💥UPSC 2026, 2027, 2028 UAP Mentorship (March Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

Type: Prelims Only

  • Climate Change Impact on India and World – International Reports, Key Observations, etc.

    Behind an early summer is a lack of winter rains

    Why in the News?

    An unusual surge in temperatures across north and north-western India during February-March has raised concerns about shifting seasonal patterns. Several regions recorded temperatures 8-13°C above normal, bringing heat-wave-like conditions weeks before the usual onset of summer. The phenomenon has been linked to deficient winter rainfall and weak Western Disturbances, which are critical for regulating winter climate in north India. 

    Why is India witnessing unusually high temperatures early this year?

    1. Temperature Anomaly: Several regions recorded temperatures 8-13°C above normal, reaching heat-wave-like conditions in February-March.
    2. Early Heat Conditions: Warm weather replaced cool winter days earlier than usual in northern and western India.
    3. Rare Occurrence: A similar situation occurred three years ago, but such an early onset of summer remains relatively uncommon.
    4. Regional Evidence:
      1. Shimla: 25.3°C (March 2026, highest recorded till March 8).
      2. Pahalgam: 22.7°C.
      3. Gulmarg: 17.2°C.
      4. Srinagar: 24.7°C.

    Climatological Significance: Heat waves are generally uncommon in high-altitude regions such as Shimla in March.

    How did weak Western Disturbances influence the winter climate?

    1. Western Disturbances: East-moving rain-bearing weather systems originating beyond Iran and drawing moisture from the Mediterranean Sea and other water bodies.
    2. Seasonal Importance: These systems normally bring winter rainfall and snowfall across northern India.
    3. Deficiency Since November 2025: Reduced frequency and intensity of Western Disturbances led to lower winter precipitation.
    4. IMD Observation: Meteorologists noted lack of wind convergence between westerly and easterly winds, reducing moisture transport into north and central India.
    5. Temperature Regulation: Winter precipitation normally moderates temperatures by maintaining soil moisture and atmospheric cooling.

    Why was the winter of 2026 considered unusually dry?

    1. Rainfall Deficit: All-India rainfall during January-February was only 16 mm, which is 60% below normal.
    2. Historical Context: February 2026 became the third driest February since 1901.
    3. Snowfall Decline: Both snowfall and rainfall remained subdued across Himalayan regions.
    4. Meteorological Cause: Persistent lack of favourable weather systems during winter months.

    How does a dry winter accelerate the onset of summer?

    1. Soil Moisture Deficit: Reduced rainfall leaves soil dry and unable to moderate temperature increases.
    2. Evaporation Mechanism: Moist soils normally evaporate moisture before heating up, delaying temperature rise.
    3. Rapid Surface Heating: Dry soils heat faster, increasing land surface temperature and accelerating summer conditions.
    4. Climate Feedback: Dry land conditions amplify regional warming and heat stress.

    What are the implications for agriculture and water resources?

    1. Impact on Rabi Crops: Sudden temperature spikes affect mustard, wheat, gram, groundnut, sesame, sorghum, and sunflower.
    2. Horticulture Stress: Crops such as potatoes and apples may suffer due to heat stress.
    3. Irrigation Demand: Farmers have been advised to increase irrigation frequency to maintain soil moisture.
    4. Water Resource Pressure: Increased irrigation demand may strain local groundwater and water reserves.

    What do temperature records indicate about changing climatic patterns?

    1. Temperature Extremes: High temperatures in Himalayan regions during early March indicate increasing climate variability.
    2. Comparison with Past Years:
      1. 2026: Shimla 25.3°C, Pahalgam 22.7°C, Gulmarg 17.2°C, Srinagar 24.7°C.
      2. 2025: Shimla 24.4°C, Pahalgam 20.4°C.
      3. 2024: Shimla 24.8°C.
    3. Climate Signal: Frequent anomalies suggest greater unpredictability in seasonal transitions.

