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Type: Prelims Only

  • DAE Inaugurates World’s First Nuclear Heat Based Hydrogen Production Facility

    Why in News?

    The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has inaugurated the world’s first hydrogen production facility based on the Copper-Chlorine (Cu-Cl) Thermochemical Cycle using nuclear process heat from the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) at Kalpakkam.

    Key Highlights

    • First in the world to produce hydrogen using the Cu-Cl thermochemical cycle powered by nuclear heat.
    • Established at the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam.
    • Uses process heat from the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) instead of fossil fuels.
    • Technology developed indigenously by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
    • Serves as a technology demonstrator for future commercial-scale nuclear hydrogen production.

    What is the Copper-Chlorine (Cu-Cl) Thermochemical Cycle?

    The Cu-Cl cycle is a series of chemical reactions that split water into hydrogen and oxygen using heat and electricity.

    Process

    • Water reacts with copper and chlorine compounds.
    • High-temperature nuclear heat drives most of the reactions.
    • Hydrogen gas is produced while intermediate chemicals are recycled.

    Advantages

    • Operates at lower temperatures (≈500°C) than many other thermochemical cycles.
    • Higher thermodynamic efficiency.
    • Requires less electricity.
    • Produces zero greenhouse gas emissions when powered by nuclear energy.

    Why Use Nuclear Heat?

    • Fast reactors generate both Carbon-free electricity and High-temperature process heat.
    • Using this heat:
      • Reduces dependence on natural gas for hydrogen production.
      • Improves overall reactor efficiency.
      • Enables continuous hydrogen production irrespective of weather conditions.

    Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR)

    • Located at IGCAR, Kalpakkam.
    • India’s only operating fast reactor research facility.
    • Commissioned in 1985.
    • Uses liquid sodium as coolant.
    • Produces plutonium while generating power.

    [2023] Consider the following heavy industries:
    1. Fertilizer plants
    2. Oil refineries
    3. Steel plants
    Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

    [A] Only one

    [B] Only two

    [C] All three

    [D] None

  • Netra AEW&C System Receives Final Operational Clearance (FOC)

    Why in the news?

    The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has handed over the Final Operational Clearance (FOC) certificate of the indigenous Netra Airborne Early Warning & Control (AEW&C) system to the Indian Air Force (IAF). The system had received Initial Operational Clearance (IOC) in 2017.

    What is Netra AEW&C?

    • Netra is an Airborne Early Warning and Control (AEW&C) system developed indigenously by DRDO’s Centre for Airborne Systems (CABS) in collaboration with the IAF and Indian industry.
    • Mounted on a modified Embraer ERJ-145 aircraft.
    • Functions as a “flying radar”, providing airborne surveillance, early warning, command and battle management.

    Key Features

    • 360° situational awareness through networked surveillance.
    • Detects and tracks: Fighter aircraft, Cruise missiles, Drones/UAVs, Helicopters, and Surface targets.
    • Provides: Airspace surveillance, Threat detection, Target tracking, Battle management, and Command and control support.
    • Enhances interoperability with ground-based and airborne assets.

    Prelims Pointers

    • AEW&C: Airborne Early Warning and Control system for surveillance and battle management.
    • FOC (Final Operational Clearance): Certification that a defence system is fully operational and combat-ready.
    • IOC (Initial Operational Clearance): Limited operational induction after successful initial trials.
    • CABS: Centre for Airborne Systems, a DRDO laboratory responsible for airborne surveillance systems.

    [2025] With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
    I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
    II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
    III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    [A] Only one

    [B] Only two

    [C] All the three

    [D] None

  • AIR SUVIDHA 2.0 Portal

    Why in News?

    The Ministry of Civil Aviation, in collaboration with Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL), launched AIR SUVIDHA 2.0, an upgraded digital health declaration portal, to strengthen health surveillance at India’s international Points of Entry following the Ebola (Bundibugyo virus disease) outbreak in Central Africa.

    Why was AIR SUVIDHA 2.0 Introduced?

    • WHO declared the Ebola/Bundibugyo Virus Disease (BVD) outbreak in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and Uganda a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) on 17 May 2026 under the International Health Regulations (IHR), 2005.
    • To prevent the import and spread of the disease through international travel.

