💥UPSC 2027,2028 Mentorship (April Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF
Talk to mentor

Civilsdaily

Login

Type: Prelims Only

  • BRICS Summits

    BRICS-MENA Meeting on West Asia Conflict 

    Prelims Only | International Relations | Mains Paper 2: Bilateral, Regional and Global Groupings and agreements involving India

    Why in the News?

    For the first time as the 2026 BRICS Chair, India convened a meeting of Deputy Foreign Ministers and Special Envoys from BRICS and MENA (Middle East and North Africa) countries to address the escalating U.S.-Israel war against Iran.

    What is BRICS-MENA?

    A specialized consultative platform within the BRICS framework that brings together member states and key regional players from the Middle East and North Africa to coordinate on regional security and diplomacy.

    BRICS Member Countries (2026):

    • Founding: Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa.
    • Expanded Members: Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates (UAE), and Indonesia.

    MENA Region Participants:

    Beyond the BRICS members from the region (Iran, Egypt, UAE, Saudi), the MENA delegation includes key regional stakeholders such as:

    • Gulf: Qatar, Kuwait, Oman, Bahrain, Iraq.
    • Levant: Jordan, Lebanon, Palestine, Syria.
    • North Africa: Algeria, Morocco, Tunisia, Libya.
    [2025] Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS; 
    I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairmanship of Russia in Kazan. 
    II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. 
    III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security. 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
    [A] I and II [B] II and III [C] I and III [D] I only

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

  • Anti Defection Law

    Defection of AAP Rajya Sabha MPs 

    Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Parliament & State Legislatures

    Why in the News?

    In a major political shift, seven out of ten Aam Aadmi Party (Aam Aadmi Party) Rajya Sabha MPs have resigned from the party to merge with the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), citing a departure from the party’s founding principles.

    What is the Event?

    • Seven Rajya Sabha MPs, led by Raghav Chadha, have exercised the “merger” provision of the anti-defection law to join the BJP without losing their seats in the Upper House.

    Constitutional & Legal Framework (UPSC Focus)

    The move hinges on the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution (Anti-Defection Law):

    • The Two-Thirds Rule: Under the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act (2003), a split in a party is no longer recognized. However, a merger is valid if at least two-thirds of the members of the legislative party agree to it.
    • Status of AAP MPs: Since 7 out of 10 MPs (70%) have moved together, they meet the two-thirds threshold, potentially exempting them from disqualification.
    • Voluntary Membership Relinquishment: The remaining AAP leadership (Sanjay Singh) has argued for disqualification under Paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule, claiming the MPs “voluntarily gave up” membership before a formal merger.
    [2025] Consider the following statements: 
    I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. 
    II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India. 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
    [A] I only [B] II only [C] Both I and II [D] Neither I nor II

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

  • Minority Issues – SC, ST, Dalits, OBC, Reservations, etc.

    Sub-classification for SC Quota in Karnataka  

    Prelims Only | Social Justice | Mains Paper 2: Schemes For Vulnerable Sections

    Why in the News?

    The Karnataka Cabinet has officially approved a new internal reservation matrix for Scheduled Castes (SCs), following the landmark 2024 Supreme Court ruling that permits states to sub-classify reserved categories.

    What is the Decision?

    A strategic redistribution of the 15% SC reservation into three distinct categories to ensure equitable opportunities among 101 different sub-castes.

    The Internal Reservation Matrix

    CategoryTargeted CommunitiesAllocation (%)
    Category 1Madigas and allied castes (Dalit Left)5.25%
    Category 2Holeyas and allied castes (Dalit Right)5.25%
    Category 3Bhovi, Lambani, Korama, Koracha & 59 nomadic groups4.5%

    Note: Dalit Left and Right refer to the internal sub-classification of Scheduled Castes (SCs) in India, particularly in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, categorized for internal reservation purposes.

    Timeline & Legal Context

    • 1992: Indira Sawhney Case – SC caps total reservation at 50%.
    • 2004: E.V. Chinnaiah Case – SC initially rules that states cannot sub-classify SCs.
    • 2024: State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh – SC 7-judge bench overrules Chinnaiah, allowing sub-classification based on empirical data.
    • 2024 (Oct): Karnataka Cabinet approves the new 5.25 : 5.25 : 4.5 formula.

    Objectives & Challenges

    • Social Justice
      • Addresses the long-standing grievance that “advanced” sub-castes within the SC list were cornering most benefits.
      • Focuses on the “creamy layer” principle within SCs to reach the most marginalized.
    • Legal Hurdles
      • Quantifiable Data: The state must prove under-representation with empirical evidence to survive judicial review.
      • 50% Ceiling: The state’s total reservation (including ST and OBC) currently pushes to 56%, which is under challenge in the High Court.
    [2023] Consider the following statements: 
    Statement – I:The Supreme court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16 (4) of the constitution of India would be limited Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. 
    Statement – II:Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’. 
    Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 
    [A] Both statement – I and Statement – II are correct explanation for statement – I
    [B] Both statement – I and statement – II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I
    [C] Statement – I is correct but statement – II is incorrect.
    [D] Statement – I is incorrect but statement – II is correct.