    Conclusion

    The early onset of summer in India highlights the critical role of winter rainfall and Western Disturbances in maintaining seasonal balance. Reduced precipitation has accelerated land heating and increased agricultural vulnerability. Strengthening climate monitoring, improving irrigation management, and integrating seasonal forecasting into agricultural planning are essential to mitigate the impacts of such climatic anomalies.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2017] Climate Change’ is a global problem. How will India be affected by climate change? How will Himalayan and coastal states of India be affected?

    Linkage: The early onset of summer due to weak winter rains and Western Disturbances reflects climate variability affecting Himalayan regions, highlighting changing temperature and precipitation patterns.

  • Opposition Considers Impeachment Motion Against CEC Gyanesh Kumar

    Why in the News

    • Opposition parties, including the Indian National Congress and All India Trinamool Congress, are discussing the possibility of moving an impeachment motion against Gyanesh Kumar in Parliament.
    • Congress leader K C Venugopal stated that the entire Opposition will take a collective decision on the proposal.

    Impeachment Process of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)

    • The removal procedure is provided under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
    • Grounds for Removal: The Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed on grounds similar to those of a Supreme Court judge, mainly: Proved misbehaviour and Incapacity.

    Step-by-Step Process

    • Notice of Motion: A removal motion must be signed by:
      • At least 100 members of the Lok Sabha, or
      • At least 50 members of the Rajya Sabha.
    • Admission of Motion
      • The motion is submitted to the Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
      • They may accept or reject the motion.
    • Investigation: If admitted, an investigative committee is formed to examine the charges.
    • Parliamentary Voting: If the committee finds the charges valid, the motion is debated and voted upon in both Houses.
    • Special Majority Required: Removal requires:
      • Majority of total membership of the House, and
      • Two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
    • Final Removal: After both Houses pass the motion, the President of India issues the removal order.
    [2017] Consider the following statements: The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
  • ISRO Missions and Discoveries

    FSI Stops AI-Based Deforestation Alerts to States

    Why in the News

    The Forest Survey of India (FSI) has stopped issuing fortnightly deforestation alerts through its AI-based Anavaran Deforestation Alert System. The portal has not been updated since November 2025.

    What was the Anavaran System?

    • An AI and satellite-based monitoring system launched in January 2024.
    • Provided deforestation alerts every 15 days to states.
    • Alerts included precise geographic coordinates where forest cover loss was detected.

    Purpose:

    • Enable quick field inspections by forest officials.
    • Improve near-real-time monitoring of deforestation.

    Technology Used

    The system used remote sensing and machine learning:

    • Google Earth Engine
    • Sentinel-2
    • Sentinel-1

    Features:

    • Optical satellite imagery (Sentinel-2).
    • Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) data from Sentinel-1 for cloudy or monsoon conditions.
    • Machine learning algorithms compared before-and-after images to detect forest loss.

    Performance of the System

    • 12,351 alerts issued between Jan 2024 and Oct 2025.
    • Average alerts per month: 561
    • Alerts increased to 1,028 per month during Nov–March, when deforestation peaks.

    Why Alerts Were Stopped

    • According to FSI officials:
      • The system was only a pilot project.
      • The government is currently reviewing feedback from states on its usefulness.
      • Active monitoring reportedly stopped in January 2026.

    Comparison with Global Systems

    • The system was considered similar to Terra‑I, used in countries like Peru. However, Anavaran had higher spatial resolution:
      • 10–20 metre resolution (Sentinel satellites)
      • Terra-I: 250 metre resolution

    Other Forest Monitoring Systems in India

    • Van Agni Portal
    • Fire alerts using satellite data have been operational since 2004.
    [2015] In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? 1. Assessment of crop productivity 2. Locating ground water resources 3. Mineral exploration 4. Telecommunications 5. Traffic studies Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
  • Foreign Policy Watch: India-Iran

    Mojtaba Khamenei Becomes Iran’s New Supreme Leader

    Why in the News

    The Assembly of Experts has appointed Mojtaba Khamenei as the new Supreme Leader of Iran following the death of former leader Ali Khamenei in a U.S.–Israeli strike.

