“Judiciary-Executive Clash Over Supremacy from 1947 till Today – Part II”
In the third episode of The Overlooked Series, Sajal sir and Sudhanshu sir will continue the discussion on the “tussle between Executive and Judiciary since independence.” They will discuss about the origin of the dispute and look into some more specific cases such as:
Minerva Mill 1980
Concept of Locus Standii ( PIL )
Three Judges Case ( 1982, 1993, 1998 )
Judicial Activism vs Judicial Adventurism
NJAC ( 4th Judges Case 2015 )
Global Modals of Judicial Appointments.
Please fill this form if you want to connect with Sajal sir or Sudhanshu sir:–
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Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
Daily Study Plan with Answer Writing Challenge || STREAK FREE INITIATIVE FOR UPSC IAS – by Ravi Ranjan
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions on International Relations – by Sukanya Rana
Q1) Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) which aims to build resilient supply chains in the Indo-Pacific region was launched by which of the following countries?
1. India
2. China
3. Australia
4. Sri Lanka
5. New Zealand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. All of the above
Q2) Global EV Outlook 2021 is published by which of the following organisations?
a. International Energy Agency
b. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
c. International Atomic Energy Agency
d. International Renewable Energy Agency
Q3) With respect to India-UK bilateral relations, consider the following statements:
1. India and the United Kingdom have enjoyed a Strategic Partnership since 2004.
2. The UK is the 3rd largest inward investor in India, after Mauritius, and Singapore.
3. Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunisation (GAVI) was jointly initiated by India and the United Kingdom.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Q4) With respect to One Health, sometimes seen in the news recently, consider the following statements:
1. It is a high-level expert panel formed by the World Health Organization (WHO).
2. It will study the emergence and spread of zoonotic diseases and advise global agencies on how future outbreaks, especially due to zoonotic diseases, can be averted.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q5) Consider the following statements with respective to Open Skies Treaty Arms Control Pact
1. Under the treaty, a member state can “spy” on any part of the host nation, with the latter’s consent.
2. Both the U.S and India are members of the treaty and Russia is not a member of the treaty.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
Daily Study Plan with Answer Writing Challenge || STREAK FREE INITIATIVE FOR UPSC IAS – by Ravi Ranjan
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions on International Relations – by Sukanya Rana
Q1) Consider the following statements:
1. Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear tests, for both civilian and military purposes, in all environments.
2. India has signed but not ratified the treaty.
Select correct option:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) None
Q2) Consider the following statements:
1. Fatf maintains a list of countries which are low tax jurisdictions or tax shelters.
2. Membership to Fatf and oecd are almost similar.
Select incorrect option:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) None
Q3) Consider the following statements:
1. ICJ is the only international court that adjudicates general disputes between countries, with its rulings and opinions serving as primary sources of international law.
2. ICC is the first and only permanent international court with jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for the international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression.
Select incorrect option:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) None
Q4) Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Strait of Hormuz: Oman and Iran
b) Bab – el-Mandeb: Arabian sea and red sea
c) Strait of Magellan : Pacific and atlantic ocean
d) Dardanelles Strait connecting the Black sea and Aegean Sea
Q5) Consider the following statements on Mekong ganga cooperation:
1. The Mekong river runs through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam.
2. Mekong ganga cooperation was formed in 2010.
3. Members include India, China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam.
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
Daily Study Plan with Answer Writing Challenge || STREAK FREE INITIATIVE FOR UPSC IAS – by Ravi Ranjan
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions on International Relations – by Sukanya Rana
Q1) Which of the following statements is/are correct about UNSC?
1. Asia-Pacific regional group holds three non-permanent seats and Africa holds two non-permanent seats.
2. The president of UNSC is a post held on a monthly rotation basis.
Select the correct option:
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both
d. None
Q2) Consider the following statements:
1. HDI indicates percentage loss in HDI due to inequality.
2. Gender Development Index is the measurement of gender inequality using dimensions like reproductive health, empowerment and participation in the labour market.
Which are correct statements:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. None
Q3) Consider the following statements:
1. The first summit of G20 was held in 2008 in Russia.
2. Canada, France, Germany, Italy, South Korea, UK and US are member states of G7.
Which are incorrect statements:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. None
Q4) Which countries are part of the grouping Mercosur?
1. Argentina
2. Uruguay
3. Paraguay
4. Venezuela
Select the correct options:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. All
Q5) Consider the following statements:
1. IAEA is an international organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose.
2. North Korea and Iran have withdrawn their membership from IAEA.
Which are correct statements:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. None
Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News – by Shweta Mishra
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
Even with a similar syllabus and similar study materials, most candidates fall in one of the following four categories when it comes to their Prelims score:
1) Prelims score 0-40: They need to work on improving their knowledge and learn answering tricks 2) Prelims score 50-70: They have decent knowledge and decent answering tricks. 3) Prelims score 80-100: They have good knowledge but they need to develop answering tricks. 4) Prelims score 120+: They have excellent knowledge and know all the answering tricks.
Sajal Sir is here to help you boost your UPSC Prelims 2021 Score by 25 Marks by using these 10 Smart Techniques
Banking is considered to be the “Backbone of a Nation’s Economy”. It is the most leading part of the financial sector of the country as it is responsible for more than 70% of the funds that flow through the financial sector in the country.
Indian banking was more or less turned into a tool of state policy by bank nationalization in 1969. While our 1991 reforms did decentralize the allocation of capital overall, lending India’s economy some efficiency, the Centre retained much of its command of credit flows.
PSU banks are under dual control, with the RBI supervising the banking operations and the Finance Ministry handling ownership issues. Many committees had proposed bringing down the government stake in public banks below 51% — the Narasimham Committee proposed 33% and the P J Nayak Committee suggested below 50%.
Timeline of Structural and Technological Developments in the Banking Sector in India:
1955: SBI Act passed and Imperial Bank of India became State Bank of India 1959: State Bank of India (subsidiary banks) Act passed to create subsidiaries of SBI 1969: The government nationalized 14 major commercial banks 1975: Regional Rural Bank was conceptualized to serve the rural population 1987: HSBC first introduced ATM kiosk in Mumbai 1996: Local Area Banks were set up in the Union Budget to mobilize rural savings. 1991: Licenses given to 11 Private Sector Banks 1994: ICICI bank introduced net banking for retail customers in India 2000: Introduction of ATMs in India through countrywide BANCS network 2006: Cash Deposit Machines first introduced in India by ICICI bank, starting from western India 2008: Mobile banking through Mobile Apps introduced, pioneered by ICICI bank 2010: Cheque Truncation System (CTS) introduced, it eliminated a lot of paper and reduced cheque clearing time to a minimum 2014: Automatic Passbook Printing machines introduced in India 2015: Payments banks were given license to operate in India 2016: Prime Minister announced demonetization of Rs. 1,000/- and Rs. 500/- currency notes, led to a forced yet phenomenal increase in the use of non-cash i.e. electronic payments. 2017: EMV chip cards made mandatory in ATM-cum-Debit cards to enhance security.
Banking System in India
Importance of Private Sector Banks
The private sector banks play a vital role in the Indian economy. They indirectly motivate the public sector banks by offering healthy competition.
Professional Management: The private sector banks help in introducing a high degree of professional management and marketing concept into banking. It helps the public sector banks as well to develop similar skills and technology.
Creates Healthy Competition: The private sector banks provide a healthy competition on general efficiency levels in the banking system.
Attracts Foreign Direct Investment: The private sector banks especially the foreign banks have much influence on the foreign investment in the country.
Access to Foreign Capital Markets: The foreign banks in the private sector help the Indian companies and the government agencies to meet their financial requirements from international capital markets.
Innovation in the Banking Sector: The private sector banks are always trying to innovate new product avenues (new schemes, services, etc.) and make the industries achieve expertise in their respective fields by offering quality service and guidance. This helps the public at large and they have a range of options to choose between.
Introduction of new technology: With innovations comes new technologies in the banking sector and they lead the other banks in various new fields. For example, introduction of computerized operations, credit card business, ATM service, etc
What is the government plan on the Privatization of PSBs?
During Union Budget 2020-21 presentations, the government announced a new policy for strategic disinvestment of public sector enterprises. This policy provides a clear roadmap for disinvestment in all non-strategic and strategic sectors.
The Banking Sector falls under the strategic sector. The government aims to keep a bare minimum presence in the strategic sector.