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

  • Health Sector – UHC, National Health Policy, Family Planning, Health Insurance, etc.

    Haemophilia 

    Prelims Only | Science Tech | Mains Paper 3: Awareness in various sc and tech fields

    Why in the News?

    • Renewed focus due to World Health Organization resolution on improving care access and awareness on World Haemophilia Day

    What is Haemophilia

    • Haemophilia is a genetic bleeding disorder
    • Caused by: Deficiency of clotting factors:
      • Factor VIII (Haemophilia A)
      • Factor IX (Haemophilia B)

    Key Characteristics

    • Blood does not clot properly
    • Leads to:
      • Prolonged bleeding
      • Internal bleeding (joints, muscles)
    • Severe cases:
      • Spontaneous bleeding episodes

    Causes and Inheritance

    • Genetic Nature Inherited as: X-linked recessive disorder
    • Affected Population: Mostly males are affected, and Females are carriers.
    • Mutation Cases: ~1/3 cases: Occur due to spontaneous mutations
    [2009] In the context of genetic disorders, consider the following: A woman suffers from colour blindness while her husband does not suffer from it. They have a son and a daughter. In this context, which one of the following statements is most probably correct? 
    (a) Both children suffer from colour blindness. 
    (b) Daughter suffers from colour blindness while son does not suffer from it. 
    (c) Both children do not suffer from colour blindness. 
    (d) Son suffers from colour blindness while daughter does not suffer from it.

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

  • International Space Agencies – Missions and Discoveries

    Curiosity Rover  

    Prelims Only | Science Tech | Mains Paper 3: Awareness in various sc and tech fields

    Why in the News?

    • The Curiosity Rover has detected organic molecules on Mars, strengthening evidence about the planet’s past habitability.

    What is Curiosity Rover

    • A robotic rover sent by NASA
    • Part of: Mars Science Laboratory (MSL) mission
    • Objective: Explore Mars’ surface and assess habitability

    Launch & Landing

    • Launch: November 26, 2011
    • Launch vehicle: Atlas V rocket
    • Landing: August 5, 2012

    Landing Site

    • Located in: Gale Crater
    • Explores: Mount Sharp

    Unique Landing Technology

    • Used: Sky Crane technique
    • Process:
      • Parachute descent
      • Rocket-powered hovering
      • Rover lowered gently to surface
    [2016] Consider the following statements: The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO 
    1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission 
    2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA 
    3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
    [A] 1 only [B] 2 and 3 only [C] 1 and 3 only [D] 1, 2 and 3

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

  • Social Media: Prospect and Challenges

    Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI)

    Prelims Only | Governance | Mains Paper 2: E-Governance

    Why in the News?

    • Government has constituted the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) under a new legal framework to regulate the online gaming ecosystem.

    What is OGAI

    • Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) is a central regulatory body for online gaming
    • Established under: Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act 2025
    • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
    • Operational from: May 1, 2026

    Key Functions

    • Acts as: Central authority for online gaming
    • Covers: Online games and Esports
    • Categorises games into: Money games and Non-money games
    • Maintains: Official registry of games
    • Handles: User complaints and Public grievances
    • Enforcement Coordination Works with: Financial institutions and Law enforcement agencies
    [2019] In India, which of the following bodies/mechanisms review the functioning of independent regulators like PFRDA, IBBI, AERA, and PNGRB? 
    1.Ad Hoc Committees appointed by the Parliament. 
    2.Parliamentary Standing Committees. 
    3.NITI Aayog. 
    4.Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC). 
    5.Finance Commission. 
    Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
    [A] 1 and 2 only [B] 1, 3, and 4 [C] 2, 4, and 5 [D] 2 only

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

  • Telecom and Postal Sector – Spectrum Allocation, Call Drops, Predatory Pricing, etc

    Technology Development and Investment Promotion (TDIP) Scheme 

    Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways Etc.

    Why in the News?

    • Revised guidelines of the Technology Development and Investment Promotion (TDIP) Scheme released by Jyotiraditya M. Scindia
    • Aim: Strengthen India’s global telecom presence and boost next-gen technologies

    What is the TDIP Scheme?

    • A Department of Telecommunications (DoT) initiative
    • Focus:
      • Promote indigenous telecom technologies
      • Enhance India’s role in global telecom standards

    Key Features

    • Financial Outlay
      • Total allocation: ₹203 crore
      • Period: 2026 to 2031
    • Focus Areas
      • Participation in: Global standard-setting bodies
      • Promotion of: Innovation and R&D
      • Development of: 5G Advanced and 6G ecosystem
    [2019] With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? 
    1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. 
    2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. 
    Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
    a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

  • Trade Sector Updates – Falling Exports, TIES, MEIS, Foreign Trade Policy, etc.

    India’s Rice Exports Decline  

    Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Indian Economy

    Why in the News?

    • India’s rice exports fell by 7.5% to $11.53 billion in 2025–26 due to disruptions caused by the West Asia crisis.

    Key Data

    Export Performance

    • 2025–26: $11.53 billion
    • 2024–25: ~$12.5 billion
    • March 2026: Decline of 15.36% (to ~$997 million)

    West Asia Crisis Impact

    • Conflict affecting trade with: Iran, United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Oman
    • Issues faced:
      • Payment delays
      • Order cancellations
      • Shipping disruptions
    • Iran Major importer of Basmati rice

    India’s Rice Sector  

    • Production:Output (2024–25): ~150 million tonnes
    • Cultivation area: ~47 million hectares
    • India contributes: ~28% of global rice production
    • Exported to: 170+ countries
    • Yield Improvement
      • 2014–15: 2.72 tonnes/hectare
      • 2024–25: ~3.2 tonnes/hectare

    Top Producers

    • China: Leads with ~208-214 million tonnes annually, focusing on hybrid varieties. 
    • India: Second at ~195-196 million tonnes; top exporter despite domestic consumption. Bangladesh: ~57 million tonnes; high per capita reliance. 
    • Indonesia, Vietnam: ~54-55M and ~42-43M tonnes respectively. 
    • Others: Thailand (~34M), Myanmar, Philippines round out top 10.
    [2019] Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years? 
    (a) China  
    (b) India  
    (c) Myanmar  
    (d) Vietnam

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

  • Foreign Policy Watch: India-Africa

    India–Egypt Defence Cooperation  

    Prelims Only | International Relations | Mains Paper 2: Bilateral, Regional and Global Groupings and agreements involving India

     Why in the News?

    • India and Egypt held the 11th Joint Defence Committee (JDC) meeting in Cairo (April 2026)
    • Aim: Strengthen bilateral defence ties

    Key Highlights

    1. Defence Cooperation Plan (2026–27)

    • Expansion of:
      • Military engagements
      • Joint training exercises
      • Defence exchanges
    • Increased frequency of:
      • Bilateral military exercises

    2. Maritime Security Cooperation

    • Focus on: Indian Ocean security and Freedom of navigation
    • Role of: Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region
    • First: Navy-to-Navy staff talks held

    3. Defence Industry Collaboration

    • Emphasis on: Co-development and Co-production
    • India’s defence sector:
      • Production > $20 billion
      • Exports ~ $4 billion

    4. Air Force Cooperation

    • Interaction with: Egyptian Air Force leadership
    • Aim: Strengthen air defence ties

    5. Institutional Mechanism

    • Joint Defence Committee:
      • Regular dialogue platform
    • Based on:
      • 2022 MoU on defence cooperation
      • 2023 Strategic Partnership

    Strategic Importance

    • Egypt’s Geostrategic Position Controls: Suez Canal
    • Key link between: Europe, Asia, Africa
    • Ensures: Safe sea lanes and Trade security
    • Promotes:
      • Indigenous defence exports
      • Strategic partnerships
    • Cooperation supports: Stability in West Asia and Africa
    [2024] Consider the following statements: 
    Statement-I Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and Natural gas shipments to Europe. 
    Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. 
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 
    [A] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
    [B] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
    [C] Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
    [D] Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

  • Dams and Hydroprojects

    Ghose Commission & Telangana HC Verdict  

    Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Executive & Judiciary,Federalism

    Why in the News? 

    • The Telangana High Court ruled that the Ghose Commission report on the Kaleshwaram project will be “inoperative”, and no action can be taken against former CM K. Chandrashekar Rao and others.

    Background

    • The Telangana government constituted a Commission of Inquiry in 2024:
      • Headed by Justice P. C. Ghose
    • Purpose: Probe alleged irregularities in: Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Scheme

    About Kaleshwaram Project (KLIS)

    • One of the largest lift irrigation projects in India
    • Built on: Godavari River
    • Key barrages:
      • Medigadda
      • Annaram
      • Sundilla
    [2022] Consider the following pairs:
    Reservoirs: States 
    1. Ghataprabha: Telangana 
    2. Ghandhi Sagar: Madhya Pradesh 
    3. Indira Sagar: Andhra Pradesh 
    4. Maithon: Chhattisgarh 
    How many pairs given above ate not correctly matched? 
    [A] Only one pair [B] Only two pair [C] Only three pair [D] All four pair

    Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor