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Type: Prelims Only

  • Kashmir’s willow bat industry strains under cleft shortage, smuggling and wetland loss despite the 2025 GI tag

    Why in the News

    Kashmir’s ₹700 crore cricket bat industry supports around 50,000 livelihoods, but faces a shortage of quality willow. English willow prices have risen from ₹300 to ₹4,250 per foot since 2021.

    Key Facts

    1. Raw material: Mainly Salix alba (English willow).
    2. Industry: 195 registered manufacturers and around 150 cleft dealers.
    3. Production: Around 30 lakh bats annually.
    4. Trees: Nearly 1.2 lakh mature trees are felled annually.
    5. Maturity: Willow requires about 12 to 15 years to reach harvest maturity.
    6. Smuggling: Over 25 lakh clefts are reportedly smuggled out annually.
    7. GI Tag: Kashmir willow bats received a GI tag in 2025.

    Why is the industry facing a crisis?

    • Scarcity of quality willow
    • Wetland and spring degradation
    • Smuggling of clefts
    • Long 12 to 15 year plantation cycle
    • Inconsistent timber quality

    What does the GI Tag do?

    • Protects the Kashmir willow name from misuse.
    • Enhances product reputation and market value.
    • Provides legal protection to registered producers.
    • Does not increase willow supply or shorten the growth cycle.

    Government Response

    • Plantation of 2.2 lakh willow trees across 200 hectares.
    • Introduction of improved willow clones.
    • Identification of new plantation sites.
    • Greater farmer participation and scientific plantation management.

    Prelims Pointers

    • GI Act: Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
    • First Indian GI: Darjeeling Tea, 2004.
    • GI validity: 10 years, renewable indefinitely.
    • GI ownership: Collective, not individually transferable.
    • Kashmir willow species: Salix alba.

    [2018] India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
    (a) ILO
    (b) IMF
    (c) UNCTAD
    (d) WTO

  • Draft rules under the SHANTI Act open nuclear power to captive industrial use and a composite licence

    Why in the News

    The Department of Atomic Energy released draft rules under the Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act on 14 August 2026, opening nuclear power generation to private and captive users. Comments are invited until 4 September 2026.

    What is the SHANTI Act?

    • Replaces the earlier state monopoly framework with a licensing regime for non-government operators.
    • Covers private participation, captive generation, foreign reactor technology, safety and nuclear liability.
    • Provides a single composite licence for building, owning, operating and decommissioning a reactor.

    Key Provisions

    1. Captive nuclear power: Industries can generate nuclear electricity mainly for their own consumption.
    2. In-principle approval: Allows land acquisition and vendor negotiations before final licensing.
    3. Foreign technology: Imported designs must be certified by the regulator in the country of origin and already operational.
    4. Nuclear liability: Operators must maintain insurance or financial security; a Nuclear Liability Fund is proposed.
    5. Eligible users: Aluminium, cement, data centres, semiconductor fabs and Artificial Intelligence (AI) facilities.

    Key Concern

    • The country-of-origin certification may speed up safety approval but restrict technology sourcing to a few countries. Requiring continued support and retaining Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) with foreign developers could also limit technology transfer and indigenous reactor design.

    India’s Nuclear Programme

    • Stage 1: Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) using natural uranium.
    • Stage 2: Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) using plutonium.
    • Stage 3: Thorium-based reactors using Uranium-233 (U-233).
    • Target: 100 GW nuclear capacity by 2047.

    Challenges

    • Supplier liability concerns
    • Limited regulatory independence
    • Land and public acceptance
    • Uranium and fuel constraints
    • Nuclear waste management
    • High project costs and long construction timelines

    Prelims Pointers

    • DAE: Department of Atomic Energy
    • AERB: Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
    • NPCIL: Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
    • BHAVINI: Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited
    • NPT: Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
    • NSG: Nuclear Suppliers Group
    • India is not a signatory to NPT and received an NSG waiver in 2008.

    [2018, GS3, 15 marks] With growing energy needs should India keep on expanding its nuclear energy programme? Discuss the facts and fears associated with nuclear energy.”

    [2020]  In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA safeguards” while others are not ?

    a) Some use uranium and others use thorium
    b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies
    c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises
    d) Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned

  • WPI inflation eases to 9.78% in July, first month-on-month softening since October 2025

    Why in the News

    Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation eased to 9.78% in July 2026 from 9.87% in June, mainly due to lower fuel and power inflation.

    What is WPI?

    • Measures price changes of goods traded in bulk between businesses.
    • Covers only goods, not services.
    • Three groups: Primary Articles, Fuel & Power, Manufactured Products.
    • Base year: 2011-12.
    • Released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    • Weights: Manufactured Products 64.23%, Primary Articles 22.62%, Fuel & Power 13.15%.

    July 2026 Trends

    • Fuel & Power: 20.05%, down from 27.41%.
    • Manufactured Products: 8.29%, up from 7.48%.
    • Food Articles: 5.44%, marginally down from 5.49%.
    • PPI: Producer Price Index remained at 9.6%.

    WPI vs CPI

    • WPI: Wholesale prices of goods; excludes services.
    • CPI: Retail prices of goods and services; used as India’s inflation-targeting anchor.
    • CPI target: 4% with a tolerance band of ±2%.

    Why is inflation a concern?

    • Imported crude oil shocks
    • Food price volatility
    • Supply-chain constraints
    • Fertiliser import dependence
    • Input cost pressures

    “[2010] With reference to India, consider the following Statements:

    1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only

    2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI (IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

  • White House transshipment report places India in Tier 1 of illegal transshipment risk

    Why in the News

    A White House report, The Great Transshipment Scam, places India in Tier 1 for elevated illegal transshipment risk, alleging that some Chinese goods are routed through India to evade US tariffs.

    Key Definitions

    • Illegal Transshipment: Routing goods through a third country and making minimal changes to disguise their actual country of origin and avoid tariffs.
    • Tariff Arbitrage: Earning a profit by routing goods through a country with a lower tariff.
    • Rules of Origin: Rules used to determine the country of origin of a product, generally based on where substantial transformation occurs.
    • Substantial Transformation: A manufacturing process that changes a product sufficiently to give it a new identity, character or use.
    • Screwdriver Factory: A facility that mainly assembles imported components with minimal domestic value addition.
    • Section 301: US law allowing action against foreign trade practices considered unfair or discriminatory.
    • Trade Diversion: Shifting trade flows from one country or route to another due to tariffs, restrictions or other trade barriers.

    What does the US report allege?

    • India is placed in Tier 1.
    • The Pune, Gujarat and Chennai production belt is specifically mentioned.
    • Pumps and compressors are cited as examples.
    • India, Mexico and Vietnam together accounted for an estimated $67 billion of transshipped goods in 2025.
    • No punitive action has yet been announced.

    Why does it matter for India?

    • Greater scrutiny of Indian exports.
    • China Plus One manufacturing could face stricter origin verification.
    • Dependence on Chinese components may complicate origin claims.
    • Tariff action could affect India’s access to the US market.

    [2025, GS3, 10 marks] What are the challenges before the Indian economy when the world is moving away from free trade and multilateralism to protectionism and bilateralism? How can these challenges be met?”

    [2017] Consider the following statements:
    1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
    2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
    3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1 and 3 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • RBI shuts FCNR(B) dollar-rupee swap window early after $52.3 billion inflow

    Why in the News

    The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will close its special US dollar-rupee swap window for fresh Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) [FCNR(B)] deposits on 31 August 2026, after attracting $52.3 billion.

    What is the FCNR(B) Swap Window?

    1. Banks mobilise fresh 3 to 5 year FCNR(B) deposits in foreign currency.
    2. Banks swap the dollars with the RBI for rupees at a concessional rate.
    3. The RBI returns the dollars when the swap matures.
    4. The concessional rate covers the bank’s hedging cost.

    Key Definitions

    • FCNR(B): Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) term deposit held by NRIs or Persons of Indian Origin in foreign currency.
    • Hedging Cost: Cost incurred to protect against exchange-rate fluctuations.
    • ECB: External Commercial Borrowing, or loans raised by eligible Indian entities from non-resident lenders.
    • OFCB: Overseas Foreign Currency Borrowing, or foreign currency funds borrowed by Indian banks from overseas markets.
    • Balance of Payments (BoP): Record of all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world during a period.

    Why was the window closed early?

    • FCNR(B) route attracted $52.3 billion.
    • Total inflows through the three components reached $56.846 billion by 13 August.
    • High mobilisation indicated strong response.
    • Swaps against already mobilised deposits remain possible until 11 September.

    Impact on Forex Reserves

    • India’s foreign exchange reserves reached around $707 billion as of 7 August, with foreign currency assets driving much of the increase.
    • However, FCNR(B) inflows are debt creating and will eventually require repayment in foreign currency.

    “[2021] Consider the following:

    1. Foreign currency convertible bonds

    2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions

    3. Global depository receipts

    4. Non-resident external deposits.

    Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

    (a) 1, 2 and 3

    (b) 3 only

    (c) 2 and 4

    (d) 1 and 4.