    Key Highlights

    • Age: 57
    • Position: Third Supreme Leader of Iran.
    • Predecessors:
      1. Ruhollah Khomeini (1979–1989)
      2. Ali Khamenei (1989–2026)

    Role of the Supreme Leader in Iran

    • The Supreme Leader is the highest authority in Iran’s political system.
    • Key powers include:
      • Head of state
      • Commander-in-chief of armed forces
      • Control over the judiciary, military, and security agencies
      • Influence over foreign and defence policy
      • Ability to appoint key officials and veto decisions
    • Although Iran elects a President, the Supreme Leader holds ultimate authority.
    [2016] Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’? (a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia (c) Oman (d) Kuwait
  • Economic Indicators and Various Reports On It- GDP, FD, EODB, WIR etc

    250 Years of The Wealth of Nations: Adam Smith’s Lessons

    Why in the News

    The famous economics book An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations completed 250 years on March 9, 2026. The work by Adam Smith continues to influence debates on free trade, taxation, monopolies, and economic inequality.

    About The Wealth of Nations

    • Published in 1776, during the Scottish Enlightenment.
    • Considered the foundational text of classical economics.
    • Analyses the sources of national wealth, labour productivity, trade, and markets.
      • Smith is often called the “father of modern economics”.

    Key Economic Ideas of Adam Smith

    • Division of Labour: Specialisation improves productivity.
      • Example used by Smith: pin factory, where each worker performs a specific task to increase output.
    • Free Markets: Economic activity works best when individuals pursue self-interest within competitive markets.
    • The “Invisible Hand”: Individuals pursuing their own interest can unintentionally benefit society as a whole. Markets allocate resources efficiently without heavy government intervention.
    • Free Trade: Smith criticised mercantilism, the idea that countries should maximise exports and minimise imports.
    • He argued that:
    • Trade allows nations to specialise in what they produce efficiently.
    • Greater trade leads to mutual prosperity.
    [2011] What does the term “economic liberalization” refer to in the context of the Indian economy? (a) Expansion of the public sector (b) Restriction of foreign investment (c) Removal of restrictions on private sector and encouragement of free market policies (d) Increase in trade barriers
  • RBI Notifications

    RBI Conducts OMO Purchase to Inject Liquidity

    Why in the News

    The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducted Open Market Operations (OMO) purchase of Government Securities worth ₹50,000 crore to inject liquidity into the banking system. Another tranche of ₹50,000 crore is scheduled shortly.

    Key Highlights

    • Amount purchased: ₹50,000 crore worth of Government Securities (G-Secs).
    • Total planned purchase: ₹1,00,000 crore in two tranches.
    • Maturity range of securities:
      • 6.01% G-Sec maturing 2030
      • 7.30% G-Sec maturing 2053

    Purpose:

    • Inject liquidity into the banking system.
    • Offset liquidity shortage caused by advance tax payments.
    • Ensure banks have sufficient funds for lending.

    What are Open Market Operations (OMO)?

    • Open Market Operations are a key monetary policy tool used by the RBI.
    • Definition: Buying or selling government securities in the open market to regulate money supply and liquidity.
    • If RBI buys G-Secs
      • Injects liquidity
      • Increases money supply
      • Encourages lending
    • If RBI sells G-Secs
      • Absorbs liquidity
      • Reduces money supply

    Additional Measures

    • The Government of India conducted a switch auction, buying back ₹6,309 crore of G-Secs and issuing ₹6,431 crore of new bonds.
    • These operations help manage the government’s debt maturity profile.
    [2013] In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to: (a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI (b) lending by commercial banks to industry and trade (c) purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI (d) None of the above
  • Wildlife Conservation Efforts

    Cheetah Population in India Crosses 50 Under Project Cheetah

    Why in the News

    A Namibian cheetah Jwala gave birth to five cubs at Kuno National Park, taking India’s total cheetah population to 53. The development is a major milestone under Project Cheetah.

    Key Highlights

    • Five cubs born to Namibian cheetah Jwala.
    • Recently, another cheetah Gamini delivered four cubs at the same park.
    • Total cheetah population in India: 53.
    • Indian-born cubs: 33.
    • Successful litters in India: 10.