In 2019, after a massive consolidation exercise, the no. of PSBs reduced from 28 to 12. Recently the NITI Aayog consolidation plan left 6 PSBs out of the Privatization plan.
The NITI Aayog suggested privatizing all the PSBs except the SBI, Union Bank, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Indian Bank, and Bank of Baroda.
Further, the government also decided to perform privatization of two PSBs in the next fiscal year.
Nationalization and Equitable growth
Nationalization helped in promoting more equitable regional growth, and this is evident from RBI data.
There were only 1,833 bank branches in rural areas in the country in 1969, which increased to 33,004 by 1995 and continued to grow over the next decades.
Banking services also reduced the dependence on moneylenders in rural regions.
Nationalized banking improved the working conditions of employees in the banking sector, as the state ensured higher wages, security of services, and other fringe benefits.
As an institution, PSBs are vehicles of the Indian economy’s growth and development, and they have become the trustees of people’s savings and confidence.
The PSBs played a huge role in making the country self-sufficient by supporting the green, blue, and dairy revolutions.
They have also contributed significantly to infrastructural development.
The PSBs pioneered the concept of ‘priority sector lending. This provided credit to certain priority sectors which were earlier deprived of credit such as housing, etc.
The Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) loans are the brainchild of public sector banking. Under this poorest section of people will receive the loan at a very marginal interest rate.
The PSBs extended loans to women’s self-help groups under various programs. This contributed to women’s empowerment in India.
PSBs also funded rural infrastructure projects through the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund.
The PSBs provided access to a formal banking network for all and facilitated financial inclusion in India.
Democratization of Banking: Before nationalization, banks had been lending 67% of their funds to industry and virtually nothing to agriculture.
Also, the commercial banks couldn’t lend money to farmers because they were only present in less than 1% of villages.
Farmers were unable to get bank loans just when the Green Revolution was getting underway and they needed credit to buy the expensive inputs required to increase output.
Thus, nationalizing banks helped in the democratization of banking services of the masses.
Reasons for Privatizing Public Sector Banks
Increasing NPAs: RBI data shows that that 9.3 per cent of the industry loan book for private sector banks was stressed by March 2017, as opposed to 28.8 per cent for PSBs.
As of end-March 2016, RBI data showed that public sector lenders accounted for over 90 per cent of the Rs. 5.5 lakh crore gross NPAs with banks.
Poor Lending: PSBs have been criticized for poor lending decisions, inadequate risk controls, and bad governance.
Previous reform measures have not yielded results: Years of capital injections and governance reforms have not been able to improve the financial position of in public sector banks significantly.
Many of them have higher levels of stressed assets than private banks, and also lag the latter on profitability, market capitalization and dividend payment record.
Aligned with Long Term Goal: Privatization public sector banks will set the ball rolling for a long-term project that envisages only a handful of state-owned banks, with the rest either consolidated with strong banks or privatized.
Reduces Government Burden: Privatization will free up the government, the majority owner, from continuing to provide equity support to the banks year after year.
The government front-loaded Rs 70,000 crore into government-run banks in September 2019, Rs 80,000 crore in in FY18, and Rs 1.06 lakh crore in FY19 through recapitalization bonds.
It will be another step towards reducing the fiscal deficit and financing revenue expenditure through revenue receipts in the long term.
Rationalization of Banks in Post-COVID Scenario: After the Covid-related regulatory relaxations are lifted, banks are expected to report higher NPAs and loan losses.
This would mean the government would again need to inject equity into weak public sector banks. The government is trying to strengthen the strong banks and also minimize their numbers through privatization.
Changed Approach to Financial Sector Problems: Privatization and proposal of setting up an asset reconstruction company entirely owned by banks, underline an approach of finding market-led solutions to challenges in the financial sector.
Private Participation promotes innovation in market: Private Banks’ market share in loans has risen to 36% in 2020 from 21.26% in 2015, while public sector banks’ share has fallen to 59.8% from 74.28%. They have expanded the market share through new innovative products, latest technology, and better services.
Efficiency, financial prudence and governance: There is a belief that the public sector equates to inefficiency and corruption, while private ownership automatically brings with it efficiency, financial prudence and governance.
Also, privatizing a few loss-making PSBs will ensure that market discipline forces them to rectify their strategy, and this will have a ripple effect on other PSBs.
Better financial performance is ensured when a strong financial institution is involved as a significant shareholder in privatization.
What factors aggravated NPAs in PSBs?
During high growth period, FY07 to FY12, corporate groups has invested in mega projects in power, metals and infrastructure. They were funded by domestic banks.
By FY13, with regulatory hurdles hitting some projects and scams stalling others, many projects failed to take off and these groups landed in a classic debt trap.
Many companies took on more loans to manage their debts, which eventually turned into NPAs.
Which in turn took on a five-fold expansion in their aggregate debt from Rs. 1 lakh crore to Rs. 5.5 lakh crore (present value of NPAs).
Many PSBs chairman were given high political pressures to sanction loans to the companies which were favorable to politicians.
Factors against Privatization of PSBs
Undermining Social Welfare: Public banks open branches, ATMs, banking facilities, etc even in the non-profitable rural areas of India or the poorer sides where the possibility of getting big deposits or making money is less.
However, Private Banks are not inclined to do so and they may prefer opening such facilities mostly in megacities or urban areas.
If the corporate sector is allowed to dominate banking again, profit will become the prime motive rather than the desire to serve the public.
The government will have difficulty in providing low-cost financial services to rural and poor sections of society as the private may not like to extend its services to them.
International Precedent: Most East Asian success stories have been underpinned by financial systems effectively controlled by governments.
On the other hand, the governments of western countries, where banking is largely in the hands of the private sector, have had to rescue private banks from bankruptcy.
The past history of private sector banks tells the failure. Before 1969, all banks, except the SBI, were in the private sector. Between 1947 and 1969, 559 banks failed.
This would totally defeat the idea of inclusive banking as it is practiced now and was the guiding principle at the time of the nationalization of banks.
Public sector banks are created out of public money. These entities are therefore duty-bound to extend all types of services to customers across categories. Privatization will impact this very root purpose.
Way forward
We need a broad set of actions, some immediate and others over the medium-term and aimed at preventing the recurrence of such crises. Wholesale privatization of PSBs is thus not the answer to a complex problem.
Overall risk management at PSBs needs to be taken to a higher level. This certainly requires the strengthening of PSB boards. We need to induct more high-quality professionals on PSB boards and compensate them better.
In the case of banking, what is needed is increased autonomy for state-backed banks and strict regulatory oversight by the banking supervisor.
The boards of state-backed banks should be independent of political influence.
Managers should be held accountable for operational performance and there should be constant monitoring of targets, risk assessment, and credit controls.
The clean-up of bank balance sheets and the overhaul of India’s archaic insolvency law are steps in the right direction, but they will only bear fruit if accompanied by improved governance and regulation.
The Privatization of PSBs is not going to be easy, as it would involve building consensus amongst various stakeholders, including unions and parliamentarians. Further, Bank privatization, without strengthening regulatory controls and improving governance, won’t prevent fraud or curtail undue exposure to risk.
Conclusion
Privatization of banks is not a remedy to all solutions. With steps like Privatization of Banks, the Government should also focus on comprehensive governance reforms, resolution of NPAs, and creating a free market so that investment can be reinvigorated and wheels of the economy can again get back on track. Even though private sector banks have better balance sheets than PSBs, it is very important to consider that Privatization alone would not solve all of the problems faced by the sector. A better solution than privatization may well be giving PSBs autonomy to reform themselves and function free of political interference.
“Judiciary-Executive Clash Over Supremacy from 1947 Till Today“
In the Second Episode of The Overlooked Series, Sajal sir and Sudhanshu sir will look into the tussle between Executive and Judiciary since independence. They will discuss about the origin of the dispute and look into specific cases such as “Sankari Prasad” case, “Patanjali Sastry” case, “A N Ray” case, “H R Khanna” case, etc.
Please fill this form if you want to connect with Sajal sir or Sudhanshu sir:–
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Daily Study Plan with Answer Writing Challenge || STREAK FREE INITIATIVE FOR UPSC IAS – by Ravi Ranjan
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions on Polity – by Sukanya Rana
Q1) Consider the following statements with respective to Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules 2020
Under the Rules, an application to declare gender is to be made to the District Magistrate.