  • States convert free-power subsidy into capital support for rooftop solar under PM Surya Ghar’s Utility-Led Aggregation model

    Why in the News

    States such as Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Bihar are shifting recurring free-power subsidies towards one-time capital support for rooftop solar under the Utility-Led Aggregation (ULA) model.

    What is PM Surya Ghar Yojana?

    • Ministry: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
    • Launch: 13 February 2024
    • Target: 1 crore households with grid-connected rooftop solar by March 2027.
    • Outlay: ₹75,021 crore.
    • Benefit: Up to 300 units of free electricity per month.
    • Central subsidy: ₹30,000/kW up to 2 kW, plus ₹18,000 for the third kW, capped at ₹78,000.
    • Eligibility: Household must have a suitable roof and grid connection.

    What is ULA?

    • Utility-Led Aggregation (ULA) is a model where the distribution company (DISCOM) aggregates household demand and arranges rooftop solar installations at scale.
    • States convert recurring electricity subsidies into one-time capital support for installing solar systems.

    Why the Shift?

    • Reduces recurring State subsidy burden.
    • Creates a 25-year generating asset.
    • Reduces DISCOM’s cost of supplying subsidised daytime electricity.
    • Aggregated procurement can reduce installation costs.

    Current Progress

    • 52 lakh households had installed rooftop systems by 13 August.
    • About 2 lakh of 30 lakh ULA installations are complete.
    • Target: 1 crore households by March 2027.

    Key Definitions

    • Rooftop Solar: Solar photovoltaic system installed on a building roof and connected to the electricity distribution network.
    • Net Metering: Allows surplus rooftop electricity exported to the grid to be adjusted against electricity consumed.
    • DISCOM: Distribution Company responsible for electricity distribution.
    • ALMM: Approved List of Models and Manufacturers for eligible solar modules.

    Challenges

    • Financial stress of DISCOMs
    • High upfront installation costs
    • Limited rooftop access for tenants and apartment residents
    • No battery-storage subsidy
    • Grid and transformer capacity constraints
    • Dependence on imported solar cells and wafers

    “[2025] Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:

    I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

    II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.

    III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    (a) I and II only

    (b) I and III only

    (c) II and III only

    (d) I, II and III.

  • Seven-judge Bench to weigh privileges against free speech

    Why in the News

    A seven-judge Constitution Bench will hear from 6 October 2026 whether legislative privileges override the freedom of speech. The reference revives a dispute from the 2003 attempt by the Tamil Nadu Assembly to arrest journalists over a critical editorial.

    What is the constitutional question?

    1. Privilege versus speech: Whether privileges under Article 194 can override Article 19(1)(a) free speech.
    2. Interplay of Articles: The case engages Articles 194(3), 19, and 21 together.
    3. Origin: It stems from a 2003 Assembly resolution to arrest newspaper journalists.

    What are legislative privileges?

    1. Definition: Special rights of a legislature and its members to function without external interference.
    2. Article 194: Grants privileges to state legislatures, mirroring Article 105 for Parliament.
    3. Uncodified: Privileges remain largely uncodified, drawing on British parliamentary practice.

    Why is the tension unresolved?

    1. Two rights collide: A legislature’s authority to punish for contempt sits against a citizen’s free speech.
    2. Judicial review scope: Whether courts can review a House’s exercise of privilege is itself disputed.
    3. Chilling effect: Broad privilege can deter press criticism of legislatures.

    “[2023, GS2, 10] Discuss the role of Presiding Officers of state legislatures in maintaining order and impartiality in conducting legislative work and in facilitating best democratic practices.”

    [2017] Which one of the following statements is correct?

    [A] Rights are absolute and can never be restricted by the State.

    [B] Rights are legally enforceable claims that individuals have against the State

    [C] Rights are privileges granted by the government that can be revoked at any time.

    [D] Rights are moral values that do not require legal protection.

  • FCRA Bill goes to a Joint Parliamentary Committee

    Why in the News

    The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC). The referral has renewed attention on how parliamentary committees shape legislation.

    What is a Joint Parliamentary Committee?

    1. Ad hoc committee: A JPC is set up for a specific bill or inquiry and dissolves after it reports.
    2. Composition: Members are drawn from both Houses, in proportion to party strength.
    3. Recommendations: Its recommendations are advisory, not binding on the government.

    Why does the committee route matter?

    1. Scrutiny space: Committees allow detailed, less partisan examination away from the floor.
    2. Declining use: Bills referred to committees fell from about 71% in the 15th Lok Sabha to about 16% in the 17th.
    3. Delay lever: Referral can also defer a contentious bill.

    What is contested in the FCRA amendment?

    1. Foreign funding control: The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 governs foreign donations to NGOs and associations.
    2. Civil society concern: Tighter rules are opposed as constraining non-governmental organisations and religious bodies.

    Conclusion

    The referral subjects a contested bill to committee scrutiny without settling it. The current status is examination by the JPC, with its report the next milestone.

    Back2Basics: Parliamentary Committees

    1. Standing committees: Permanent bodies such as the Public Accounts Committee and departmental committees.
    2. Ad hoc committees: Temporary bodies such as a JPC or a Select Committee.
    3. Financial committees: Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings.

    “[2023, GS2, 15] Explain the structure of the Parliamentary Committee system. How far have the financial committees helped in the institutionalization of Indian Parliament?”

    [2018] With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws etc. conferred by the constitution of delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

    (a) Committee on Government Assurances

    (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

    (c) Rules Committee

    (d) Business Advisory Committee

  • Can Parliament remove a judge who has resigned?

    Why in the News

    A parliamentary inquiry committee found all three charges proved against a former High Court judge, including failure to explain cash recovered from his residence and interference with evidence. The issue is whether the removal process can continue after his resignation.

    Removal of Judges: Constitutional Framework

    1. Article 124(4): Supreme Court judges can be removed only for proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
    2. Article 217: Deals with the tenure and removal of High Court judges.
    3. Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968: Provides the inquiry mechanism and formulation of charges.
    4. Parliamentary approval: Removal requires a special majority in each House, in the same session.
    5. Final step: After Parliament passes the address, the President issues the removal order.

    What did the Inquiry Committee Find?

    • All three charges were proved.
    • The judge failed to satisfactorily explain the cash recovered from his residence.
    • The committee found attempts to interfere with evidence.

    Key Constitutional Issue After Resignation

    • Removal is primarily linked to holding judicial office.
    • Resignation ends the judge’s tenure, creating a question about whether Parliament can still complete the removal process.
    • Possible consequences involving pension or future disqualification make the issue constitutionally significant.
    • There is no settled precedent on completing the removal process against a judge who has already resigned.

    Prelims Facts

    • Ground for removal → Proved misbehaviour or incapacity
    • High Court judge → Article 217
    • Supreme Court judge → Article 124
    • Inquiry procedure → Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
    • Removal requires → Special majority in both Houses
    • Final removal order → President
    • Policy disagreement → Not a ground for removal
    • Historical fact → No Indian judge has so far been removed after completion of the parliamentary removal process.

    “[2025, GS2, 15] “Constitutional morality is the fulcrum which acts as an essential check upon the high functionaries and citizens alike…” In view of the above observation of the Supreme Court, explain the concept of constitutional morality and its application to ensure balance between judicial independence and judicial accountability in India.”

    [2021] With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
    1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the president of India.
    2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • Anti-paper-leak law amended amid exam-integrity protests

    Why in the News

    The Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 seeks to strengthen the 2024 law against organised cheating and examination paper leaks amid concerns over NEET and recruitment examination irregularities.

    What is the Public Examination Act, 2024?

    1. Objective: Criminalises organised cheating, paper leaks, impersonation and other unfair means.
    2. Coverage: Applies to major public examinations conducted by bodies such as UPSC, SSC and NTA.
    3. Penalties: Provides imprisonment and heavy fines for organised examination malpractice.
    4. Focus: Targets organised networks rather than genuine candidate errors.

    Why was it amended?

    • Exam-leak crisis: Repeated paper leaks and irregularities exposed weaknesses in examination governance.
    • Enforcement gaps: Strengthening was considered necessary after experience with the 2024 framework.
    • Public trust: Fair examinations are essential for merit-based recruitment and equal opportunity.

    What does the crisis reveal?

    • Aspiration-opportunity gap: Large numbers of candidates compete for limited government jobs.
    • Institutional trust deficit: Repeated leaks undermine confidence in recruitment institutions.
    • Governance challenge: Legal punishment alone cannot ensure examination integrity without secure technology, accountable agencies and speedy investigation.

    Prelims Pointers

    • Act: Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
    • Ministry/Department: Department of Personnel and Training
    • Targets: Organised cheating, paper leaks and impersonation
    • Important distinction: The Act does not automatically cover all university or State board examinations unless the concerned government adopts the framework.

    “[2024, GS2, 15] What are the aims and objects of the recently passed and enforced, The Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024? Whether University/State Education Board examinations, too, are covered under the Act?”

    [2021] With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
    1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
    2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2