    About Project Cheetah

    • Launched on 17 September 2022 by Narendra Modi.
    • Eight cheetahs were translocated from Namibia to Kuno National Park.
    • Aim: Reintroduce cheetahs in India after extinction.

    Background

    • Cheetahs became extinct in India in 1952 due to hunting and habitat loss.
    • The species is the fastest land animal.

    Objectives of the Programme

    • Restore the cheetah population in India.
    • Re-establish a functional grassland ecosystem.
    • Promote wildlife tourism and conservation awareness.
    • Improve genetic diversity and species recovery.
    [2024] Consider the following statements: Lions do not have a particular breeding season. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  • New Species of Plants and Animals Discovered

    Silent Valley Bird Survey

    Why in the News
    A recent bird survey in Silent Valley National Park recorded 192 bird species, highlighting the park’s rich avian biodiversity.

    Key Findings

    • Survey dates: March 6 to 8, 2026
    • Organisers:
      • Kerala Forest Department
      • Malabar Natural History Society
    • Participants: About 85 birdwatchers from Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
    • Covered both core and buffer zones of the park.

    Important Observations

    • Total species recorded: 192 bird species
    • Rare migratory birds: Asian house martin and Western house martin. 

    Endemic Western Ghats species recorded:

    • Nilgiri laughingthrush
    • Black-and-orange flycatcher
    • White-bellied treepie
    • Nilgiri pipit
    • White-bellied blue flycatcher
    • Nilgiri sholakili (Nilgiri blue robin)

    About Silent Valley National Park

    • Located in Palakkad.
    • Part of the Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot.
    • Known for tropical evergreen forests and high endemism.
    [2020] With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Graychinned minivet and White-throated redstart are: (a) Birds (b) Primates (c) Reptiles (d) Amphibians
  • Chile Eliminates Leprosy

    Why in the News

    The World Health Organization (WHO) and the Pan American Health Organization (PAHO) have officially verified Chile as the first country in the Americas and the second globally to eliminate leprosy as a public health problem.

    Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease)

    • A chronic infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae.
    • Primarily affects:
      • Skin
      • Peripheral nerves
      • Upper respiratory tract mucosa
      • Eyes
    • If untreated, it can cause permanent nerve damage and disability.

    Transmission

    • Spread through respiratory droplets from the nose and mouth of untreated patients.
    • Requires close and prolonged contact.
    • Not highly contagious.

    Incubation Period

    • Very long incubation period.
    • Average: ~5 years, but symptoms may appear up to 20 years later.

    Symptoms

    • Pale or reddish skin patches with loss of sensation
    • Numbness and nerve damage
    • Muscle weakness in hands and feet
    • Painless ulcers on soles of feet
    • Eye damage in severe cases

    Treatment

    • Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) provided free worldwide by WHO.
    • Combination of medicines:
      • Rifampicin
      • Dapsone
      • Clofazimine
    • 100% curable if treated early.
    • Early treatment prevents disability.
    [2014] Consider the following diseases: Diphtheria  Chickenpox  Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India? (a) 1 and 2 only  (b) 3 only  (c) 1, 2 and 3 only  (d) None of the above
  • NPA Crisis

    Farm Loan Waivers Return: Impact on Credit Culture

    Why in the News

    The Maharashtra government has announced a ₹35,000 crore farm loan waiver scheme, raising concerns from economists and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) about its impact on credit culture and state finances.

    Key Features of the Maharashtra Scheme

    • Total cost: ~₹35,000 crore
    • Beneficiaries: ~30 lakh farmers
      • 20 lakh non-defaulters will receive an ₹50,000 incentive for timely repayment.
    • Cost breakdown:
      • ₹20,000 crore for loan waiver of defaulters
      • ₹15,000 crore incentive for regular borrowers

    Why Governments Announce Farm Loan Waivers

    • Reduce farmers’ debt burden
    • Provide relief during agrarian distress
    • Enable farmers to restart productive investment
      • However, economists argue that such schemes often fail to provide long-term solutions.

