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  • Parliamentary panel questions Meta and threatens Section 79 safe harbour

    Why in the News?

    The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Communications and Information Technology questioned Meta over the temporary removal of the Prime Minister’s Facebook post and warned of withdrawing safe harbour protection under Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.

    What is Section 79?

    • Grants safe harbour protection to intermediaries, shielding them from liability for third-party content.
    • Applies only if intermediaries:
      • Follow due diligence requirements.
      • Do not create or modify user content.
      • Comply with lawful government or court directions.

    Who is an Intermediary?

    • An entity that stores or transmits third-party content, such as Social media platforms, Internet Service Providers (ISPs), and Search engines
    • Hosts user-generated content without being its author.

    Key Findings

    • A Prime Ministerial Facebook post was temporarily restricted.
    • The Parliamentary Committee sought:
      • An explanation and audit trail from Meta.
      • Assurance against future recurrence.
    • The issue revived the debate on intermediary liability and platform accountability.

    Challenges

    • Withdrawal of safe harbour may encourage excessive content removal.
    • Risks chilling free speech and legitimate dissent.
    • Platforms cannot realistically pre-screen billions of posts.
    • Balancing accountability with freedom of expression remains difficult.

    Back2Basics

    • Information Technology Act, 2000: Governs cyber laws and intermediary liability in India.
    • IT Rules, 2021: Prescribe due diligence obligations for intermediaries.
    • Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015): Supreme Court held that content takedown under Section 79 generally requires a court order or government notification.

    [2017] In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?

    1. Service providers

    2. Data Centres

    3. Body corporate.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3.

  • Why has West Bengal cleared land for the BSF now?

    Why in the News?

    The West Bengal Cabinet approved the transfer of 31.905 acres of land at nine locations and 1.53 acres for three new Border Outposts (BOPs) to the Border Security Force (BSF) for border fencing and security infrastructure.

    Why Does the Centre Need State Approval for Border Fencing?

    • Although border security is a Union subject, the land on which fencing and Border Outposts are built is administered by the State Government under State List Entry 18.
    • Therefore, the Centre must rely on the State for:
      • Transfer of government land.
      • Acquisition of private land.
      • Revenue and environmental clearances.
      • Compensation and rehabilitation.
      • Support from district administration.

    Centre-State Disputes over BSF Jurisdiction

    • In 2021, the Centre extended the BSF’s jurisdiction from 15 km to 50 km inside Punjab, West Bengal, and Assam (while reducing it in Gujarat).
    • Some States opposed the move, citing federalism and State autonomy.
    • 2024 Supreme Court Judgment: Upheld the Centre’s notification, holding that it does not dilute the powers of State Police and is intended to strengthen border security.

    What is the Border Security Force (BSF)?

    • Border Security Force (BSF): A Central Armed Police Force (CAPF) under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
    • Guards India’s borders with Pakistan and Bangladesh during peacetime.
    • Prevents cross-border crimes and manages Border Outposts (BOPs).

    Key Highlights

    • Land transferred for border fencing and construction of three new BOPs.
    • Implements the Calcutta High Court’s January 2026 directive.
    • Aims to strengthen border surveillance and security.

    Why is West Bengal Important?

    • Shares 2,216.7 km of the 4,096.7 km India-Bangladesh border (about 54%), the longest among all States.
    • Around 569 km of the border remains unfenced, making it crucial for completing the national fencing project.

    Key Agreements

    • Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP), 2011: Framework for coordination between BSF and Border Guard Bangladesh (BGB).
    • Land Boundary Agreement (LBA), 2015: Resolved enclave exchange and adverse possession issues between India and Bangladesh.

    Challenges

    • Riverine and marshy terrain limits conventional fencing.
    • Land acquisition and environmental clearances delay projects.
    • Border communities face livelihood and mobility concerns.
    • Persistent issues of smuggling, illegal migration and human trafficking.

