SMEs affected by the COVID-19 pandemic.
    • Central Bank Digital Currency (2022): RBI is actively exploring the issuance of a CBDC known as e₹ (digital Rupee).
    • Cryptocurrency Regulation (2022): RBI has maintained a consistent stance against cryptocurrencies, advocating for an outright ban on them (after China and El Salvador imposed the complete ban). In 2020, the Supreme Court of India removed the ban on cryptocurrencies imposed by RBI.
    • Payment Vision 2025 Document (2023): The goals and vision of the RBI, are categorised in the Payments Vision 2025 documents into five anchor goalposts – Integrity, Inclusion, Innovation, Institutionalisation and Internationalisation.

     

    PYQ:

    2012:

    The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?

    1.    Banks retain their deposits with the RBI.

    2.    The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.

    3.    The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a) 2 and 3 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

    2013: Consider the following statements: ​

    1.    The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.​

    2.    Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.​

    3.    The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.​

    Which of the above statements are correct?​

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • Negative Leap Second: Climate Change’s Impact on Timekeeping

    Why in the news?

    • A recent publication in the science journal Nature highlights how climate change-induced melting of glaciers and ice sheets is altering the Earth’s rotation, potentially disrupting our timekeeping systems.
    • Leap seconds were added almost every year between 1972 and 1999 to adjust for Earth’s slowing rotation. But there have only been four added in the last 23 years, and the last time a leap second was added was in 2016.

    What is a Leap Second?

    • A leap second is a one-second adjustment that is occasionally applied to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in order to synchronize atomic time with astronomical time, particularly with the Earth’s rotation.
    • The purpose of adding or subtracting a leap second is to keep International Atomic Time (IAT) (which is extremely precise) in close alignment with astronomical time, which is based on the Earth’s rotation and is subject to slight variations.

    There are two types of leap seconds:

    1. Positive Leap Second:
      • A positive leap second is added to UTC when the Earth’s rotation slows down slightly, causing the length of a day to exceed 86,400 seconds.
      • This type of leap second is necessary to bring UTC back into alignment with the Earth’s rotational time.
      • Positive leap seconds are rare and occur less frequently than negative leap seconds.
    2. Negative Leap Second:
      • A negative leap second, also known as a deletion or removal of a second, occurs when the Earth’s rotation speeds up slightly, causing the length of a day to be less than 86,400 seconds.
      • Negative leap seconds are extremely rare and have only been proposed but never implemented. They are considered hypothetical and have not yet been needed to adjust UTC.
      • The concept of negative leap seconds is controversial and requires international agreement and coordination among timekeeping organizations.

    International Atomic Time (TAI)

     

    • TAI is a high-precision time scale based on the weighted average of atomic clocks (usually involving caesium or rubidium atoms) from various laboratories around the world.
    • It is one of the primary time scales used for scientific and technical purposes, providing a continuous and uniform time reference that is independent of the Earth’s rotation.
    • TAI is maintained since 1958 by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM) in Paris, France.
    • Unlike UTC, which is adjusted periodically to account for the Earth’s irregular rotation, TAI is a continuous time scale that does not include any corrections for Earth’s rotation.

     

    How Climate Change causes Negative Leap Second?

    •  Glacial Melting: Accelerating melt rates in Greenland and Antarctica are redistributing weight across the planet, causing a slight deceleration in the Earth’s rotation.
    • Historical Context: Timekeepers have periodically added leap seconds to clocks worldwide to account for the Earth spinning faster than usual, with 27 instances recorded since the 1970s.
    • Planned Adjustment: The proposed “negative leap second” adjustment, scheduled for 2026, may be postponed until 2029 or later due to the recent deceleration in the Earth’s rotation.Top of Form

    Practice MCQ:

    What is a Leap Second?

    (a) It is a periodic adjustment added to International Atomic Time (TAI) to compensate for irregularities in Earth’s rotation.

    (b) It is an extra second added to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) to synchronize atomic time with astronomical time.

    (c) It is the time lag measured by the atomic clocks in Outer Space-Time conditions.

    (d) It is a term used to describe the synchronization of atomic clocks with the oscillations of subatomic particles.

  • Paradip Port: India’s Leading Major Port in Cargo Handling

    Why in the news?

    Paradip Port in Odisha has made history by becoming India’s largest major port in terms of cargo volumes, surpassing Deendayal Port Authority in Gujarat during FY24.

    About Paradip Port

    • Paradip Port is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha.
    • It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.
    • The port was commissioned in 1966 to serve as a gateway for the maritime trade of eastern India.
    • Paradip Port Trust, a statutory body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, manages and operates the port.

    Key Features of the Port

    • Infrastructure: It is equipped with modern facilities for handling a variety of cargo, including dry bulk, liquid bulk, containerized cargo, and general cargo.
    • Deep-Draft Port: The port has extensive berthing facilities and cargo-handling equipment capable of handling millions of tonnes of cargo annually.
    • Strategic Importance: Paradip Port serves as a vital link for the export and import trade of eastern and central India, contributing significantly to the region’s economic development.
    • Connectivity: The port is well-connected to major cities and industrial centers in Odisha and neighbouring states through road and rail networks.

    Key Feats Achieved

    • Cargo Throughput: Paradip Port achieved a record-breaking cargo throughput of 145.38 million metric tonnes (MMT) in FY2023-24, surpassing Deendayal Port.
    • Coastal Shipping Traffic: The port recorded the highest-ever coastal shipping traffic of 59.19 million metric tonnes, showcasing a growth of 1.30% over the previous year.
    • Thermal Coal Handling: Thermal coal shipping reached 43.97 million metric tonnes, marking a growth of 4.02% over the previous year.
    • Revenue Growth: Operating revenue crossed Rs 2,300 crore in FY24, reflecting a notable increase of 14.30% compared to the previous fiscal.