    Major Farm Loan Waiver Schemes in India

    National Schemes

    1. Agricultural and Rural Debt Relief Scheme (ARDRS), 1990
      • Covered loans from public sector banks and regional rural banks.
      • Maximum relief ₹10,000 per farmer.
    2. Agricultural Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme (ADWDRS), 2008
      • Covered banks and cooperative credit institutions.
      • Focus on small and marginal farmers (≤5 acres).

    Total spending on waivers in last 35 years: over ₹3 lakh crore.

    Trend Since 2014

    • Farm loan waivers increased significantly after 2014–15.
    • 10 states announced waivers worth about ₹2.4 lakh crore.
    • Many announcements occurred close to elections, according to RBI.

    RBI’s Concerns

    • Weakening of Credit Culture: Farmers may delay repayment expecting future waivers. Creates moral hazard in the credit system.
    • Reduced Agricultural Lending: Banks become reluctant to provide fresh loans.
    • Rise in NPAs: Agricultural sector gross NPAs reached about 8.44% (2019).
    • Fiscal Burden on States: Waiver costs can reach 0.1% to 2% of state GSDP. Payments often spread over 3–5 years, affecting budgets.
  • Festivals, Dances, Theatre, Literature, Art in News

    Khelo India Tribal Games 2026

    Why in the News

    The first-ever Khelo India Tribal Games (KITG) will be held from March 25 to April 6, 2026 in Chhattisgarh, announced by Union Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya.

    Key Details

    • Host Cities: Raipur, Jagdalpur, and Surguja
    • Participants: Tribal athletes from most States and Union Territories of India.

    Sports in the Games

    • Medal Sports (7): Athletics, Football, Hockey, Weightlifting, Archery, Swimming, and Wrestling. 
    • Demonstration Sports: Mallakhamb and Kabaddi

    Organising Bodies

    • Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
    • Sports Authority of India
    • Indian Olympic Association
    • National Sports Federations and the Chhattisgarh State Organising Committee.

    Mascot

    • “Morveer”
    • Derived from “Mor” (mine/our) and “Veer” (brave) in Chhattisgarhi.
    • Symbolises pride, courage and identity of tribal communities.

    Note: A mascot is a person, animal, or object adopted by a group—such as a sports team, school, or brand—to represent them, foster a public identity, and bring good luck.

    Significance

    • First national sports event dedicated exclusively to tribal athletes.
    • Aims to identify and nurture talent from tribal regions.
    • Strengthens grassroots sports under the Khelo India Scheme.

    Prelims Pointers

    • Khelo India Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 2018.
    • The Khelo India Games were declared an “Event of National Importance” in 2020 under the Sports Broadcasting Signals Act, 2007.
    [2023] Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
  • ISRO Missions and Discoveries

    BEL–Bellatrix Partnership to Develop VLEO Satellite Systems

    Why in the News

    India’s defence PSU Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and space-tech startup Bellatrix Aerospace have signed an MoU to jointly develop Very Low Earth Orbit (VLEO) satellite systems.

    What is VLEO (Very Low Earth Orbit)?

    • Altitude: About 150 km to 450 km above Earth.
    • Lower than Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellites.
    • Satellites experience thin atmospheric drag, requiring propulsion systems to maintain orbit.

    How VLEO Satellites Work

    • At low altitude, satellites face aerodynamic drag from the upper atmosphere.
    • Advanced propulsion systems provide continuous thrust to maintain orbital position.
    • Bellatrix will use electric/green propulsion technologies for station-keeping.

    Key Features of VLEO Systems

    • High-Resolution Imaging: Closer proximity to Earth enables sub-meter imaging using smaller sensors.
    • Ultra-Low Latency Communication: Shorter signal distance enables faster data transmission and real-time communication.
    • Lower Launch Costs: Lower orbit requires less fuel to deploy satellites.
    • Reduced Space Debris: Failed satellites naturally re-enter and burn up due to atmospheric drag.

    Aim of the Partnership

    • Develop indigenous VLEO satellite platforms and payloads.
    • Provide solutions for defence and civilian applications.
    • Combine PSU manufacturing capability with startup innovation.

    Strategic Significance

    • Strengthens India’s self-reliance in space technology.
    • Enables high-resolution surveillance and intelligence gathering.
    • Useful for:
      • Border monitoring
      • Earth observation
      • Real-time communication systems.