Under the rules transgender persons needs to go through a medical examination for declaring their desired sex.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q2) Consider the following statements with respective to Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council
The members of the council are elected and have executive powers over the allotment, use and occupation of land vested in them by the Centre.
The AHDCs have the powers to collect some local taxes, such as parking fees, taxes on shops etc.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q3) Consider the following statements
Appointments and promotions of district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court.
Parliament is empowered to make laws for the creation of one or more All-India Services, including an All India Judicial Service (AIJS).
All India Judicial Service (AIJS) shall not include any post inferior to that of a district judge.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Q4) In India, the Ministries/Departments of the Government are created by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under which of the following?
a. Article 75 of Indian Constitution
b. The Representation of Peoples Act, 1951
c. Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961
d. Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha
Q5) Consider the following statements with respective to Tele-Law programme
It was launched by the Ministry of Law and Justice in collaboration with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
It aims to address cases at the pre– litigation stage and free for those who are eligible for free legal Aid.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Polity – by Santosh Gupta
Q1) Consider the following statements
The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president.
They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.
The Constitution has debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. All of them
Q2) Consider the following statements
The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC on grounds of misbehavior after referring the matter to the Supreme Court.
The term misbehavior, however, has not been defined in the Constitution and has been left to the discretion of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of them
Q3) Consider the following statements about Finance Commission
It is a permanent quasi judicial body constituted by the president of India
The members of the Finance Commission are not eligible for reappointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 AND 2
d. None of them
Q4) Which of the following statements regarding CAG of India is/are correct?
The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.
He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
He holds office during the pleasure of the president as he is appointed by him.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 AND 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. All of them
Q5) Consider the following statements
The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president and he must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
The term of office of the AG is 5 years.
He holds office during the pleasure of the president.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. All of them
Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News – by Shweta Mishra
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
UPSC Daily Study Plan For 2021 and 2022 || STREAK – by Ravi Ranjan
CSAT for UPSC Prelims || Free CSAT Sessions by Civilsdaily – by Ravi Ranjan
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions on Polity – by Sukanya Rana
Q1) Consider the following statements with respect to Model Panchayat Citizens Charter
Panchayats are responsible for delivery of basic services as enshrined under article 243G of the Constitution of India.
The Charter would ensure transparent and effective delivery of public services and accountable Local Self Governments.
The charter was prepared by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj in collaboration with National Institute of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Q2) With respect to Election Commissioners, consider the following statements:
The Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court.
In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief election commissioner and the other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to PENCIL Portal
It is an electronic platform developed for the enforcement of legislative provisions of National Child Labour Policy (NCLP).
It works under the control of the Ministry of Labour & Employment.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q4) Consider the following statements with respective to Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
Under UAPA, the period of probe and detention of the accused can be extended up to 180 days.
Investigation of cases under UAPA, may be conducted by officers of the rank of Deputy Superintendent or Assistant Commissioner of Police or above.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q5) Consider the following statements with respective to Inland Vessels Bill, 2021
It will approve separate rules framed by the States for registration of inland vessels.
It will provide for a central database for recording the details of vessel, vessel registration, crew on an electronic portal.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Environment and Ecology – by Santosh Gupta
Q1) Consider the following statements regarding Project MIKE (Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants) :
It has been established by the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
It is a site-based system designed to monitor trends in the illegal killing of elephants to help range States make appropriate management and enforcement decisions.
The largest number of MIKE-sites are in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. all of them
Q2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Biosphere Reserves (BRs)?
BRs are admitted into the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme by the United Nations Environment Programme.
BRs under MAB programme remain under the sovereign jurisdiction of the State where they are situated.
There are 28 Biosphere reserves in India under MAB programme.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. All of them
Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to SAVE programme:
The objective of the programme is to save Asian vultures from extinction.
It is an initiative of International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. None of them
Q4) Consider the following statements regarding Global Footprint Network:
It was established by the World Summit on Sustainable Development in 2002.
It is responsible for hosting and calculating Earth Overshoot Day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of them
Q5) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Biosafety Clearing House’:
It has been established to facilitate the exchange of information on Living Modified Organisms to protect biological diversity.
It is a mechanism set up by the Nagoya Protocol.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of them
Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News – by Shweta Mishra
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions on Polity – by Sukanya Rana
Q1) Consider the following statements with respect to E-Courts Project
It is a pan-India Project, monitored and funded by the Department of Justice.
It is one of the National e-Governance projects being implemented in District and Subordinate Courts of the Country.
The project has been implemented by the eCommittee, Supreme Court of India along with Department of Justice and National Information Centre.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Q2) Consider the following statements with respect to Star Campaigners
1. The expenditure incurred on campaigning by „stars‟ is exempt from being added to the election expenditure of a candidate.
2. In India there is no law governing who can or cannot be made a star campaigner.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q3) Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to Provisions under Tribunal Reforms Ordinance 2021
1. Under this Chairperson and Members of the Tribunals will be appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a Search-cum Selection Committee.
2. It amended the Cinematograph Act, 1952 by which abolished the Film Certification Appellate Tribunal (FCAT).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q4) Consider the following statements with respect to National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of Indian Constitution.
2. The members of the commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his/her hand and seal.
3. The conditions of service and tenure of office of members of NCSC are determined by the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Q5) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Right to Freedom of Movement
1. It is protected against only state action and not private individuals.
2. It is guaranteed under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News – by Shweta Mishra
Samachar Manthan is our flagship program designed to help you develop a solid command on your newspaper reading and current affairs analyzing skills. We’re are also going to focus on imparting skills required to utilize current affairs. Since it builds your core, it is important for both Prelims and Mains.
Program inclusion
1. Weekly 3+ hours video lecture
2. High-quality Notes and reference material
3. Membership to Samachar Manthan Habitat club – doubts, discussion, and mentorship session.
4. Weekly Current Affairs based Mains Test (10 Questions) and Evaluation
5. Current Affairs Monthly Prelims Test package
6. Marathon Revision sessions on Habitat before Prelims and Mains
7. Frequent Google meet Sessions to check on Student’s Preparation status
8. Micro notes to help you make your notes.
Duration of the program:
This program will continue till UPSC Mains 2022
About the faculty leading this program:
Sajal Singh
Sajal sir is known to make Economics and IR as easy as a cakewalk. He scored one of the highest marks in GS in the 2017 UPSC exam. Under his guidance, more than 80 percent of Students qualified for UPSC interview 2020 in Smash mains Program.
Sudhanshu Mishra
Sudhanshu sir has firsthand experience of 3 mains and two interviews of UPSC. He has served in the defense ministry for 10 years with keen interests in regional and global geopolitics and has ample experience of various other competitive exams as well.
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
UPSC Daily Study Plan For 2021 and 2022 || STREAK – by Ravi Ranjan
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions on Polity – by Sukanya Rana
Q1) Consider the following statements with respect to State Election Commission
1. The functions of delimitation, reservation and rotation of local body election seats should be vested with the State Election Commission.
2. It should submit its annual or special reports to the Election Commission of India and to the Governor.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q2) With respect to Schedules of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Fifth Schedule asks for annual reports from the Governors of each State having Scheduled Areas to the President.
2. Sixth Schedule contains recommendations relating to the ability of the autonomous regions to frame land-use policies and policies related to reserved forests.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q3) Development and Welfare Board for Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities (DWBDNCs) works under the aegis of?
a. Ministry of Home Affairs
b. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
c. Ministry of Rural Development
d. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Q4) With respect to One Nation One Ration Card Scheme, consider the following statements:
a. The scheme is being implemented for nationwide portability of ration cards under National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013
b. This system allows all NFSA beneficiaries, particularly migrant beneficiaries, to claim either full or part foodgrains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in the country
c. The system also allows their family members back home, if any, to claim the balance foodgrains on same the ration card
d. None of the above
Q5) With respect to the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2021, consider the following statements:
1. Bill provides that the term government referred to in any law made by the Legislative Assembly will imply Lieutenant Governor.
2. The Bill prohibits the Legislative Assembly from making any rule to enable itself to consider the matters of day-to-day administration of the NCT of Delhi.
3. The bill states that the Lieutenant Governor‟s opinion must be obtained on every matter, before taking any executive action on the decisions of the Minister/ Council of Ministers.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Environment and Ecology – by Santosh Gupta
Q1) Consider the following statements regarding Global-Warming potential (GWP)
It’s a relative measure of how much heat a greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere.
It is expressed as a factor of carbon dioxide.
A high GWP correlates with a low infrared absorption and a long atmospheric lifetime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 AND 2
b. 2 AND 3
c. 1 AND 3
d. ALL OF THEM
Q2) Consider the following statements
While Clean Development Mechanism(CDM) works under Kyoto Protocol, Sustainable development mechanism(SDM) is a mechanism to ensure implementation of SDGs targets.
While Kyoto protocol ensure binding targets only for developed countries, Paris accord makes no such distinction.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of them
Q3) Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):
It was formed on the recommendations of the World Commission on Environment and Development.
It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
It has established the Global Mechanism (GM) to assist countries for mobilization of financial resources to address land degradation and drought.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. All of them
Q4) Consider the following statements regarding GHG Platform India:
1. It is a joint initiative of NITI Aayog and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
It will provide an estimation and analysis of India‘s greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions across key sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. None of them
Q5) With reference to the Project Predator, consider the following statements:
It is an initiative led by the United Nations Environment Programme.
It aims to enhance governance and law enforcement capacity for the conservation of Asian big cats and other wildlife species.
The project has its focus on the tiger range countries, including India.
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions on Polity || by Sukanya Rana
Q1) Consider following statements with respect Collegium System in Judicial Appointments
A Supreme Court collegium is led by its Chief Justice and four other senior most judges of that court.
Names recommended for appointment by a High Court collegium reaches the government only after approval by the CJI and the Supreme Court collegium.
Government cannot raise any objections and seek no clarifications regarding the Collegium’s choices.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q2) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to Rohini Commission
It was established to work out the mechanism in a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within OBCs.
It recommended 33% reservation in jobs and education under the central and state government for OBCs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to DNA Technology Bill
Under the Bill, DNA testing is allowed only in respect of matters listed in the Schedule to the Bill.
The Bill provides for the establishment of a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks, for every state, or two or more states.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q4) Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to Registered Unrecognised Political Parties
These are political parties which have contested at least in one Assembly or General Elections since being registered.
These Parties do not enjoy all the benefits extended to the recognised parties.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q5) Consider the following statements with respect to Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
It exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of all-India services, the Central civil services, civil posts under the Centre and members of the defence forces.
The appeals against the orders of the CAT could be made only in the Supreme Court and not in high courts.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Environment and Ecology || by Santosh Gupta
Q1) Which of the following are related to Ozone depletion?
Montreal Protocol
Kyoto Protocol
Vienna Convention
Kigali agreement
Which of the above statements are true?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of them
Q2) How does the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for intellectual Property Rights related to genetic resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
4. NBA was set up under obligation for Convention on biological diversity
Which of the above statements are true?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1,3 and 4
D. all of them
Q3) Which of the following is related to protection of biodiversity?
1. Convention of biological diversity
2. Nagoya protocol
3. Aichi targets
4. Minamata convention
5. UNESCO world heritage convention
Which of the above statements are true?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 ony
C All of them
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
Q4) Consider the following regarding outcomes of Rio earth summit, 1992
Agenda 21
Convention on biological diversity
UNFCCC
Foundation of IPCC
Global Environment Facility (GEF)
Which of the above statements are true?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. All of them
Q5) Which of the following are true about the aims of the Basel Convention?
1. The reduction of all hazardous waste generation
2. The restriction of trans-boundary movements of hazardous wastes including radioactive waste.
3. Creating a Regulatory system for trans boundary movement
4. Promote information sharing through prior informed consent
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions – by Sukanya Rana
Q1) By their percentage contribution to the greenhouse effect on Earth:
a) water vapour>co2>ch4>o3
b) co2>water vapour>ch4>o3
c) co2>ch4> o3>water vapour
d) water vapour>co2>o3>ch4
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?
a) High pollution
b) Available only in few places
c) High running cost
d) Unreliable supply
Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to International Nitrogen Initiative (INI)
1. It was set up in 2003 under UNESCO’s International Geosphere Biosphere Program (IGBP).
2. INI conferences will be held every three years on different continents.
3. INI 2021 is being hosted by India’s Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q4) Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the following states?
a) Telangana
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Maharashtra
d) Jharkhand
Consider the following statements:
1. It is surrounded by the Phipsoo Wildlife Sanctuary to its north, the Buxa Tiger Reserve to its west and the Manas National Park to its east.
2. The National Park, which has 11 different forest types and subtypes, is home to the golden langur, elephant, tiger, clouded leopard and Indian gaur.
Q5) Identify the National Park using the description given above:
a) Rajbari National Park
b) Mouling National Park
c) Raimona National Park
d) Saddle Peak National Park
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Environment & Ecology for UPSC Prelims 2021 – by Santosh Gupta
Q1) Consider the following statements in context to Indian pangolin.
1. They are critically endangered.
2. The Indian pangolin is found in India and Pakistan only.
3. They are protected under Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).
Select the correct code from the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) All of them
Q2) Select the correct statement/s in context to Fresh water crocodiles
1. India has two species of freshwater crocodiles
2. It prefers fast moving water.
3. Now it is only found in Chambal river sanctuary
Which of the above statements are true?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) All of them
Q3) With reference to sea cows. i. e., ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivore feeding on seagrass
2. These mammals are found only in warm
coastal waters of the Indian Ocean.
3. It is listed as endangered in the IUCN
Red List.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q4) Identify the correct statement/s in context to Hoolock Gibbons.
1. Hoolock Gibbons are the only species of apes found in India.
2. They can live in high temperature conditions.
3. It is found in the Southern part of India.
Which of the above statements are true?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) All of them
Q5) Which of the following species is/are now
extinct in the wild in India?
1. Indian Cheetah
2. Pink-headed duck
3. Dodo bird
4. Siberian crane
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News – by Shweta Mishra
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
UPSC Daily Study Plan For 2021 and 2022 || STREAK – by Ravi Ranjan
CSAT for UPSC Prelims || Free CSAT Sessions by Civilsdaily – by Ravi Ranjan
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions – by Sukanya Rana
Q1) Which of the following can cause DNA damage and mutations in humans?
a. Absorption of UV – A and UV – B
b. Absorption of UV – B
c. Absorption of UV – A
d. Absorption of UV – A and UV – C
Q2) Consider the following statements:
The objective of the Minamata Convention is to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.
The treaty also addresses the direct mining of mercury, its export and import, its safe storage and its disposal once as waste.
Dental fillings which use amalgam are also regulated under the convention.
Select the correct option:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
Q3) Consider the following statements about ozone hole over Arctic
It has reached a maximum extension of around 1 million sq km.
Recently, the German Aerospace Centre observed the closure of ozone holes mainly because of the reduced pollution levels due to covid-19 lockdown.
Which of the above statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q4) Consider the following statements with respect to Deepor Beel Lake
It is a permanent freshwater lake, in a former channel of the Brahmaputra River.
It is the only wetland in Assam designated as a site of importance under Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q5) Consider the following statements with respect to Galathea National Park
It is located on the island of Great Nicobar in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
It is an iconic nesting site in India of the enigmatic Giant Leatherback, the world’s largest marine turtle.
The park is home to the indigenous Shompen community.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Environment & Ecology – by Santosh Gupta
Q1) Which of the following are regarded as ‘Ecosystem services’?
Soil formation
Nutrient cycling
Habitat for wildlife
Climate regulation
Tourism
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3, 4 and 5only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. All of them
Q2) Which of the following is/are the causes of coral bleaching in India?
Excessive sedimentation in the reef
ecosystem
Excess nutrients like ammonia and
nitrates entering the reef system
Increased exposure to Ultraviolet (UV)
Radiation
Repeated EL- Nino and La- Nina
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. All of them
Q3) Which of the following contribute in the Cultural eutrophication?
Excessive use of fertilisers
Untreated sewage
Detergents containing phosphorus
Discharge of industrial waste
Acid rain
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 2, 3 and 4 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. All of them
Q4) Which of the following is/are the reasons for ozone depletion by polar stratospheric clouds?
They convert free radicals of halogens to oxide which then reacts with ozone causing its depletion.
They remove gaseous nitric acid which reacts with oxides of halogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. None of them
Q5) Consider the following statements
The acidified ocean water leads to reduction of sulphur which may lead to decreased cloud formation and raising global temperatures.
Ocean acidification occurs through the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere only
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. None of them
Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News – by Shweta Mishra
Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.