    What is AIR SUVIDHA 2.0?

    AIR SUVIDHA 2.0 is a contactless online Passenger Health Self-Declaration Portal for international travellers arriving in India.

    Key Features

    • Passengers must submit an online Self-Declaration Form (SDF) before arrival.
    • Form can be filled up to 24 hours before travel.
    • Captures: 21-day travel history, Exposure history, and Symptoms, if any.
    • Enables paperless and contactless health screening.
    • Real-time data sharing with Airport Health Officer (AHO), Bureau of Immigration, Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), and State Surveillance Officers.
    • Enables early identification, screening, and referral of high-risk passengers.

    Benefits

    • Strengthens surveillance at Points of Entry (PoEs).
    • Supports rapid outbreak detection and response.
    • Reduces delays through digital processing.
    • Enhances coordination among aviation, immigration, and health authorities.

    What is a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)?

    • The highest level of global public health alert declared by the World Health Organization (WHO) under the International Health Regulations (IHR), 2005.
    • Declared when an extraordinary public health event: Poses a risk of international disease spread and Requires a coordinated international response.

    What is Ebola (Bundibugyo Virus Disease)?

    • A severe viral hemorrhagic fever caused by the Bundibugyo ebolavirus, one of the species of the Ebola virus.
    • Spread through:
      • Direct contact with infected blood or body fluids.
      • Contaminated objects.
      • Infected animals.
    • Symptoms: Fever. Weakness. Vomiting and diarrhoea. Internal and external bleeding in severe cases.

  • Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026

    Why in News?

    The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has notified the Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026 to ease industry compliance while maintaining product quality and strengthening domestic supply chains.

    What are Quality Control Orders (QCOs)?

    • Quality Control Orders (QCOs) are mandatory regulations issued by the Central Government under the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Act, 2016.
    • They require specified products to conform to Indian Standards (IS) and obtain BIS certification before manufacture, import, sale, or distribution.
    • Objectives:
      • Ensure consumer safety and product quality.
      • Prevent substandard imports.
      • Promote standardisation and manufacturing excellence.
      • Improve global competitiveness of Indian products.

    What is the Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026?

    The Order introduces a risk-based alternative compliance mechanism to facilitate a smooth transition to QCO compliance without compromising quality standards.

    Key Features

    • Allows manufacturers to procure inputs from suppliers licensed under:
      • Scheme II of the BIS (Conformity Assessment) Regulations, 2018 (Product Certification Scheme),
      • instead of only relying on Scheme I (ISI Mark Scheme).
    • Permissions will be granted based on:
      • Technical capability.
      • Compliance history.
      • Technology adoption and innovation.
      • Research and design capabilities.
      • Contribution to domestic supply chains.
    • Manufacturers with three consecutive years of default-free QCO compliance are also eligible for the benefits.
    • Maintains consumer protection while reducing compliance bottlenecks.

    BIS Certification Schemes

    • Scheme I (ISI Mark Scheme): Product testing and factory inspection. Mandatory use of the ISI Mark. Applicable to products covered under QCOs.
    • Scheme II: Simplified product certification framework. Intended for specific categories where alternative conformity assessment is permitted. Facilitates flexible sourcing while ensuring quality.

    Significance

    • Strengthens domestic value chains.
    • Encourages technology upgradation and innovation.
    • Reduces regulatory burden on industry.
    • Enhances Ease of Doing Business.
    • Improves integration with global supply chains.
    • Ensures continued consumer confidence in product quality.

    Prelims Pointers

    • DPIIT: Department under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for industrial policy, startup promotion, and quality ecosystem.
    • Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
      • National Standards Body of India.
      • Established under the BIS Act, 2016.
      • Functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
      • Formulates Indian Standards and operates certification schemes, including the ISI Mark.

  • Venezuela Earthquake

    Why in News?

    A powerful doublet earthquake (Magnitude 7.2 followed by 7.5) struck Venezuela, killing over 188 people and injuring more than 1,500. It is the strongest earthquake to hit Venezuela in 126 years.