    Prelims Pointers

    • Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) operates under the Ministry of Defence.
    • Bellatrix Aerospace develops satellite propulsion systems.
    • VLEO satellites orbit at lower altitude than conventional Earth-observation satellites, offering improved imaging and reduced debris risk.
    [2011] An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth (a) does not exist at such a distance. (b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon. (c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion. (d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion

  • Foreign Policy Watch: India-Middle East

    India Taps Alternative Crude Supplies

    Why in the News
    Due to the West Asia conflict affecting shipments through the Strait of Hormuz, India is securing crude oil from alternative sources.

    Key Points:

    • India imports about 88% of its crude oil needs; nearly half normally passes through the Strait of Hormuz.
    • Indian refiners are sourcing additional crude from:
      • United States
      • Russia
      • West Africa and Latin America.
    • Refineries have deferred maintenance shutdowns to maintain supply buffers.
    • A 30-day U.S. waiver (till April 5) allows delivery of already-loaded Russian oil cargoes to India.
    • Around 120 million barrels of Russian crude are currently in transit globally, some near India.

    Concerns:

    • Alternative routes may increase freight and insurance costs.
    • Rising oil prices could increase India’s import bill, widen the current account deficit, and pressure the rupee.
    • Every $10 rise in crude prices may raise inflation by ~20–25 basis points.
    [2011] In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? It is a major classification of crude oil. It is sourced from the North Sea. It does not contain sulphur. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  • Foreign Policy Watch: India-United States

    F-1 Visas for Indian Students Drop

    Why in the News?
    Data from the United States Department of State shows a 69% fall in F-1 visas issued to Indian students in June–July 2025 compared to 2024.

    Key Points:

    • F-1 visa: Non-immigrant visa for international students studying in the U.S.
    • Visas issued to Indians fell from 41,336 (2024) to 12,776 (2025) during the peak admission period.
    • Decline followed stricter immigration measures under Donald Trump’s administration, including:
      • Temporary pause in visa interviews
      • Expanded social media screening for applicants.
    • Chinese students also saw a decline, but smaller (about 56%).
    • Despite the drop, Indians remain the largest international student group in the U.S., with about 3.63 lakh students (31%) in 2024-25.

    F-1 Visa

    • The F-1 visa is a non immigrant student visa issued by the United States that allows foreign students to study full time at accredited academic institutions in the United States.
    • It is the most common visa for international students pursuing higher education in the U.S.
    [2018] Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital. 2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country. 3. accumulation of tangible wealth. 4. accumulation of intangible wealth.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2  (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
  • Forest Conservation Efforts – NFP, Western Ghats, etc.

    Aravalli Definition Case: Amicus Says Panel “Suppressed” FSI Views

    Why in the News

    In the ongoing Aravalli definition case, the Amicus Curiae assisting the Supreme Court of India has alleged that a committee led by the Secretary of the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) suppressed the views of the Forest Survey of India (FSI) while recommending a new definition of the Aravalli Range.

    About Amicus Curiae is a Latin term meaning “friend of the court.”It refers to a person or lawyer appointed by a court to assist it in deciding a case, especially when the court requires additional expertise, independent opinion, or legal clarification.

    Key Allegations by the Amicus Curiae

    1. FSI’s views ignored: The committee report allegedly did not include the FSI’s warning that the proposed definition would exclude most Aravalli hills.
    2. 100-metre elevation criterion questioned
      • The committee proposed defining Aravalli hills as landforms with 100 m elevation above local relief.
      • FSI reportedly warned that this could exclude nearly 90% of the Aravalli landforms from protection.
    3. Procedural issues in the report: The report was described as “unsigned and undated.”
      • It was not placed before or approved by the Central Empowered Committee (CEC).
    4. Risk of weaker environmental protection: The definition may exclude many low-height hills, potentially allowing mining or construction in sensitive areas.
    [2017] Consider the following statements: In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only. Western Ghats are spread over five States only. 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only  (b) 3 only  (c) 2 and 3 only  (d) 1 and 3 only
  • Foreign Policy Watch: India-Iran

    West Asia War May Hit India’s Gem and Jewellery Industry

    Why in the News

    The ongoing conflict involving Iran, Israel and the United States in West Asia is expected to disrupt supply chains and trade for India’s gem and jewellery sector, according to the Gem and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC).