    [2016, GS3, 12.5 marks] Border management is a complex task due to difficult terrain and hostile relations with some countries. Elucidate the challenges and strategies for effective border management.
    [2026] Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?
    1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
    2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
    3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.
    Select the answer using the code given below :

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 1 and 2

    [C] 2 and 3

    [D] 3 only

  • Lok Sabha passes the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill 2026

    Why in the news?

    The Lok Sabha passed the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026, increasing the sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court of India from 34 to 38 judges (including the Chief Justice of India (CJI)) to address rising case pendency.

    Key Provisions

    • Increased Strength: Raises the sanctioned strength from 34 to 38 judges.
    • Replaces Ordinance: Converts the earlier ordinance into permanent law.
    • Objective: Improve disposal of cases and reduce judicial backlog.

    Constitutional Basis

    • Article 124: Empowers Parliament to determine the number of Supreme Court judges by law.
    • Governing Law: Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.

    Why is the Amendment Needed?

    • Over 92,000 cases were pending in the Supreme Court (as of 1 January 2026).
    • Growing gap between institution and disposal of cases.
    • Increasing litigation has added pressure on the Court.

    Challenges

    • Sanctioned posts must be filled promptly.
    • Delays in the Collegium appointment process.
    • More judges require additional infrastructure and staff.
    • Procedural delays and frequent adjournments remain unresolved.

    Back2Basics

    • Article 124: Establishes the Supreme Court and empowers Parliament to fix its strength.
    • Original Strength (1950): Chief Justice + 7 judges.
    • Appointment: By the President of India under the Collegium System.
    • Retirement Age: 65 years.
    • Evolution: Three Judges Cases
      • First Judges Case (1981): Executive had primacy in appointments.
      • Second Judges Case (1993): Introduced the Collegium System; judiciary gained primacy.
      • Third Judges Case (1998): Expanded the Collegium to the CJI plus four senior-most Supreme Court judges.

    [2014] The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in?

    (a) The President of India

    (b) The Parliament

    (c) The Chief Justice of India

    (d) The Law Commission

  • New real-time national portal for organ transplants

    Why in the News?

    The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) has launched a real-time national portal and mobile application to streamline organ transplantation by creating a unified waiting list, enabling national swap donations, and improving transparency.

    Key Features

    • National Waiting List: Creates hospital, State, regional and national waiting lists.
    • Real-time Allocation: Enables transparent organ allocation across India.
    • National Swap Donor Pool: Matches incompatible donor-recipient pairs across the country.
    • Aadhaar-linked Organ Pledge: Links donor pledges with Aadhaar for better verification.
    • Outcome Tracking: Hospitals upload follow-up data to monitor transplant outcomes.

    How does the Portal Work?

    • Patients are registered by authorised transplant hospitals.
    • Allocation follows the sequence: Hospital → State → Regional → National pool.
    • Kidney Allocation: Donor hospital retains one kidney and sends the other to the nearest matching government hospital.
    • Supports super-urgent transplant requests through the portal.

    Significance

    • Improves transparency and equity in organ allocation.
    • Expands the pool for compatible donor matching.
    • Reduces dependence on manual coordination.
    • Creates a national transplant database for better monitoring.

    Challenges

    • Different States follow different organ allocation policies.
    • NOTTO cannot mandate uniform allocation rules.
    • Low deceased organ donation rates remain a major constraint.
    • Portal effectiveness depends on accurate hospital data entry.

    Back2Basics

    • NOTTO: National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation.
    • Parent Body: Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
    • Legal Basis: Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994 (THOTA).
    • Network: Works with Regional Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisations (ROTTOs) and State Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisations (SOTTOs).

    [2023] Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
    Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    [A] Both Statement-I and Statement-l are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

    [B] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-is not the correct explanation for Statement-l.

    [C] Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

    [D] Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-Il is correct.

  • Proof of life: reworking the law on delayed birth and death registration

    Why in the News?

    The Lok Sabha passed the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026, amending the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969. It requires a Judicial Magistrate’s order for registration of births or deaths delayed by more than two years.

    Key Provisions

    • Judicial Approval: Delayed registration beyond 2 years requires approval from a Judicial Magistrate.
    • Existing Process Retained: Delays up to 2 years continue to require approval from an Executive Magistrate.
    • Objective: Strengthen verification and prevent fraudulent birth or death registrations.

    Why was the Amendment Needed?

    • The 2023 amendment made the birth certificate the primary proof of date and place of birth for: School admissions, Passports, Aadhaar, Voter rolls, Driving licences, and Government jobs
    • Higher importance of birth certificates increased the risk of fraudulent registrations.

    Significance

    • Enhances authenticity of delayed registrations.
    • Supports reliable digital civil registration records.
    • Reduces misuse of birth certificates for identity fraud.

    Challenges

    • Judicial process may increase costs and delays for genuine applicants.
    • Remote and vulnerable populations may face greater difficulty.
    • Adds workload to the lower judiciary.
    • No clear evidence supporting the two-year threshold.

    Back2Basics

    • Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969: Makes registration of every birth and death compulsory.
    • Registrar General of India (RGI): Nodal authority under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
    • Concurrent List: Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on registration.
    • 2023 Amendment: Birth certificate became the primary document for proving date and place of birth.

    [2018] Consider the following statements:
    1.Aadhaar can be used as proof of citizenship and domicile.
    2.Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the issuing authority.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • Why lab-grown diamonds are a sustainable alternative to mined stones

    Why in the News?

    With natural diamond reserves declining and concerns over environmental damage, conflict diamonds and forced labour, India is promoting Lab-Grown Diamonds (LGDs) through the India Centre for Lab-Grown Diamond (InCent-LGD) at Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras.

    What is the Kimberley Process?

    • Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS): An international certification system launched in 2003 to prevent conflict (blood) diamonds from entering global trade.
    • Limitation: Difficult to trace the geographic origin of diamonds, enabling smuggling.

    Significance of Lab-Grown Diamonds

    • Lower water, land and environmental footprint.
    • Fully traceable and ethically sourced.
    • More affordable than mined diamonds.
    • Used in jewellery, cutting tools, drilling, semiconductors and quantum computing.

    India’s Initiative

    • Union Budget 2023-24 announced support for indigenous LGD production.
    • InCent-LGD established at IIT Madras with a ₹243 crore grant from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    • Focuses on developing indigenous diamond seeds, machinery and manufacturing technology.

    [2018] Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

    [A] Francois Bernier

    [B] Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

    [C] Jean de Thevenot

    [D] Abbe Barthelemy Carre

  • Rajya Sabha passes the MSME Development (Amendment) Bill 2026

    Why in the News?

    The Rajya Sabha passed the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) Development (Amendment) Bill, 2026, replacing the MSME Development Act, 2006. It aims to improve formalisation and liquidity by introducing a digital registration platform and mandatory invoice settlement through Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS).

    Key Provisions

    • National Digital Registration: Free, voluntary online registration for MSMEs.
    • Mandatory TReDS: Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) must settle MSME invoices through the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS).
    • Updated Framework: Replaces the 2006 Act governing MSME classification, credit and delayed payments.
    • Objective: Improve timely payments while balancing business interests.

    What is TReDS?

    • Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) is a Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulated electronic platform where MSMEs sell approved invoices to financiers for immediate cash.
    • Process: MSME uploads invoice → financiers bid → MSME gets upfront payment → buyer pays financier on the due date.

    Why is the Amendment Needed?

    • Delayed payments reduce MSME working capital.
    • Easier registration promotes formalisation and access to credit.
    • Institutional credit has grown, but access remains uneven.

    Importance of MSMEs

    • Contribute 31% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
    • Account for 36% of manufacturing output.
    • Contribute 41% of exports.
    • Second largest employer after agriculture.

    Challenges

    • Voluntary registration may exclude many firms.
    • TReDS mandate covers only CPSEs.
    • Smaller firms may struggle to attract financiers.
    • Weak enforcement and digital literacy remain concerns.