    Key Highlights

    • Two major earthquakes struck within one minute, making it a doublet earthquake.
    • Epicentres were located west of Caracas, near the coastal town of Morón.
    • Tremors were felt in Colombia and Brazil.
    • The earthquakes occurred at shallow depths (10 km and 22 km), resulting in severe ground shaking.
    • International humanitarian assistance was offered by India, the United States, the United Nations, China, Brazil, and others.

    Why Did the Earthquake Occur?

    • Plate Boundary: Venezuela lies along the boundary between the Caribbean Plate and the South American Plate.
    • Strike-slip Faulting: The Caribbean Plate moves eastward relative to the South American Plate, causing horizontal movement along faults.
    • Active Fault Zone: The earthquake occurred near the El Pilar Fault System, one of the most active fault systems in northern Venezuela.
    • Shallow-focus Earthquake: Shallow earthquakes release energy close to the Earth’s surface, leading to greater destruction.
    • Doublet Earthquake: Two large earthquakes occurring almost simultaneously amplify structural damage.

    Why is Venezuela Earthquake-Prone?

    • Located on the Caribbean South American plate boundary.
    • Presence of active faults such as: El Pilar Fault, Boconó Fault,and San Sebastián Fault
    • Continuous tectonic stress due to plate movement.
    • Part of the Alpine Himalayan Seismic Belt, one of the world’s major seismic zones.

    Prelims Pointers

    • Earthquake: Sudden release of energy in the Earth’s crust due to movement along faults.
    • Focus (Hypocentre): Point inside the Earth where an earthquake originates.
    • Epicentre: Point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus.
    • Shallow-focus earthquakes: Depth less than 70 km; generally cause maximum damage.
    • Strike-slip fault: Fault where two blocks move horizontally past each other.
    • Doublet earthquake: Two major earthquakes of similar magnitude occurring close together in time and location.

    [2023] Consider the following statements :
    1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
    2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • Criminal Cases Among Rajya Sabha MPs (ADR Report)

    Why in News?

    A report by the Association for Democratic Reforms and National Election Watch found that 31% of sitting Rajya Sabha MPs have declared criminal cases, while 16% have declared serious criminal cases in their election affidavits.

    Key Findings

    • Analysis covered 226 of 233 Rajya Sabha MPs.
      • 4 seats (West Bengal) were vacant.
      • 3 MPs were excluded as affidavits were unavailable.
    • 69 MPs (31%) declared criminal cases.
    • 36 MPs (16%) declared serious criminal cases.
    • Serious offences include:
      • 1 MP with a murder case.
      • 4 MPs with attempt to murder cases.
      • 4 MPs with crimes against women.

    Party-wise Criminal Cases

    • BJP: 28 of 107 MPs (26%), Congress: 12 of 29 MPs (41%), AITC: 2 of 9 MPs (22%), DMK: 2 of 8 MPs (25%), SP: 2 of 4 MPs (50%), TDP: 3 of 4 MPs (75%), BRS: 3 of 3 MPs (100%), CPI(M): 3 of 3 MPs (100%), RJD: 2 of 3 MPs (67%), AIADMK: 1 of 4 MPs (25%), NCP: 1 of 4 MPs (25%), and AAP: 1 of 3 MPs (33%)

    Wealth Profile

    • 31 MPs (14%) declared assets exceeding ₹100 crore.
    • Major parties: BJP: 7 MPs, Congress: 6 MPs, YSRCP: 2 MPs, TDP: 2 MPs, BRS: 2 MPs, and NCP: 2 MPs

    About ADR

    • The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) is a non-governmental, non-partisan organization established in 1999.
    • It works to promote:
      • Electoral transparency.
      • Political and electoral reforms.
      • Informed voting through analysis of candidates’ affidavits.
    • ADR uses disclosures mandated by the Supreme Court and the Election Commission of India.

    Constitutional and Legal Background

    • Article 80: Composition of the Rajya Sabha.
    • Representation of the People Act, 1951
      • Section 8: Disqualification upon conviction for specified offences.
    • Mere pendency of criminal cases does not disqualify a candidate unless a conviction attracts disqualification under law.
    • Candidates must disclose criminal antecedents in nomination affidavits following Supreme Court judgments.

    [2020] Consider the following statements:

    1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. 

    2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    a . 1 only

    b . 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d . Neither 1 nor 2

  • SAIL Supplies Defence Grade Steel for Indian Navy Warships

    Why in News?

    The Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) supplied 5,700 tonnes of indigenous defence grade steel for three Indian Navy ships, INS Dunagiri, INS Agray, and INS Sanshodhak, commissioned on 21 June 2026. The move strengthens India’s defence indigenisation under Atmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India.

    Key Highlights

    • SAIL supplied 100% of the special steel requirement (5,700 tonnes) for INS Dunagiri (Stealth Frigate), INS Agray (ASW Shallow Water Craft), and INS Sanshodhak (Survey Vessel)
    • Steel supplied DMR 249A grade hot rolled sheets and plates (Defence grade steel).
    • Manufactured at Bokaro Steel Plant, Bhilai Steel Plant, and Rourkela Steel Plant
    • Production of DMR grade plates has been expanded, especially at the Special Plate Plant, Rourkela, to meet defence needs.

    What is DMR 249A Steel?

    • DMR (Defence Metallurgical Research) 249A is a high strength, low alloy steel developed for naval warships.
    • Features: High tensile strength, Excellent weldability, High toughness, Corrosion resistance in marine environments, and Better survivability under combat conditions.
    • Other Major Naval Platforms Using SAIL Steel: INS Vikrant, INS Nilgiri, INS Himgiri, INS Udaygiri, INS Ajay, INS Nistar, and INS Anjadeep

    Significance

    • Enhances self reliance in defence manufacturing.
    • Reduces dependence on imported naval steel.
    • Strengthens India’s indigenous shipbuilding capability.
    • Supports strategic maritime security and blue water naval ambitions.
    • Demonstrates collaboration between public sector steel manufacturing and defence production.

    [2016] Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?

    [A] Amphibious warfare ship

    [B] Nuclear-powered submarine

    [C] Torpedo launch and recovery vessel

    [D] Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

  • Index of Services Production (ISP)

    Why in the news?

    The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) will launch the Index of Services Production (ISP) in July 2026 as India’s first monthly indicator to measure short term growth in the services sector.

    What is ISP?

    • Index of Services Production (ISP) is a monthly high frequency indicator that measures changes in the real output (volume) of the formal services sector relative to a base year.
    • It is the services sector counterpart of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

    Key Highlights

    • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
    • Base Year: 2024-25.
    • First Trial Release: 14 July 2026 (for 2025-26 and April 2026).
    • Release Frequency: Monthly, with a 60 day time lag.
    • Compiled using a fixed weight Laspeyres Volume Index.
    • Weights are based on Gross Value Added (GVA) of service sectors.

    Objectives

    • Complement the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
    • Provide high frequency data on the services sector.
    • Improve economic forecasting and business cycle analysis.
    • Strengthen evidence based policymaking.

    Coverage

    • Included Sectors: Wholesale and retail trade, Transport, Banking and insurance, Telecommunications, Hotels and restaurants, Real estate, Professional, scientific and technical services, Arts, entertainment and recreation
    • To be Included Later: Health services and Education services (after availability of ASISSE data).

    Data Sources

    • Administrative data: Air Transport, Railways, Banking and Insurance.
    • GST (GSTR-1 outward supplies): Most service industries.
    • Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE): Health and Education.

    Why is ISP Important?

    • Services contribute over 50% of India’s Gross Value Added (GVA) since 2013-14.
    • Provides timely tracking of service sector performance.
    • Enables faster policy response and economic monitoring.
    • Aligns India with international statistical practices.

    Limitations

    • Covers only the formal services sector.
    • Excludes: Public administration and defence, Government health and education, Social work without accommodation, Household services, Activities of extraterritorial organisations, Gambling and betting, Other predominantly non market and informal services.

    What is the proposed compilation formula?

    • ISP is proposed to be compiled using a fixed-weight Laspeyres Volume Index
      • Measures changes in output using fixed base year weights.
      • Widely used for indices such as IIP due to ease of comparison over time.

    [2020] Consider the following statements:
    1.The weightage of food in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
    2.The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which the CPI does.
    3.The Reserve Bank of India uses WPI as its key measure of inflation to decide changes in policy rates.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 and 2 only

    [B] 2 and 3 only

    [C] 1 and 3 only

    [D] 1, 2 and 3

  • Centre Tightens FCRA Rules for NGOs

    Why in News?

    The Union Government amended the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Rules, 2011, introducing stricter norms for NGOs receiving foreign funds under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010.

    New Registration Requirements

    • NGOs must register under one or more of five categories: Social, Economic, Educational, Cultural, and Religious
    • Must specify: Exact purpose of foreign contribution. State/UT-wise area of operation.
    • Separate fee payable for each category and each State/UT.

    Enhanced Disclosure

    • NGOs must disclose: Websites, Social media accounts, Publications (books, magazines, newspaper articles), and Annual activities and geographical scope.

    Expanded Definition of “Key Functionary”

    • Now includes: Office-bearers, Directors, Trustees, Partners, Karta/Head of Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), Governing body members, and Any person controlling or managing the organization.

    Restrictions

    • NGOs with foreign nationals (except Persons of Indian Origin) as key functionaries will generally not be eligible unless specifically permitted by the Central Government.
    • Educational and cultural activities must remain strictly non-political.
    • Religious activities exclude proselytisation.

    Penalties

    • Minimum fine: ₹1 lakh.
    • Misuse of foreign funds or use for unapproved purposes/States: 30% of the amount involved or ₹1 lakh, whichever is higher.
    • Similar penalties for Excess administrative expenditure, Speculative investments, and Unauthorized receipt or utilization of foreign contributions.

    Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (FCRA)

    • Regulates acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions and hospitality by individuals, associations, and NGOs.
    • Administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
    • Objectives: Ensure foreign funds do not adversely affect Sovereignty and integrity of India, National security, Public interest, and Democratic institutions

    [2021] At the national level, which ministry is the modal agency to ensure effective implementation of the scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

    [A] Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

    [B] Ministry of Panchayati Raj

    [C] Ministry of Rural Development

    [D] Ministry of Tribal Affairs

  • NITI Aayog Trade Watch Quarterly (Q4 FY 2025-26)

    Why in News?

    NITI Aayog released the 8th edition of “Trade Watch Quarterly” (Jan-Mar 2026), highlighting India’s trade performance and focusing on the pharmaceutical sector.

    India’s Trade Performance

    • Total merchandise and services trade: $1.84 trillion in FY 2025-26 (↑5.4% YoY).
    • Exports: Grew by 4.2%.
    • Imports: Grew by 6.5%.
    • Services exports: Increased by 9.0%, maintaining a strong services surplus.
    • India remained the 8th largest services exporter in 2025.
    • Services exports recorded a CAGR of 10.3% (2015-2025), higher than the global average.

    Pharmaceutical Sector

    • Global pharmaceutical and API market estimated at $1.3 trillion (2025).
    • India’s pharmaceutical and API exports reached $35.8 billion.
    • India is a leading supplier of Generic medicines, Vaccines, and Essential therapeutics

    Challenges

    • Export basket remains concentrated in generic formulations and retail medicaments.
    • Limited presence in biologics, biosimilars, immunologicals, and advanced therapeutics.
    • Continued dependence on imported Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) and intermediates, especially from China.

    Leading Pharmaceutical States

    • Telangana, Gujarat, and Maharashtra
    • These states lead in production, exports, and integration into global pharmaceutical value chains.

    Way Forward

    • Expand into high-value pharmaceutical segments.
    • Strengthen domestic API manufacturing.
    • Increase investments in R&D, technology, and skill development.
    • Improve regulatory efficiency and market access.

    Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API)

    • The biologically active component of a medicine responsible for its therapeutic effect.
    • APIs are combined with excipients to produce the final dosage form.

    Biologics

    • Medicines produced from living organisms or biological processes.
    • Examples include monoclonal antibodies, vaccines, and recombinant proteins.

    [2021] With reference to international trade of India, which of the following statements are correct:
    1.The Top 3 export destinations of India are – USA, UAE, China.
    2.The Top 3 exports from India include – Petroleum Products, Drug Formulations, Agricultural Products.
    3.Agricultural exports have consistently risen from 2016-17 to 2021-22.
    4.India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
    Select the correct code from the options given below:

    [A] 1 and 4

    [B] 1 and 3

    [C] 2 and 4

    [D] 1, 2, 3 and 4