    Why the Industry is Vulnerable

    • Heavy Dependence on GCC Region
      • India’s gem and jewellery trade relies strongly on the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries.
      • GCC share in India’s exports increased from 14% in FY22 to about 22% in FY25.
      • During April–December 2025, the share rose to 36%.
    • Major markets include: United Arab Emirates and Saudi Arabia
    • UAE as a Key Trade Hub
      • The UAE plays a crucial role in India’s jewellery trade.
      • Supplies rough diamonds and bullion to India.
      • Major centre for diamond trade in Dubai.
      • Accounts for a large share of gold bar imports to India.

    Trade Data Highlights

    • India’s gem and jewellery exports to GCC grew from $5.1 billion (FY22) to $8.3 billion (FY25).
    • Imports from GCC rose from $16 billion to $28 billion during the same period.
    • GCC countries supply over 30% of India’s jewellery imports.
    [2016] Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’? 
    (a) Iran 
    (b) Saudi Arabia 
    (c) Oman 
    (d) Kuwait
  • Food Procurement and Distribution – PDS & NFSA, Shanta Kumar Committee, FCI restructuring, Buffer stock, etc.

    Centre Directs Refiners to Maximise LPG Production

    Why in the News

    The Government of India invoked the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 to direct oil refiners to maximise production of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) and prioritise domestic cooking gas supply amid disruptions in global energy supply chains.

    About Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (ECA)The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (ECA) is a law enacted by the Government of India to ensure the availability of essential goods to consumers at fair prices and prevent hoarding, black marketing, and artificial scarcity.Amendment and Reforms (2020)In 2020, the government introduced reforms to liberalise agricultural markets.Key changes:Cereals, pulses, oilseeds, edible oils, onions, and potatoes were removed from the list of essential commodities under normal circumstances.Stock limits can be imposed only under extraordinary situations such as: War, Famine, and Extraordinary price rise.

    Key Government Directive

    • All oil refining companies must use propane and butane streams primarily for LPG production.
    • Refiners are not allowed to divert propane or butane for:
      • Petrochemical products
      • Other downstream industrial uses.
    • LPG produced must be supplied to public sector oil marketing companies.

    Major public sector oil marketing companies include:

    • Indian Oil Corporation Limited
    • Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
    • Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
    • These companies will distribute LPG only to domestic consumers.
    [2010] Consider the following statements: The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2  (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  • Air Pollution

    204 of 238 Indian Cities Failed to Meet Air Quality Standards

    Why in the News

    A report by the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA) analysing Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) data found that 204 out of 238 Indian cities exceeded national air quality standards during winter 2025–26.

    Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA)Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA) is an independent international research organisation that focuses on energy, air pollution, and climate change analysis. It is widely cited in global media and policy discussions for its data-driven assessments of fossil fuel use, emissions, and air quality impacts.

    Key Findings of the Report

    • Most Polluted Cities
      • Top cities with the highest PM2.5 concentration: Ghaziabad – 172 µg/m³, Noida – 166 µg/m³, and Delhi – 163 µg/m³
      • Other highly polluted cities include: Greater Noida, Bahadurgarh, Dharuhera, Gurugram, Bhiwadi, Charkhi Dadri, and Baghpat.
      • Most cities in the top 10 are from Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.
    • Megacity Air Pollution Levels
    • Average PM2.5 concentrations in major Indian cities:
      • Delhi – 163 µg/m³
      • Kolkata – 78 µg/m³
      • Mumbai – 48 µg/m³
      • Chennai – 44 µg/m³
      • Bengaluru – 39 µg/m³ (slightly below national limit)
    • Cleanest City
      • The cleanest city recorded was: Chamarajanagar – 19 µg/m³
      • Eight of the ten cleanest cities were in Karnataka, with one each in Madhya Pradesh and Meghalaya.