    MSME Classification

    • Micro: Investment ≤ ₹2.5 crore; Turnover ≤ ₹10 crore
    • Small: Investment ≤ ₹25 crore; Turnover ≤ ₹100 crore
    • Medium: Investment ≤ ₹125 crore; Turnover ≤ ₹500 crore

    Key Initiatives

    • Udyam Registration Portal
    • MSME Samadhaan
    • Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS)
    • Priority Sector Lending (PSL)

    “[2023] Consider the following statements with reference to India:

    1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.

    2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

  • An AI and agriculture compact for Andhra Pradesh

    Why in the News

    A proposal ties a planned large data centre in Andhra Pradesh to a new compact between artificial intelligence and agriculture. The idea is to use farmer-owned solar generation and agrivoltaics to power data infrastructure while raising farm incomes, linking a technology investment to rural livelihoods.

    What is agrivoltaics?

    1. Meaning: Agrivoltaics is the practice of using the same land for both solar power generation and crop cultivation.
    2. Dual output: Panels are raised or spaced so crops grow beneath them, producing electricity and food from one plot.
    3. Income effect: Farmers earn from power sales alongside crop income, diversifying their earnings.

    What is the Deemed Distribution Licence (DDL) idea?

    1. Meaning: A Deemed Distribution Licence (DDL) would let farmer solar cooperatives supply power directly to large consumers such as a data centre.
    2. Purpose: It creates a guaranteed buyer for farmer-generated solar power, making the investment viable.

    How would the compact work?

    1. Data centre demand: A proposed data centre provides a large, steady electricity buyer located near farms.
    2. Farmer solar cooperatives: Farmers pool land for solar and agrivoltaics, selling power to that demand.
    3. PM-KUSUM base: The model builds on the PM-KUSUM scheme, which already supports farm-based solar generation.

    What are the challenges to the AI-agriculture compact

    1. Grid and pricing rules: Direct farmer-to-consumer supply needs regulatory clearance that does not yet exist at scale.
    2. Upfront capital: Solar and agrivoltaic installations require finance that smallholders often cannot raise alone.
    3. Crop suitability: Not all crops grow well under panels, limiting where agrivoltaics works.
    4. Water and land tension: Land pooling and water use must not displace food production or small tenants.
    5. Demand certainty: Farmer incomes depend on the data centre actually materialising and buying the power.

    Conclusion

    The compact links a technology investment to rural incomes by making farmers power suppliers to a data centre. Agrivoltaics and a DDL model, built on PM-KUSUM, are the enabling tools. Its viability depends on regulatory clearance, upfront finance and a certain power buyer.

  • Reviving the privatisation question for ONGC and Oil India

    Why in the News

    Shifts in global oil markets have reopened the question of whether the government should privatise its upstream oil producers, ONGC and Oil India Limited. The tension is between raising efficiency and revenue through disinvestment and retaining state control over a strategically sensitive energy sector.

    What is the disinvestment question here?

    1. The proposal: The government should reduce or exit its ownership in Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) and Oil India Limited (OIL), the two major state-owned upstream oil producers.
    2. Efficiency case: Private ownership is argued to improve operational efficiency, capital discipline and exploration performance.
    3. Fiscal case: Sale proceeds would count as capital receipts and support the government’s fiscal position.

    Why is the timing being debated?

    1. Changing oil markets: Global demand patterns and the energy transition are altering the long-term value of oil assets, affecting when a sale makes sense.
    2. Price volatility: OPEC production decisions and the West Asia risk premium make oil revenues and asset valuations unstable.
    3. Energy security tension: Upstream producers underpin domestic supply and Strategic Petroleum Reserves, so full privatisation raises supply-security concerns.

    What must hold for privatisation to deliver?

    1. Genuine competition: Efficiency gains require a competitive market, not the transfer of a public monopoly to a private one.
    2. Regulatory strength: Independent regulation is needed to protect consumers and ensure fair pricing after a sale.
    3. Strategic safeguards: The state must retain mechanisms to secure supply during global disruptions even after reducing ownership.

    Conclusion

    The privatisation of ONGC and OIL turns on whether efficiency and revenue gains outweigh the loss of state control over a strategic sector. Volatile oil markets and energy-security needs complicate the timing. The decision depends on building genuine competition and strong safeguards before, not after, any sale.

    Back2Basics

    Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)

    1. Founded: August 14, 1956
    2. Headquarters: New Delhi
    3. Status: Maharatna PSU
    4. Role: India’s largest crude oil and natural gas producer, contributing roughly 70% of domestic crude production and 84% of natural gas.
    5. Operations: Extensive onshore and offshore infrastructure across India, alongside global overseas ventures via ONGC Videsh.

    Oil India Limited (OIL)

    1. Founded: February 18, 1959 (with roots tracing back to the 1889 Digboi oil discovery)
    2. Headquarters: Duliajan, Assam
    3. Status: Maharatna PSU
    4. Role: India’s second-largest national upstream oil and gas company, heavily focused on the Northeast region of India as well as pan-India and international blocks.
    5. Operations: Fully integrated exploration, production, and crude oil transportation, plus a majority stake in Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL)

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2025] Consider the following statements: I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

    Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

    Answer: (a)

  • Mounting rupee pressure weighs on India’s external trade

    Why in the News

    The rupee has depreciated about 9% against the US dollar over a year, moving from around Rs 87.5 to Rs 95.4 to the dollar. The fall exposes how far India’s trade balance now depends on external shocks it does not control, rather than on domestic competitiveness.

    What is the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER)?

    1. Meaning: The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is the value of the rupee against a trade weighted basket of partner currencies, adjusted for inflation differences between the countries.
    2. What it signals: A falling REER means Indian goods are becoming cheaper abroad in real terms, which should aid exports but also signals weakening currency strength.
    3. Recent movement: The REER fell between 9% and 11.7% over the period, tracking the nominal depreciation of the rupee.

    What is driving the rupee’s depreciation?

    1. US tariff action: US tariffs on Indian goods rose as high as 50% from August 2025, before being reduced to 10% from February 2026, disrupting export earnings.
    2. Portfolio outflows: Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI) pulled capital out of Indian markets, reducing dollar inflows and pressuring the currency.
    3. West Asia conflict: The conflict around the Strait of Hormuz raised crude oil prices, widening the oil import bill.
    4. Structural import dependence: India remains dependent on imports for electronics, Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (API) and critical minerals, keeping import demand high regardless of the rupee’s level.

    Why does the depreciation worsen rather than correct the trade gap?

    1. Widening deficit: The trade deficit widened to $333.6 billion in 2025-26, showing that a cheaper rupee has not narrowed the import bill.
    2. Inelastic imports: Import dependence on energy and critical inputs means volumes do not fall much when the rupee weakens, so the import bill rises in rupee terms.
    3. Export limits: Tariff barriers in key markets cap the export gains a weaker rupee would normally deliver.

    What are the challenges to stabilizing the rupee and the trade balance

    1. Import concentration: Heavy reliance on a few import categories, energy, electronics and critical minerals, leaves the deficit exposed to global price swings.
    2. Reserve drawdown: Defending the rupee through Reserve Bank of India (RBI) dollar sales draws down foreign exchange reserves and cannot continue indefinitely.
    3. Imported inflation: A weaker rupee raises the cost of imported fuel and inputs, feeding into domestic inflation.
    4. Capital flow volatility: FPI flows can reverse quickly with shifts in US interest rates, making the rupee vulnerable to sudden outflows.
    5. Manufacturing gap: Without deeper domestic manufacturing of electronics and pharmaceutical inputs, the structural import bill stays high across cycles.

    Conclusion

    The rupee’s slide is driven mainly by external forces, US tariffs, portfolio outflows and oil prices, not by weaker domestic fundamentals alone. A cheaper currency has failed to correct the trade deficit because import demand is inelastic and export gains are capped by tariffs. Reducing import dependence in energy, electronics and critical minerals is the only durable route to a stronger external position.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2020] With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. 2. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years. 3. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services. 4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

    Answer: (d)