    Driving Factors of this Success

    • Enhanced Operational Efficiency: Mechanised coal handling plant operations were optimized, resulting in the highest handling of thermal coal at 27.12 million tonnes.
    • Productivity Improvement: Paradip Port improved berth productivity to 33,014 MT, the highest among all ports, showcasing a growth of 6.33% over the previous financial year.
    • Rake Handling and Ship Movements: The port handled 21,665 rakes and 2,710 ships during FY24, registering significant year-on-year growth in both metrics.

    Future Prospects

    • Capacity Expansion: With a current capacity of 289 million tonnes, Paradip Port is poised to exceed 300 million tonnes capacity in the next 3 years with the commissioning of the Western Dock project.
    • Strategic Location: Located near a mineral-rich hinterland, Paradip Port remains a strategic asset for India’s maritime trade and economic growth.

    PYQ:

    2017:

    What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

    (a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.

    (b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

    (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

    (d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    It is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal. It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.

    Which sea port in Odisha is being talked about by the above description?

    (a) Haldia

    (b) Gopalpur

    (c) Belikeri

    (d) Paradip

  • SEBI unveils SCORES 2.0 to Strengthen Investor Redressal

    Why in the news?

    The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) unveiled the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0) marking a significant advancement in the investor complaint redressal mechanism in the securities market.

    About Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

     

    • SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
    • Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
    • It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
    • SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
    • Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.

    What is SCORES 2.0?

    • SCORES 2.0 refers to the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
    • SCORES is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.
    • Complaints can be lodged for any issues covered under the:
    1. SEBI Act, 1992
    2. Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1956
    3. Depositories Act, 1966
    4. Companies Act, 2013

    Complaints on SCORES 2.0 can be launched against:

    1. Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
    2. Brokers / stock exchanges
    3. Depository participants / depository
    4. Mutual funds
    5. Portfolio Managers
    6. Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc.)

    Features of SCORES 2.0:

    1. Reduced Timelines: SCORES 2.0 implements reduced and standardized timelines for addressing investor grievances, ensuring a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days from the date of complaint receipt.
    2. Auto-Routing and Escalation: The new version incorporates an auto-routing mechanism to swiftly direct complaints to the relevant regulated entity. Additionally, it introduces a two-tier review process, with complaints undergoing review first by the designated body and subsequently by SEBI if investors remain dissatisfied with the resolution provided.
    3. Integration with KYC Database: SCORES 2.0 is seamlessly integrated with the KYC Registration Agency database, streamlining the registration process for investors onto the platform.
    4. Enhanced Efficiency: Through features such as auto-routing, auto-escalation, and stricter monitoring protocols, SCORES 2.0 aims to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the investor complaint redressal process.

    Significance of SCORES 2.0

    • Improved Regulatory Oversight: By introducing stricter timelines and oversight mechanisms, SEBI aims to enhance regulatory efficiency and transparency, fostering a more accountable and responsive market ecosystem.
    • Technological Advancements: The integration of advanced technological features, such as auto-routing and KYC database linkage, reflects SEBI’s proactive approach towards harnessing digital innovations to modernize regulatory processes and services.

    PYQ:

    2013:

    The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about the SCORES 2.0 Platform recently launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):

    1.    It is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.

    2.    It addresses complaints pertaining to the SEBI Act, 1992 only.

    3.    It ensures a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days.

    How many of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) One

    (b) Two

    (c) Three

    (d) None

  • Kallakkadal: Coastal Flooding Phenomena in Kerala

    Why in the news?

    • Coastal areas of Kerala, including Alappuzha, Kollam, and Thiruvananthapuram districts, are grappling with flooding caused by high sea waves, known as swell waves or Kallakkadal in Malayalam.
    • The recent swell surge occurred following a low-pressure system originating in the South Atlantic Ocean, leading to the formation of waves reaching heights of up to 11 meters.

    What is Kallakkadal?

    1. Origin and Meaning:
    • Kallakkadal refers to coastal flooding during the (April-May) pre-monsoon season.
    • It is caused by ocean swell waves on the southwest coast of India.
    • The term “Kallakkadal” originates from Malayalam, combining “Kallan” (thief) and “Kadal” (sea), denoting the sea’s unexpected intrusion akin to a thief.
    • In 2012, the term was formally approved by the UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).
    1. Causes:
    • These waves stem from distant storms, such as hurricanes, generating significant energy transfer from the atmosphere to the water.
    • Kallakkadal typically results from strong winds in the southern Indian Ocean, generating ocean swells that travel northward towards the Kerala coast.

    Features of Kallakkadal

    • This phenomenon occurs mostly during pre-monsoon season and sometimes during post monsoon.
    • It continues for a few days.
    • It inundates the low lying coasts.
    • Initially sea recedes before the surge.
    • During high tide the run-up, water level can reach as much as 3–4 m above Maximum Water Level (MWL).

    How is it distinct from Tsunami?

    • Nature of Phenomenon: Kallakkadal, though often confused with tsunamis, arises from distant storm-generated waves, contrasting with tsunamis triggered by underwater disturbances, typically seismic activities.
    • Clarification: Understanding this distinction is crucial for implementing effective early warning systems and mitigating the impact of coastal hazards.

    PYQ:

    2017: At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at-

    (a) Bhavnagar

    (b) Bheemunipatnam

    (c) Chandipur

    (d) Nagapattinam

     

    Practice MCQ:

    The Coastal areas of Kerala recently witnessed the Oceanic Swell Waves locally known as Kallakkadal. In this regard consider the following statements:

    1.    Kallakkadal typically occurs during the spring season (March-April).

    2.    These waves stem from distant storms in the southern Indian Ocean.

    Which of the given statements is/are NOT correct?

    (a) Only 1

    (b) Only 2

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • What is Zero FIR?

    Why in the news?

    • The Hyderabad Police have initiated a zero FIR case against former minister for alleged derogatory remarks against Telangana CM.

    First Information Report (FIR)

    • An FIR is a written document prepared by the police upon receiving information about a cognisable offence.
    • It is when an officer can arrest a suspect without a court’s warrant if/she has “reason to believe” that the person committed the offence and arrest is necessary based on certain factors.
    • It serves as the first step towards initiating the investigation process and subsequent police actions.
    • Section 154(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) empowers the police to register an FIR for cognizable offences.
    • Section 166A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides punishment for public servants failing to record information related to a cognizable offence, with imprisonment of up to two years and a fine.

    What is Zero FIR?

    • Provision and Purpose: Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognisable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
    • No diary: Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’. Hence the name.

    Features of a Zero FIR:

    1. Swift Action: The relevant police station subsequently registers a fresh FIR and commences the investigation.
    2. Focus on Victims: It is designed to expedite complaint lodging, particularly for serious crimes involving women and children, without the need to approach multiple police stations.
    3. Preserving Evidence: Early registration helps prevent the loss or tampering of crucial evidence and witnesses.
    4. Transferred Jurisdiction: The Zero FIR is later transferred to the relevant police station where the offence occurred or where the investigation should be conducted.

    How does it work?

    • After a police station registers a zero FIR, it has to transfer the complaint to a police station that has the jurisdiction to investigate the alleged offence.
    • Once a zero FIR is transferred, the police station with the appropriate jurisdiction assigns it a serial number, thereby converting it into a regular FIR.

    Legal Provisions for Zero FIR

    The provision of Zero FIR finds support in various judgments and recommendations:

    1. Satvinder Kaur vs. State (1999): The Delhi High Court held that a woman has the right to lodge her complaint from any place other than where the incident occurred.
    2. Justice Verma Committee (2012): The introduction of Zero FIR was based on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee, which was formed in response to the 2012 Nirbhaya gangrape case.
    3. Lalita Kumari vs. Govt. of UP (2014): The Supreme Court ruled that registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence.

    PYQ:

    2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

    1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked-up in police station, not in jail.

    2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Regarding the Zero FIR, consider the following statements:

    1. Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognizable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.

    2. Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    (a) Only 1

    (b) Only 2

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • 3rd April 2024 | Prelims Daily with Previous Year Questions

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  • [2 April 2024] The Hindu Op-ed: The PMLA — a law that has lost its way

    [2 April 2024] The Hindu Op-ed: The PMLA — a law that has lost its way

    PYQ Relevance:Mains: 

    Q) Discuss how emerging technologies and globalisation contribute to money laundering. Elaborate measures to tackle the problem of money laundering both at national and international levels. (UPSC CSE/2021) 

    Q) Analyze the complexity and intensity of terrorism, its causes, linkages and obnoxious nexus. Also suggest measures required to be taken to eradicate the menace of terrorism. (UPSC CSE/2021) 

    Q) Money laundering poses a serious security threat to a country’s economic sovereignty. What is its significance for India and what steps are required to be taken to control this menace?  (UPSC CSE/2013) 

    Note4Students: 

    Prelims: Polity; Prevention of Money Laundering Act  of 2002;

    Mains: Polity; Internal Security; Prevention of Money Laundering Act  of 2002;

    Mentor comments: The Enormous volume of black money generated through International Drug Trafficking poses a grave threat to our Indian economy as well as many other countries too. We all are awared that the black money is generated through the flourishing of the drug trade and then it is  integrated with the legitimate and domestic economy that can destabilize the world and endanger the integrity and sovereignty of various Nations. Hence, today we are going to discuss some major ongoing issue which is aligned with same context – the issue with the Prevention of Money Laundering Act  of 2002.

    Let’s learn. 

    —

    Why in the News?

    The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (2002),  includes a large number of offenses in its schedule that have nothing to do with the original purpose of this law. So, there is an urgent need to have an effective law with the rising of newer challenges in Drug Money Laundering offenses.

    The Background of the Law:

    • Since the mid-1980s, there has been global concern over the proceeds of criminal activities such as drug trafficking being ‘laundered’ or used in financing terrorism. 
    • The UN Convention against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances adopted in the Vienna Convention (1988) was the first treaty that called upon nations to adopt domestic laws to combat drug trafficking. As part of these laws, countries were asked to prohibit the conversion or transfer of property gained through dealing in narcotics to conceal its illicit origin. 
    • The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established at the G-7 Summit in Paris in 1989 in response to mounting concern over money laundering. The Task Force made recommendations from time to time to strengthen laws on the subject. 
    • The UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime of 2000 (Palermo Convention) also advocated legislative and other measures to combat organized crime, and specifically called for ‘criminalizing the laundering of proceeds of crime’

    About the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002:

    • Enactment of PMLA in India:
      • Article 253: This gave the Union Parliament the exclusive power to make laws for any part of India’s territory to implement any treaty, agreement or convention involving one or more countries.
      • Seventh Schedule: Item 13 (Communication which is subject to provisions in List I and III) in the Union list of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution is specific on this point. 
    • It was enacted in January 2003 and seeks to combat money laundering in India under three major domains:
      • Preventing and controlling Money Laundering
      • Confiscating and seizing the property obtained from the laundered money
      • Issues that are directly connected with Money Laundering in India.
    • Section 3 of the PMLA defines the offense of money laundering as whosoever directly or indirectly attempts to indulge or knowingly assists or knowingly is a party or is actually involved in any process or activity connected with the proceeds of crime and projecting it as untainted property shall be guilty of the offense of money-laundering.
    • The Act was amended by the Prevention of Money Laundering (Amendment) Act, 2009 and by the Prevention of Money Laundering (Amendment) Act, 2012. Recently, the PMLA was amended through the Finance Act, 2015, Finance Act, 2018 and Finance Act, 2019.

    Why PMLA has lost its way? 

    • Draconian Nature: The provisions contained are now being used in other scheduled offenses too without mitigating their rigor. 
    • Redundant Law: The various amendments made in this Act at different times bloated the schedule offenses which now contain such offenses that are either ordinary offenses listed in the IPC or for which there are special laws in force.
      • For Example, the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 which is aimed at curbing corruption among public servants. This Act was added to the schedule of offenses in 2009. The PMLA now applies with all its rigor to public servants also. Thus, a public servant charged with corruption and a hard-core drug trafficker are treated alike.
    • Non-aligned with Fundamental Principles: A very disturbing thing about the PMLA is that an accused under this law is presumed to be guilty until proven innocent. A fundamental principle of Anglo-Saxon jurisprudence is that a person is presumed innocent until proven guilty. 
    • Stringent Bail Provisions: An accused will be denied bail by the entire hierarchy of courts because the bail provision contained in section 45 of the PMLA says that a judge can give bail only when he is satisfied that the accused is innocent. 
    • Legislative vs. Judiciary Nexus: The bail provision is invested with a lot of political significance in present-day India. The Act originally aimed to curb the laundering of black money and to save the economy from being destabilized. But the less serious offenses are also under purview of PMLA. The learned judges nearly said that the inclusion of a particular offense in the schedule comes within the domain of the legislative policy.
    Judicial Stand on the Bail Provisions:

    Gudikanti Narasimhulu And Ors vs Public Prosecutor (1978): The judicial perspective on bail was laid out by Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer (Andhra Pradesh HC) where it said that “Personal liberty is deprived when bail is refused, which is too precious value of our constitutional system recognized under Article 21”.

    Nikesh Tarachand Shah vs Union of India (2018): The PMLA Act (Section 45) was held unconstitutional by a two-judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India as it was violating Article 14 and Article 21.  

    Vijay Madanlal Choudhary vs Union of India (2022): Parliament, with great alacrity, restored this provision with certain amendments which was upheld by a three-judge Bench headed by Justice A.M. Khanwilkar in 2022. The top court held that this provision is reasonable and has a direct nexus with the purposes and objects of the PMLA Act. 

  • Solar surge: Moving away from imported solar panels

    Why in the news? 

    The government is finally bringing into effect the policy of an Approved list of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) that will discourage solar power project developers from relying on imported panels. 

    About Approved Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules Order, 2019:

    • Aim: To boost domestic manufacturing of solar panels by registering only those made with domestically manufactured cells, wafers, and polysilicon.
    • Compulsory Registration: The order mandates compulsory registration for solar PV module and cell manufacturers, ensuring they meet certain quality and production standards.
    • Lists: LIST-I for solar PV modules and LIST-II for solar PV cells.
      • Only listed models and manufacturers in these lists are considered approved for use in various government projects and schemes.
    • Eligibility Criteria: To be included in the lists, manufacturers must undergo inspections and meet specific criteria set by the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) to ensure the products are genuinely manufactured and not imported.
    • This order ensures the reliability of solar PV products used in installations, promotes domestic manufacturing, and aligns with the government’s initiatives for renewable energy adoption and energy security.

    Efforts made by the Government to promote domestic Solar Manufacturing:

    • Import Restrictions: The creation of the Approved Models and Manufacturers list was aimed at restricting imports from China, which dominates a significant portion of the global solar supply market.
    • Ambitious Renewable Energy Targets: India aims to source about 500 GW of its electricity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030, with at least 280 GW coming from solar power. This necessitates adding at least 40 GW of solar capacity annually until 2030. So there is need to focus on indegenous solar project

    Challenges ahead:

    • Unrealistic Targets: Despite ambitious targets, India’s solar capacity additions have been relatively low in recent years, attributed in part to the COVID-19 pandemic. The country aims to ramp up installations to between 25 GW and 40 GW annually.
    • Reliance on Imports: A significant fraction of India’s solar installations is met by imports, which affects domestic panel manufacturers who must pay for government certification but lose orders to cheaper Chinese panels. For example surge in Solar panel import in  FY 24 around $1,136.28 million  from FY23 imports $943.53 million

    Conclusion: India’s ALMM policy aims to boost domestic solar manufacturing, aligning with ambitious renewable energy targets. Address challenges like meeting targets and reducing reliance on imports through strategic planning and support.

    Mains PYQ 

    Q Describe the benefits of deriving electric energy from sunlight in contrast to conventional energy generation. What are the initiatives offered by our government for this purpose? (UPSC IAS/2020)

    https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/how-india-became-a-frontrunner-in-the-global-renewable-energy-market/articleshow/100271905.cms?from=mdr

    https://mnre.gov.in/approved-list-of-models-and-manufacturers-almm/

    https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1944075

    https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/indias-solar-panel-imports-set-to-remain-higher-in-fy24/106217488#:~:text=During%20the%20initial%20six%20months,million%2C%20according%20to%20Eninrac%20Consulting

  • Two States: a comparison on access to life-saving C-sections

    Why in the News?

    The study released by IIT Madras highlights the concerns related to high rates of C-section deliveries among women in Tamil Nadu, particularly in private hospitals.

    • This indicates the necessity for corrective measures to address the situation.

    What is a Caesarean section? 

    It is also known as C-section or cesarean delivery, which is the surgical procedure by which one or more babies are delivered through an incision in the mother’s abdomen.

    It is often performed because vaginal delivery would put the mother or child at risk.

     

    Changes in the share of births delivered by C-sections in public and private sector hospitals in India, Tamil Nadu, and Chhattisgarh between 2015-16 and 2019-21.

    • High C-section Rate in Public Hospitals: In public sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu, nearly 40% of women underwent C-sections during 2019-21.
    • High C-section Rate in Private Hospitals: Close to 64% of women underwent C-sections in private sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu during 2019-21, which is significantly higher than both the national average of around 50% and Chhattisgarh’s rate of 59%.
    • Higher than the National Average: The rate of C-section deliveries in Tamil Nadu’s public sector hospitals is substantially higher than the national average, which is approximately 16%. Additionally, it surpasses the rate in Chhattisgarh, where it stands at 10%.

    Reasons behind the increase in C-section rates despite a decrease in pregnancy complications:

    • Regional Disparities: In Chhattisgarh, the likelihood of a woman undergoing a C-section in a private hospital is ten times higher than in a public hospital. This suggests potential disparities in access to high-quality healthcare services between public and private sectors, with implications for maternal health outcomes.
    • Socioeconomic Factors: The study assumes that poorer households opt for public hospitals while richer households prefer private ones for deliveries. This socioeconomic divide may contribute to inequitable access to healthcare services at the national level.
    • Higher Likelihood in Private Health Facilities: Women delivering in private health facilities are more likely to undergo C-sections compared to those in public facilities, with a notable disparity observed in Chhattisgarh.
    • Maternal Age and Weight Status: Factors such as maternal age (35-49) and overweight status increase the likelihood of C-section delivery.
    • High gap between Poor and Rich: In India, the gap in C-section prevalence between the poor and non-poor narrowed in private facilities, but Tamil Nadu exhibited a concerning trend where a higher percentage of the poor underwent C-sections compared to the non-poor.

    Recommendations by the World Health Organization (WHO): Cesarean delivery rates should ideally not exceed 10-15% to achieve the lowest maternal and neonatal mortality rates. When C-section rates go beyond 10%, there is no significant decrease in maternal mortality. In 2021, global C-section rates surpassed 20%, and they are projected to increase to 30% by 2030.

    Conclusion: Access to C-sections in Tamil Nadu shows disparities, with high rates in both public and private hospitals. Addressing regional, and socioeconomic factors and adhering to WHO recommendations are crucial for equitable maternal healthcare.

    PYQ Mains 

    Q Appropriate local community level healthcare intervention is a prerequisite to achieve ‘Health for All’ in India. Explain. (UPSC IAS/2018)

     https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/rise-in-c-section-deliveries-despite-decrease-in-pregnancy-complications-iit-madras-study-2521773-2024-04-01

  •  Katchatheevu | What is the controversy all about?

    Why in the news? 

    Katchatheevu Island, a disputed stretch in the Palk Strait, was ceded to Sri Lanka during late PM Indira Gandhi, through an agreement.

    • Fifty years later, PM Modi, has mounted an attack on the Congress and DMK for ‘callously’ giving it away to Sri Lanka.

    About the Katchatheevu  Island:

    • Katchatheevu is an uninhabited area in the Palk Strait, between India and Sri Lanka.  It was created due to volcanic eruption in the 14th century and is comparatively youthful in the realm of geological chronology.
    • Historically, it was controlled by the Jaffna kingdom of Sri Lanka in the medieval period.
    • However, in the 17th century, control passed to the Ramnad zamindari based out of Ramanathapuram, about 55 km northwest of Rameswaram.
    • The Island became part of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj. But in 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, at the time were British colonies and claimed Katchatheevu to determine fishing boundaries.
    • A British delegation from India challenged this, citing ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom. This dispute was not settled until 1974.

    Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement of 1974:

    • In 1974, the Indian government, led by Indira Gandhi at the time, endeavored to definitively resolve the maritime border between India and Sri Lanka.
    • As a component of this arrangement, termed the ‘Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement’, Katchatheevu was relinquished to Sri Lanka.
    • During this period, it was perceived that the island held minimal strategic significance, and relinquishing India’s claim over it was anticipated to foster stronger relations with its southern neighbor.
    • Limitations of the Agreement of 1974:
      • Issue of fishing rights: The 1974 agreement failed to address the issue of fishing rights. Sri Lanka interpreted the access of Indian fishermen to Katchatheevu as being restricted solely to activities such as resting, drying nets, and visiting the Catholic shrine, without the requirement of a visa.
      • The issue concerning EEZ: Further agreement was reached between the two countries, prohibiting fishing within each other’s Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs).
      • However, the proximity of Katchatheevu to the edges of both countries’ EEZs left unresolved questions regarding fishing rights, contributing to ongoing uncertainty.

     

    India’s stand on the Kachchatheevu issue:

    • August 2013: The Union government informed the Supreme Court that the question of reclaiming Kachchatheevu from Sri Lanka did not arise because no Indian territory was ceded to Sri Lanka. Moreover, it was historically disputed territory between British India and Ceylon (now Sri Lanka), and the matter was settled through agreements in 1974 and 1976.
    • December 2022: The Union government reiterated the stance, emphasizing that Katchatheevu lies on the Sri Lankan side of the India-Sri Lanka International Maritime Boundary Line as per the agreements. Additionally, it mentioned that the matter was under judicial consideration in the Supreme Court.

    Conclusion: The recent mention of Katchatheevu by Prime Minister Modi ahead of elections in Tamil Nadu highlights its contentious nature. To address fishermen’s issues, diplomatic dialogue and legal clarity are crucial.

    Mains PYQ

    Q What are the maritime security challenges in India? Discuss the organizational, technical, and procedural initiatives taken to improve maritime security. (UPSC IAS/2022)

  • 125 years of Kodaikanal Solar Observatory

    Why in the news?

    This year marks 125th Year of the Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO).

    About Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)

    • The idea for an Indian solar observatory emerged in the late 19th century, with then government sanctioning the establishment of the Solar Physics Observatory in Kodaikanal in August 1893.
    • Kodaikanal in the Palani hills of Tamil Nadu was chosen as the site for the observatory due to its favorable atmospheric conditions, following surveys conducted by Charles Michie Smith.
    • The foundation stone for KoSO was laid by Lord Wenlock, the then Governor of Madras, in 1895.
    • Systematic observations at KoSO began on March 14, 1901.
    • KoSO initially housed instruments for solar observations, including telescopes for examining sunspots, prominences, and solar radiations.
    • Presently, KoSO houses advanced instruments like the H-alpha telescope and the White light Active Region Monitor (WARM) for high-resolution solar imaging.

    Do you know?

    • The Bhavnagar Telescope, named after the Maharaja of Bhavnagar, was one of the more famous instruments at KoSO during the early decades of its operation.
    • A 15cm telescope was used to capture solar images onto a photographic film or plate.
    • Solar magnetic plages and prominences were recorded since 1911, taken on photographic films and plates.

    Historical Perspective

    • Ancient Legacy: Throughout history, seafarers, mathematicians, astronomers, and physicists have meticulously studied the Sun and its celestial phenomena.
    • British Era Initiatives: In 1792, the British East India Company established the pioneering Madras Observatory, marking a significant milestone in astronomical research in the region.
    • Madras Observatory’s Legacy: The Madras Observatory documented crucial astronomical observations during 1812-1825, laying the groundwork for solar research in India.
    • Shift to Systematic Observations: Dedicated solar observations commenced in 1878, fostering a deeper understanding of solar phenomena.
    • Advancements in Methodology: The adoption of systematic observational techniques paved the way for more comprehensive and detailed studies of the Sun’s behavior.

    Need for such Observatory

    • Great Drought of 1875-1877: This event triggered by scanty rainfall, propelled the need for comprehensive solar studies to comprehend its implications on weather patterns.
    • India’s Geographical Significance: India’s drought was part of a larger global phenomenon, affecting several countries and leading to widespread famine.
    • Scientific Inquiry: Scientists recognized the potential role of solar variability in influencing climatic patterns, prompting inquiries into the Sun’s behavior and its correlation with environmental phenomena.

    Scientific Endeavors of KoSO

    • The observatory made significant contributions to solar physics, including the discovery of the radial motion of sunspots, known as the Evershed Effect.
    • Over time, KoSO expanded its research areas beyond solar physics to include cosmic rays, radio astronomy, ionospheric physics, and stellar physics.
    • In April 1971, KoSO was brought under the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, as part of the separation of astrophysics from the India Meteorological Department (IMD).

    Repository of the KoSO

    • Between 1904 and 2017, all solar observations were traced onto photographic films and plates
    • A new telescope mounted with CCD cameras has taken over and, since 2017, continued to observe the Sun.
    • Digitization of the records was initiated in 1984 by Prof J C Bhattacharyya, and others continued the effort.
    • KoSO is now home to a digital repository of a whopping 1.48 lakh solar images adding up to 10 terabyte of data.
    • These include 33,500 white-light images (showing sunspots), 45,000 images of the Ca II K spectral line (which reveals plages), and 70,000 H-alpha photographic plates that show prominences.

    PYQ:

    2019:

    On 21st June, the Sun-

    (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

    (b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

    (c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

    (d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Which of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Evershed Effect’ in Sun?

    (a) It refers to the bending of light waves around obstacles, demonstrated by the diffraction pattern observed in a single-slit experiment.

    (b) It is the phenomenon of a magnetic field being generated by the motion of charged particles in the convective zone of the Sun.

    (c) It describes the deflection of moving charged particles, such as electrons, in a magnetic field, leading to the creation of an electric potential difference.

    (d) It is the radial flow of gases in the Sun’s outer atmosphere, observed as a redshift in the spectrum of light emitted by the photosphere.

  • In news: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)

    Why in the News?

    • The Allahabad High Court clarified the appellate jurisdiction concerning orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) in contempt proceedings.
    • The court ruled that appeals against CAT contempt orders must be filed exclusively before the Supreme Court under Section 19 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

    What is Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

    • The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body in India established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India.
    • Its primary function is to adjudicate disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
    • CAT was set up to provide a speedy and inexpensive remedy to government employees in matters concerning their service conditions and employment disputes.

    Establishment of CAT:

    • The Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985 enacted by the Parliament authorizes the central government to establish Central Administrative Tribunal and the State Administrative Tribunals.
    • There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the Central Administrative Tribunal all over India.

    Jurisdiction of CAT:

    • The Administrative Tribunal is distinguishable from the ordinary courts with regard to its jurisdiction and procedure.
    • It exercises jurisdiction only about the service matters of the parties covered by the Act.
    • CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning the following:
    1. A member of any All-India Service
    2. A person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the Union
    3. A civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence

    Services NOT Covered:

    The following members are NOT covered under the jurisdiction of CAT:

    1. Defense forces, Officers,
    2. The staff of the Supreme Court and
    3. Secretarial staff of the Parliament.

    Procedure:

    • The CAT is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is NOT bound by the procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
    • It is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
    • Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.

    Composition:

    • The CAT comprises of a chairman, and other members who are appointed by the President of India.
    • The membership of CAT is filled by members from judicial and administrative fields.
    • The term of the service is 5 years or until the age of 65 years for chairman; 62 years for members, whichever is earlier. (minimum age is 50 years)
    • The chairman or any other member may address his resignation to the President in between his term of office.

     

    PYQ:

    2019: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its power as an independent judicial authority. Explain.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):

    1.    The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body.

    2.    It adjudicates disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.

    3.    Personnel of the armed forces are covered in the jurisdiction of CAT.

    How many of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) One

    (b) Two

    (c) Three

    (d) None

  • UNCTAD Report Highlights Shifts in India’s Trade Relations

    What is the news?

    • The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Global Trade Report revealed an evolving trade landscape for India, marked by increased reliance on China and the European Union (EU).

    About UNCTAD

    • UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1964.
    • It is part of the UN Secretariat.
    • The UNCTAD Conference ordinarily meets once in four years.
    • It reports to the UNGA and the Economic and Social Council, but has its own membership, leadership and budget.
    • It is also a part of the United Nations Development Group.
    • It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively.
    • Reports published by the UNCTAD are-
    1. Trade and Development Report
    2. World Investment Report
    3. Technology and Innovation Report
    4. Digital Economy Report

    Membership:

    • UNCTAD’s membership consists of all 195 member states of the United Nations.
    • India is an active member. The second UNCTAD Conference took place in New Delhi, India in 1968.

    Key Highlights of the Report:

    1. Key Findings on India
    • Trade Trends: India’s trade dependence on China and the EU rose by 1.2%, while reliance on Saudi Arabia declined by 0.6%.
    • Factors: This shift occurred amidst supply chain disruptions caused by the pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine conflict, leading to record-high food and fuel prices.
    • Policy Measures: Despite efforts to reduce dependency on China through initiatives like the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme and Quality Control Orders (QCOs), India’s trade relations with China strengthened.
    1. Insights from the Report
    • Stable Proximity: Geographical proximity of international trade remained relatively constant, indicating minimal near-shoring or far-shoring trends.
    • Political Proximity: However, there was a noticeable rise in the political proximity of trade, favouring countries with similar geopolitical stances.
    • Concentration of Trade: Global trade increasingly favored major trade relationships, although this trend softened towards the end of 2023.
    • Sectoral Trends: Most sectors experienced a decline in trade value, except for pharmaceuticals, transportation equipment, and electric cars.
    • Global Forecast: Global merchandise trade is expected to contract by 5% in 2023, with services trade projected to gain 8%.
    1. Impact of Russia-Ukraine Conflict
    • Shifts in Trade: The ongoing conflict led to a surge in Russia’s trade dependence on China by 7.1% while decreasing reliance on the EU by 5.3%.
    • Oil Trade: Russian oil shifted from the EU to China and India, with China becoming a significant trade partner for Russia.
    • US Trade Dynamics: The US managed to reduce reliance on China by 1.2% in 2023, while increasing dependence on the EU and Mexico.

    PYQ:

    The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an: (2017)

    (a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.

    (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.

    (c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.

    (d) UNCTAD-funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), consider the following statements:

    1. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly.

    2. It is part of the UN Secretariat.

    3. India has never hosted the UNCTAD Conference.

    How many of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) One

    (b) Two

    (c) Three

    (d) None

  • Lalit Kala Akademi chief’s powers curbed by Culture Ministry

    Why in the news?

    • The Ministry of Culture has restricted the powers of Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA) Chairman, V Nagdas, preventing him from taking any administrative actions without prior consultation with the ministry.
    • The directive was issued, citing rule 19(1) of General Rules and Regulations of LKA, empowering the central government to intervene in administrative matters.

    About Lalit Kala Akademi

    Details
    Established 1954

    Inaugurated by then Education Minister Maulana Azad (Based on French Academy)
    Headquarters New Delhi, India
    Founding Legislation Lalit Kala Akademi Act, 1954

    Registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
    Type Autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India
    Objective Promotion and development of visual arts in India
    Functions Conducting exhibitions, workshops, seminars, and research programs

    Granting scholarships, awards, and fellowships to artists

    Publishing journals, catalogues, and other art-related publications

    Collaborating with international art organizations and institutions
    Programs 1.    National Exhibitions of Art

    2.    Rashtriya Kala Mela

    3.    International Exhibitions

    4.    Scholarships, Awards, and Fellowships

    5.    Workshops and Residencies

    6.    Seminars and Conferences
    Key Initiatives Triennale India

    National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA)

    Art camps and symposiums
    Membership Open to visual artists, art enthusiasts, and art scholars
    Publications 1.    Lalit Kala Contemporary

    2.    Lalit Kala Series

    3.    Annual Reports

    4.    Catalogues and Journals
    Awards 1.    Lalit Kala Akademi Fellowship

    2.    National Awards in various art categories

    3.    Kalidasa Samman
    Gallery Lalit Kala Akademi Galleries in New Delhi and regional centers

     

     

    PYQ:

    2021: Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 :​

    1.    American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.​

    2.    The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.​

    3.    Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.​

    Which of the above statements are correct?​

    (a) 1 and 2 only ​

    (b) 2 and 3 only​

    (c) 1 and 3 only ​

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statement about the Lalit Kala Akademi:

    1. It was inaugurated in 1954 by then-Education Minister Maulana Azad.

    2. It is an autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    (a) Only 1

    (b) Only 2

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Ozone found on Jupiter’s moon Callisto

    Why in the news?

    PRL Ahmedabad researchers has uncovered evidence of ozone presence on Jupiter’s moon Callisto, offering profound insights into celestial chemical processes.

    About Jupiter and its Moons

    Description
    Discovery Known since ancient times;

    Galileo Galilei observed Jupiter and its moons through a telescope in 1610
    Composition Mostly composed of hydrogen and helium, with traces of other gases such as ammonia, methane, and water vapor
    Diameter 139,822 kilometers
    Mass 1.898 × 10^27 kilograms (317.8 Earth masses)
    Orbital Period Approximately 11.86 Earth years
    Average Distance from Sun Approximately 778 million kilometers
    Surface Temperature Approximately -145°C (-234°F)
    Magnetic Field Strong magnetic field, the strongest in the solar system
    Moons Jupiter has 79 known moons, including the four largest Galilean moons: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.

    Other notable moons include Amalthea, Himalia, Elara, Leda, Thebe, Metis, Adrastea, and more.

    The moons vary significantly in size, composition, and orbital characteristics.
    Great Red Spot Enormous storm system, known to exist for at least 400 years
    Exploration Explored by spacecraft such as Pioneer, Voyager, Galileo, Juno, and more

    Callisto and its Unique Environment

    • Composition: Callisto’s predominantly icy surface, interspersed with rocky materials, sulphur dioxide, and organic compounds, positions it as a compelling candidate for extraterrestrial life exploration.
    • Geological Stability: Despite extensive cratering, Callisto’s surface exhibits geological inactivity, suggesting long-term stability conducive to preserving subsurface oceans or potential habitats.

    Significance of Ozone Findings

    • Life-Sustaining Component: Ozone, a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms, plays a vital role in shielding celestial bodies from harmful ultraviolet radiation, fostering conditions conducive to life.
    • Earthly Parallel: Just as the Earth’s ozone layer protects against harmful UV radiation, the presence of ozone on Callisto hints at stable atmospheric conditions and potential habitability, sparking scientific intrigue.

    PYQ:

    What is the difference between asteroids and comets?

    1.    Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are made of ice, dust and rocky material.

    2.    Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.

    3.    Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (2011)

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1 and 3 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • ISRO’s NICES Programme Combatting Climate Change

    Why in the news?

    The National Information System for Climate and Environment Studies (NICES) Program has extended invitations to Indian researchers to contribute to climate change mitigation efforts.

    What is NICES Program?

    • The NICES Programme is operated by the ISRO and the Department of Space.
    • It was launched in 2012.
    • It operates within the framework of the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
    • NICES aims to enhance the participation of Indian researchers in addressing climate change-related challenges through multidisciplinary scientific investigations.
    • Focus Areas: Potential areas for project submission include Space-based Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) and Climate Indicators, Climate Change Challenges, Weather Extremes, and Climate Services.

    Activities held under NICES Program

    • NICES invites project proposals from Indian scientists, academicians, and researchers affiliated with various governmental organizations, recognized institutions, universities, and departments.
    • Project proposals should address climate change-related challenges.
    • These projects are expected be completed within 3 years from the date of sanction.

    Objective and Functionality

    • The primary objective of the NICES Programme is to generate and disseminate long-term Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) derived from Indian and other Earth Observation (EO) satellites.
    • These variables, spanning terrestrial, oceanic, and atmospheric domains, are crucial for characterizing Earth’s climate and monitoring changes over time.

    Achievements and Impact:

    • Since its inception in 2012, NICES has developed over 70 geophysical products meeting stringent quality standards.
    • These products have been instrumental in documenting climate change and its impacts, contributing to scientific understanding and evidence-based decision-making.

    PYQ:

    2021: Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference?

     

    Practice MCQ:

    The NICES Program is an initiative of:

    (a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

    (b) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)

    (c) Department of Science and Technology (DST)

    (d) None of the above.

  • 2nd April 2024 | Prelims Daily with Previous Year Questions

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  • The ART of India’s HIV/AIDS response

    Why in the news? 

    On April 1, 2004, the Indian government launched Free Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) for Persons living with HIV (PLHIV). This decision has been one of the most successful .

    Emergence of HIV drugs

    • First Antiretroviral Drug Approval: In March 1987, the US FDA approved the first antiretroviral drug, AZT (zidovudine), offering a glimmer of hope for treatment.
    • Additional Drug Approvals: Three more antiretroviral drugs were approved shortly after in 1988, expanding treatment options for HIV/AIDS patients.
    • Introduction of Protease Inhibitors: A significant milestone occurred in 1995 with the introduction of protease inhibitors, a new class of antiretroviral drugs.

    The evolution to free ART

    • Millennium Summit Declaration: In 2000, world leaders at the UN General Assembly’s Millennium Summit set a goal to stop and reverse the spread of HIV.
    • Formation of the Global Fund: The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis, and Malaria was established in 2002, advocating for universal access to HIV prevention, treatment, care, and support services.
    • High HIV Prevalence in India: In 2004, India had an estimated 5.1 million PLHIV, with a population prevalence of 0.4%. However, very few were receiving ART, with only 7,000 PLHIV on treatment by the end of the year.
    • Free ART Initiative: The Indian government’s decision to provide free ART to all adults living with HIV in 2004 was groundbreaking. This initiative aimed to address the barriers of cost and geographical access to treatment.
    • Expansion of ART Facilities: Over two decades, the number of ART centers in India expanded significantly, from less than 10 to around 700. Additionally, 1,264 Link ART centers have provided free ART drugs to approximately 1.8 million PLHIV.
    • ART Eligibility Criteria Evolution: The criteria for initiating ART evolved over the years, starting from CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 in 2004, to less than 350 cells/mm3 in 2011, and less than 500 cells/mm3 in 2016. Finally, in 2017, the “Treat All” approach was adopted, initiating ART regardless of CD4 count.
    • Rapid ART Initiation Policy: In 2021, India adopted a policy of rapid ART initiation, starting individuals on treatment within seven days of HIV diagnosis, and sometimes even on the same day. This swift initiation aimed to improve treatment outcomes and prevent transmission.
    • Complementary initiatives  to stop the HIV epidemic: Provision of free diagnostic facilities; attention on prevention of parent to child transmission of HIV (PPTCT) services; prevention, diagnosis and management of opportunistic infections including management of co-infections such as tuberculosis (TB).

    Objectives of India’s National AIDS Control Programme (NACP) phase 5 by 2025

    Ambitious 95-95-95 Targets: The NACP phase 5 sets ambitious targets known as the 95-95-95 targets, aligned with global targets agreed upon by UNAIDS. These targets aim for:

    • 95% of all people living with HIV to know their HIV status.
    • 95% of all people diagnosed with HIV infection to receive sustained antiretroviral therapy (ART).
    • 95% of all people receiving antiretroviral therapy to achieve viral suppression.
    • These targets are aligned with global targets agreed by the UNAIDS.

    Challenges 

    • Delayed Enrolment to ART Facilities:  Late presentation poses challenges to timely initiation of treatment and optimal disease management.
    • Missed doses : Patients often start feeling better after initiating ART, leading to missed doses or discontinuation of treatment that lead to drug resistance

    Measures  

    • Sustained Supply and Availability of ART: Ensuring consistent and uninterrupted access to ART drugs across all regions of the country
    • Private Sector Engagement: Enhancing engagement with the private sector in the care of PLHIV .
    • Training and Capacity Building: Continuous training and capacity building of healthcare staff are essential to  ensure high-quality service delivery.
    • Integration with Other Health Programs: Strengthening integration with other health programs, such as hepatitis, non-communicable diseases (NCDs

    Conclusion

    India’s ART initiative, launched in 2004, has been pivotal in combating HIV/AIDS. With evolving criteria, rapid initiation policies, and ambitious targets, challenges persist, but measures like sustained supply, private sector engagement, and training are being implemented.

    Mains PYQ

    Q What are the research and developmental achievements in applied biotechnology? How will these achievements help to uplift the poorer sections of the society? ( UPSC IAS/2021) 

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