    PM2.5 Explained

    PM2.5 (Particulate Matter ≤2.5 micrometers)

    • Extremely fine particles in the air.
    • Can enter lungs and bloodstream.
    • Causes: Respiratory diseases, Heart disease, and Premature deaths.

    Prelims Pointers

    • CPCB functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
    • National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) specify permissible pollutant levels in India.
    • PM2.5 is considered one of the most dangerous air pollutants due to its ability to penetrate deep into the respiratory system.
    [2022] In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
  • Foreign Policy Watch: India-Iran

    Sinking of Iranian Warship: Maritime Law Governing Naval Conflict

    Why in the News

    An Iranian warship IRIS Dena was reportedly torpedoed by a US submarine in the Indian Ocean near Sri Lanka after participating in the MILAN 2026 and the International Fleet Review at Visakhapatnam. The incident has sparked debate about the legal framework governing naval warfare in international waters.

    Key Legal Framework Governing Maritime Conflict

    1. UNCLOS (United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea)

    • United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea regulates maritime zones, navigation rights and ocean governance.
    • It mainly governs peacetime maritime activities.
    • It does not directly regulate wartime naval operations.
    • Notably, the United States is not a signatory to UNCLOS.

    2. Law of Naval Warfare

    • During armed conflict, naval warfare laws operate alongside UNCLOS.
    • Key principles include:
      • Warships of enemy states can be legitimate military targets.
      • The laws of armed conflict at sea regulate blockades, attacks, and treatment of vessels.

    3. UN Charter and Use of Force

    • The United Nations Charter provides rules for the use of force.
    • Article 2(4): Prohibits the use of force against another state.
    • Article 51: Allows self-defence in response to an armed attack.

    4. UN Security Council Authorization

    • Under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, the United Nations Security Council can authorise the use of force.
    • However:
      • Requires majority approval.
      • None of the permanent members must use their veto.

    Maritime Zones Relevant to the Incident

    1. Territorial Sea – up to 12 nautical miles from coast (full sovereignty).
    2. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) – up to 200 nautical miles where coastal states have economic rights.
    3. High Seas – international waters beyond national jurisdiction. The attack reportedly occurred in the EEZ of Sri Lanka.
    [2022] With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  • Foreign Policy Watch: India-Iran

    West Asia Conflict May Slow India’s Growth More Than Inflation

    Why in the News

    The ongoing conflict involving Iran, Israel and the United States has pushed up oil prices and disrupted energy supplies. Analysts believe the situation may slow India’s economic growth, while the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to keep interest rates relatively low.

    Key Economic Developments

    • Oil prices have risen about 15% after the conflict began.
    • The Indian rupee has hit record lows and bond yields have risen.
    • Financial markets saw sell-offs in equity, debt and currency markets.
      • These developments have raised concerns about India’s current account deficit and growth outlook.

    Impact on India’s Economy

    • Slower Economic Growth: Disruption of natural gas supplies from the Middle East may affect sectors such as:
      • Fertilizers
      • Power generation
    • If disruptions last more than four weeks, growth could be affected for at least a quarter.
    • Oil Price Risk: If crude oil prices stay above $90–95 per barrel for several quarters,
      • India’s growth may slow from above 7% to around 6.5%.
    • Pressure on External Balance: Higher oil prices can:
      • Increase India’s import bill
      • Widen the current account deficit
      • Depreciate the rupee.

    Inflation Outlook

    • Despite higher oil prices, inflation risks remain moderate.
    • India’s retail inflation was 2.75% in January, near the lower end of RBI’s 2–6% tolerance band.
    • A 10–20% rise in global oil prices may increase inflation by 25–50 basis points.
      • Government actions such as holding retail fuel prices steady or reducing excise duties may cushion inflation.

    RBI’s Likely Policy Response

    • RBI had already cut the repo rate by 125 basis points in 2025.
    • Policymakers may prioritise supporting economic growth rather than raising rates immediately.
    • However, if oil prices cross $100 per barrel, central banks globally may adopt a more hawkish stance.
    [2023] Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct