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Anti-microbial resistance needs urgent attention
Context
Ever since the pandemic struck, concerns have been raised about the improper use of antimicrobials amongst Covid-19 patients.
Concern over anti-microbial resistance
- The “Global burden of bacterial antimicrobial resistance in 204 countries and territories in 2019 (GRAM)” report, released last month, 4.95 million people died from drug-resistant bacterial infections in 2019, with 3,89,000 deaths in South Asia alone.
- AMR directly caused at least 1.27 million of those deaths.
- Lower respiratory infections accounted for more than 1.5 million deaths associated with resistance in 2019, making it the most burdensome infectious syndrome.
- Amongst pathogens, E coli was responsible for the most deaths in 2019, followed by K pneumoniae, S aureus, A baumannii, S pneumoniae, and M tuberculosis.
Concern for India
- As per the yearly trends reported by the Indian Council of Medical Research since 2015, India reports a high level of resistance in all these pathogens, especially E coli and K pneumoniae.
- Only a fraction of the Indian data, available through the WHO-GLASS portal, has been included in the GRAM report.
- India has been reporting high levels of resistance to fluoroquinolones, cephalosporins and carbapenems across the Gram-negative pathogens that cause almost 70 per cent of infections in communities and hospitals.
- Therefore, the Indian data on the AMR burden may not look very different from the estimates published in the report.
- Now that we know that AMR’s burden surpasses that of TB and HIV, a sense of urgency in containing such resistance is called for.
- With no new drugs in the pipeline for drug-resistant infections, time is running out for patients.
Addressing AMR through a multipronged and multisectoral approach
- Use existing antimicrobials judiciously: The urgency to develop new drugs should not discourage us from instituting measures to use the existing antimicrobials judiciously.
- Improved infection control in communities and hospitals, availability and utilisation of quality diagnostics and laboratories and educating people about antimicrobials have proved effective in reducing antimicrobial pressure — a precursor to resistance.
- The National Action Plan for AMR, approved in 2017, completes its official duration this year. The progress under the plan has been far from satisfactory.
- There is enough evidence that interventions like infection control, improved diagnosis and antimicrobial stewardship are effective in the containment of AMR.
Conclusion
The GRAM report has underlined that postponing action could prove costly.
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Target 2023: How to Balance Prelims and Mains Preparation In The Beginning Itself?|| How to Squeeze in Time for Mains if You are a UPSC 2022 Aspirant?|| Free Live Webinar by Civilsdaily Mains Guidance Head Sukanya Rana Ma’am|| Limited Slots Available, Register Now
Many of you right now are planning to start prelims preparation from a clean slate. But as you pick a book and complete a chapter, you are bothered by a confusion — should I study for Mains or Prelims right now?
Since, Prelims is the first exam of UPSC, logically it should be given the first preference. However, the marks you get in prelims are only qualifying by nature and will not be considered for your final ranking by default. At the same time, Prelims exam is known to have trickier questions than Mains or Interview. Hence one cannot postpone this preparation at a later stage.
UPSC Mains on the other hand is conducted 3 months after Prelims results are announced. If you qualify the Mains exam in 2023, you cannot prepare the vast syllabus of 9 papers in just 3 months. Marks obtained in the Optional Subject rescues you if you happen to score low in other GS Papers or in the personality round. This is why you need to prepare for your Optional Subject from the first month itself.
75% of UPSC Toppers in 2020 have attributed a Prelims-Mains integrated approach of study as the reason for their success
The best solution would be to study for both Prelims and Mains at the outset. But the nagging question is — HOW?
Open to All, Free Live Webinar by Sukanya Rana Ma’am on Prelims-Mains Preparation
Adopting an integrated study approach for prelims and mains is easier said than done for aspirants who are studying without any coaching. Mains have extra topics for the same subject you study for prelims. Focus on current affairs sees a sea change when you shift from Prelims to Mains.
This is why you need a veteran mentor to take you through every step of the preparation, while clearing your doubts. Sukanya Rana Ma’am will exactly do this coming Saturday in her free live webinar.
Sukanya ma’am has the experience of 4 mains and 2 interviews in UPSC. She has also appeared in the State PCS interview. Before being a mentor at Civilsdaily, she worked as an officer in a public sector bank. Sukanya Rana Ma’am is passionate about guiding future officers in finding success.
As an aspirant, she consistently scored 100+ marks in Ethics paper. Notably, in 2019 her marks were 140 in GS 4. Under her mentorship, many Smash Mains 2020 students were able to secure 110+ marks.
Now, as a mentor she is garnering positive reviews from our Civilsdaily students. Students have always felt she helped them score above 100+ marks in Mains exams. Below are certain testimonials from them —
What Will You Learn in This Free Live Webinar by Sukanya Rana Ma’am?
1. What are the different approaches in Prelims and Mains Preparation? Start studying the priority focus topics of Prelims and Mains as a 2023 aspirant.
2. How should UPSC 2022 aspirants focus on mains answer writing when prelims is just 90 days away? Managing time without feeling the stress.
3. What should the timetable of UPSC 2023 aspirant look like? 3 different strategies for working professionals, college students and full timers.
4. How many months should be dedicated to prelims? How much time should be given to the optional subjects?
5. How to revise previous day’s topics and make time for new topics? Sukanya Ma’am answers from her personal experience.
Webinar Details
All aspirants are welcome to interact with Sukanya Ma’am and clear their doubts and get their preparation mistakes corrected in the Q&A session. This webinar is absolutely free and only requires prior registration.
Date: 5 th February (Saturday)
Time: 7 P.M
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What is WHO’s Pandemic Treaty?
Members of the World Health Organisation (WHO) held the first round of negotiations towards the pandemic treaty on February 24, 2022.
What is the Pandemic Treaty?
- In December 2021, the World Health Assembly agreed to start a global process to draft the pandemic treaty.
- The need for an updated set of rules was felt after the COVID-19 pandemic exposed the shortcomings of global health systems.
- The Health Assembly adopted a decision titled “The World Together” at its second special session since it was founded in 1948.
- Under the decision, the health organization established an intergovernmental negotiating body (INB) to draft and negotiate the contents of the pandemic treaty in compliance with Article 19 of the WHO Constitution.
What is it likely to entail?
- The pandemic treaty is expected to cover aspects like data sharing and genome sequencing of emerging viruses and equitable distribution of vaccines and drugs and related research.
- Solutions to the COVID-19 pandemic have seen an inequitable distribution of vaccines so far, with poorer countries at the mercy of others to receive preventive medication.
Why need such treaty?
- Most countries have followed the “me-first” approach which is not an effective way to deal with a global pandemic.
- A widely-accepted theory points that the novel coronavirus may have jumped from animals to humans in a wildlife market of China.
- Many nations want a ban on wildlife markets.
Issues in negotiations
- While the EU wants the treaty to be legally binding, the U.S., Brazil and India have expressed reservations about the same.
- The legal nature of the treaty is yet to be defined.
What is Article 19 of the WHO Constitution?
- Article 19 of the WHO Constitution gives the World Health Assembly the authority to adopt conventions or agreements on matters of health.
- A two-third majority is needed to adopt such conventions or agreements.
- The WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control was set up under Article 19 and it came into force in 2005.
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New Rules for Deputation of DIGs
After its proposal to amend the All India Service Rules that would allow it to call any IAS, IPS or IFoS officer on central deputation with or without the state’s consent, the Centre has issued another order on central deputation of Deputy Inspector General-level IPS officers.
What is the order?
- The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) has said that IPS officers coming to the Centre at DIG level would no longer be required to be empanelled at that level with the Union Government.
- According to existing rules, a DIG-ranked IPS officer with a minimum experience of 14 years could only be deputed to the Centre if the Police Establishment Board empanelled them as DIGs at the Centre.
- The board chooses the panel on the basis of officers’ career and vigilance records.
- Only Superintendent of Police-level officers do not require empanelment at the Centre.
- The new order makes the entire pool of DIG-level officers in a state eligible for central deputation.
Why has it been issued?
Ans. Huge Vacancies
- The move is aimed at increasing the pool of DIG-level IPS officers for central deputation in the backdrop of massive vacancies in central police organisations (CPOs) and the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs).
- Out of 252 posts reserved for IPS officers at DIG level at the Centre, 118 (almost half) are vacant.
- IPS officers have a quota of 40% in CPOs and CAPFs.
How will the move help?
- The idea is to ease up the process of central deputation as verification of records takes a long time.
- Also, it increases the size of the pool of officers available to the Centre.
So why would states have a problem?
Ans. Relieving the Officers
- States would have to be willing to relieve these officers.
- The new order may be seen by many states as the Centre’s attempt at pushing the envelope further on increasing its powers over officers serving in the states.
- With these orders, the Centre would have powers to demand, within a stipulated time frame, a certain quota of officers from the state for central deputation.
- It may also call any IAS officer on central deputation in “public interest”.
- In case the state failed to relieve the officer, he/she would be deemed relieved following the date fixed.
Why don’t states relieve officers?
Ans. Vacancy in states
- There is a serious paucity of officers in the states too.
- In a cost-cutting move during the Atal Bihari Vajpayee regime, the size of IPS batches among other government staff was reduced even though sizeable vacancies existed even then.
- From 80-90 officers each, IPS batches were cut to 35-40 officers (in 1999-2002, the average was 36).
- The average attrition rate of IPS officers due to superannuation is 85 per year.
- The strength of IAS officers too had been impacted due to low intake during the 1990s.
How has this impacted the services?
- The anomaly in IPS recruitment adversely affected cadre management over the years.
- At some levels, there are fewer officers than sanctioned posts, while at others there is a glut. For example, UP has a shortage of DIGs and IGs, but too many officers at the level of ADGs.
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Egypt hikes Suez Canal transit fees for ship
Cash-strapped Egypt increased transit fees for ships passing through the Suez Canal, one of the world’s most crucial waterways, with hikes of up to 10%.
Suez Canal
- The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez; and dividing Africa and Asia.
- Constructed by the Suez Canal Company between 1859 and 1869, it officially opened on 17 November 1869.
- The canal was earlier controlled by British and French interests in its initial years but was nationalized in 1956 by Egypt’s then leader Gamal Abdel Nasser.
- It extends from the northern terminus of Port Said to the southern terminus of Port Tewfik at the city of Suez.
- Its length is 193.30 km including its northern and southern access channels.
Its significance
- The Suez Canal provides a crucial link for oil, natural gas and cargo being shipping from East to West.
- About 10% of global trade, including 7% of the world’s oil, flows through the Suez Canal.
- It provides a major shortcut for ships moving between Europe and Asia, who before its construction had to sail around Africa to complete the same journey.
- As per a report, the canal is a major source of income for Egypt’s economy, with the African country earning $5.61 billion in revenues from it last year.
Try this PYQ:
Q.Between India and East Asia, the navigation time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?
- Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
- Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
[wpdiscuz-feedback id=”3lvew8ij5q” question=”Please leave a feedback on this” opened=”1″]Post your answers here.[/wpdiscuz-feedback]
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What is Perini Dance?
A Perini dance performance by artistes in Hyderabad has left the audience awestruck.
Perini Dance
- Perini Sivathandavam is an ancient dance form, from Telangana, which has been revived in recent times.
- It originated and prospered in Telangana, during the Kakatiya dynasty.
- It is performed in honour of Lord Siva, the hindu god of destruction and it is believed that in ancient times this was performed before the soldiers set to war.
- One can find evidence of this dance in the sculptures near Garbha Gudi (Sanctum Sanctorum) of the Ramappa Temple at Warangal.
Performance details
- The Perini siva Thandavam is a dance form usually performed by males.
- It is called ‘Dance of Warriors’. Warriors before leaving to the battlefield enact this dance before the idol of Lord Śiva (Siva).
- The dance form, Perini, reached its pinnacle during the rule of the ‘Kakatiyas’ who established their dynasty at Warangal and ruled for almost two centuries.
- It is believed that this dance form invokes ‘Prerana’ (inspiration) and is dedicated to supreme dancer, Lord Siva.
Answer this PYQ in the comment box:
Q.Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom? (CSP 2017)
(a) Kakinada
(b) Motupalli
(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
(d) Nelluru
[wpdiscuz-feedback id=”ldahfg9evo” question=”Please leave a feedback on this” opened=”1″]Post your answers here.[/wpdiscuz-feedback]
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What are Cluster Bombs and Thermobaric Weapons?
Human rights group Amnesty International has accused Russia of using cluster bombs and vacuum bombs in the ongoing war.
What are Cluster Munitions?
- According to the 2008 Convention on Cluster Munitions, a cluster munition means a “conventional munition that is designed to disperse or release explosive submunitions each weighing less than 20 kilograms, and includes those explosive submunitions”.
- Essentially, cluster munitions are non-precision weapons that are designed to injure or kill human beings indiscriminately over a large area.
- They are often designed to destroy vehicles and infrastructure such as runways, railway or power transmission lines.
- They can be dropped from an aircraft or launched in a projectile that spins in flight, scattering many bomblets as it travels.
- Many of these bomblets end up not exploding, but continue to lie on the ground, often partially or fully hidden and difficult to locate and remove, posing a threat to the civilian population.
- The Convention on Cluster Munitions specifically identifies “cluster munition remnants”, which include “failed cluster munitions, abandoned cluster munitions, unexploded submunitions and unexploded bomblets”.
And what is a Thermobaric Weapon?
- Thermobaric weapons — also known as aerosol bombs, fuel air explosives, or vaccum bombs — use oxygen from the air for a large, high-temperature blast.
- A thermobaric weapon causes significantly greater devastation than a conventional bomb of comparable size.
- The weapons, which go off in two separate stages, can be fired as rockets from tank-mounted launchers or dropped from aircraft.
- As they hit their target, a first explosion splits open the bomb’s fuel container, releasing a cloud of fuel and metal particles that spreads over a large area.
- A second explosion then occurs, igniting the aerosol cloud into a giant ball of fire and sending out intense blast waves that can destroy even reinforced buildings or equipment and vaporise human beings.
Is it legal to use these weapons?
- Countries that have ratified the Convention on Cluster Munitions are prohibited from using cluster bombs.
- As of date, there are 110 state parties to the convention, and 13 other countries have signed up but are yet to ratify it.
- Neither Russia nor Ukraine are signatories.
- These bombs are not prohibited by any international law or agreement, but their use against civilian populations in built-up areas, schools or hospitals, could attract action under the Hague Conventions of 1899 and 1907.
- International humanitarian law prohibits the use of inherently indiscriminate weapons such as cluster munitions.
- Launching indiscriminate attacks that kill or injure civilians constitutes a war crime.
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Back in news: Visva-Bharati University
The stalemate continues in Visva-Bharati University as students demand the reopening of hostels and conducting of online examinations.
Visva-Bharati
- Visva-Bharati is a central research university and an Institution of National Importance located in Shantiniketan, West Bengal, India.
- It was founded by Rabindranath Tagore who called it Visva-Bharati, which means the communion of the world with India.
- Until independence, it was a college.
- Soon after independence, the institution was given the status of a central university in 1951 by an act of the Parliament.
Its establishment
- The origins of the institution date back to 1863 when Debendranath Tagore was given a tract of land by the zamindar of Raipur, zamindar of Kirnahar.
- He set up an ashram at the spot that has now come to be called chatim tala at the heart of the town.
- The ashram was initially called Brahmacharya Ashram, which was later renamed Brahmacharya Vidyalaya.
- It was established with a view to encouraging people from all walks of life to come to the spot and meditate.
- In 1901 his youngest son Rabindranath Tagore established a co-educational school inside the premises of the ashram.
- From 1901 onwards, Tagore used the ashram to organize the Hindu Mela, which soon became a center of nationalist activity.
Try this PYQ from CSP 2021:
Q. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.
(b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of Andhra region from here.
(c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.
(d) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society fi rst here.
[wpdiscuz-feedback id=”2igxgiemsy” question=”Please leave a feedback on this” opened=”1″]Post your answers here.[/wpdiscuz-feedback]
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Prelims Open Test Now Live for All UPSC Aspirants|| Enroll Now|| Register for Free Mentorship to Evaluate Your Weak Spots After Test & Make a Solid Revision Plan for Next 90 Days
Before taking the prelims exam, it’s always better to try the mock tests of various institutes to evaluate your level of understanding and knowledge. Once you know the weak spots, you can spend the rest of the 90 days in revising them
What Must a Quality Prelims Test Have?
A quality mock test wiill highlight your shortcomings in all the areas.
We at Civilsdaily understand the nuances of setting a paper. Through five cases explaining five questions, we’ll try to give you an idea about the varied difficulty level of prelims questions.
These questions have been taken from the first test of Nikaalo Prelims All India Open Mock Test 2020 about Government Schemes and Policies.
(First test to go live on 4th March 2022 @ 9:30 a.m.)
CASE 1 – The oldest trick in the book.
Deliberately changing names to confuse you. Be it schemes or concepts. UPSC is well known to flip names of similar-sounding schemes and concepts. Look at this question.
Ques. Which of the following are the result areas of STRIVE
- Improved performance of ITI.
- Improved and Broadened Apprenticeship Training.
- India International Skill Centers
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1 only
Correct answer- 1 and 2 only
In the above question, STRIVE has been used for SANKALP. Both of them were announced at the same time for boosting Skill India Mission. It is very easy to get confused mark a wrong answer.
CASE 2: Misleading names
A lot of times especially in match the following type of questions misleading names are used.
Ques. Consider the following pairs:
Schemes Objectives
- NIDHI: nurturing ideas and innovations into successful startups.
- SATYAM: rejuvenate research in yoga and meditation.
- MANAK: to help build a critical human resource pool for strengthening and increasing the research & development base.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 3
Misleading yet important names of initiatives under Ministry of Science and Technology have been used here. All pairs are correctly matched but it is very easy to get confused.
CASE 3: Are you rooted in society?
UPSC has been playing with the expenditure figures and other such facts. It is done not only for the sole reason of checking your rote memory, but the ability to think in-depth about the issues faced by various sections.
Ques. With reference to ‘Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (KUSUM) Scheme’, consider the following statements:
- The scheme provides for the installation of grid-connected solar power plants each of capacity up to 2 MW in the rural areas.
- The farmers will have to spend 50% of the total expenditure to acquire and install solar pumps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: 1 only
A very important scheme. The farmers have to tolerate only 10% of the total expenditure to acquire and install solar pumps. The Central Govt. will provide 60% cost while the remaining 30% will be taken care of by bank as credit. One must understand the inability of Indian farmers to spend 50% on solar pumps. This would have helped in eliminating options also.
CASE 4: Going international.
International collaboration and aid in our schemes and policies are relevant. If you ever read about them, know that the issue is of critical importance for the government and society.
Ques. With reference to Atal Bhujal Yojana, consider the following statements:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with funding pattern of 50:50 between Government of India and states.
- This scheme is approved by the World Bank.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: 2 only
Here the Government of India’s collaboration with World Bank makes it important. Half of the financial contribution is from the World Bank in this initiative.
Students must not ignore the contribution of international institutions especially if it is of such overwhelming nature.
CASE 5: Core of the core
You should be able to remember the bare minimum. There is no other way in such questions. You either know them or you don’t.
Ques. Which of the following are the components of the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)?
- National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS)
- Annapurna.
- Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme (IGNWPS)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 3
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) which came into effect from 15th August 1995, represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 of the Constitution.
It is a very important scheme under Ministry of Rural Development. Students are supposed to do flagship schemes of various ministries.
Get ready to challenge yourself on 4th March 2022. Register for the second edition of Nikaalo Prelims Open Mock Test now.
After the exam, CD Mentors will discuss the solutions of the questions on the Nikaalo Prelims telegram group(click to join)
