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What are the major causes of river pollution? How can it be controlled

We have launched our special Prelims focused paid program Super Intensive Prelims (SIP) 2018 (Click2Know all details of the program)

Along with the paid program, we will also be running a special FREE initiative on daily basis providing students with revision questions for static subjects as well as current affairs starting from June 2017

Structure of the program:

• We will be providing 20 questions on a DAILY basis especially handpicked by our mentors basis their difficulty as well as student performance on those questions
• Along with the questions, detailed solutions will be provided in a PDF at the end of the test
• We will also create an open telegram group for student discussion on these tests as well as doubt resolution that arise while attempting questions from the test
• Our mentors will be providing students of the telegram group guidance on regular basis (based on nature of doubts i.e. the doubts that do not find a solution via peer discussions will be resolved by our mentors)
• Every Sunday will be a revision day and no test will be uploaded on that day to let students review their performance as well as progress in previous tests
• We will try and provide additional reading links and part of our study material (also available on our website) along with the tests
• The test will be made live daily at 7 pm
• Students participating on the website via comments will be evaluated by our mentors and they will be provided with an extra focus based on their efforts and requirements

We are merging our Prelims Daily initiative with this program till Prelims 2018.

The Open SIP program starts April 2

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The numerical ability and logical reasoning questions in CSAT, Paper II for the year 2017 were a good mix of easy and tough questions. There were certain questions which required candidate to know complex mathematical concepts while at the same time there were certain questions which were pretty easy

We have tried to use simple numerical methods and logic to solve most questions except in cases where complex mathematics was the only way out but luckily such questions were very few in number. The numerical ability and logical reasoning question have followed the same trend over the years with good number of easy and medium questions interspersed with tough nuts

Number system, Time-Speed-Distance, Work and Average have been recurring themes over the years and it shall be beneficial for the candidates to solve the questions from related chapters of Class IX and Class X.  It shall also come handy to solve all the previous year CSAT Paper II questions as sometimes the concept remains the same, only the presentation changes in questions being asked

So here are the solutions for the numerical ability and logical reasoning questions for the year 2017:

1. Certain 3-digit numbers following characteristics:
2. All the three digits are different.
3. The number is divisible by 7.
4. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7.

How many such 3-digit numbers are there?

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8

Solution:

Let the number be 100x + 10y + z, where x, y and z are single digit numbers and x > 0.

Now the reverse number shall be 100z + 10 y + x. Now it is given that both of them are divisible by 7 and hence their difference shall also be divisible by 7.

Thus  (100x + 10y + z) – (100z + 10 y + x) = 7m, where m is an integer.

This implies that 99(x – z) = 7m.

Now since 99 is not divisible by 7 therefore x-z should be divisible by 7. Again since x and z are single digit numbers their difference which is divisible by 7 would actually be 7 only, because for no value of x or z shall x-z be equal to 14 or 21 or 28 etc.

Thus we have x – z = 7 and the values that x and z can take are (9,2) and (8, 1)

Thus the numbers are of the form 1_8 and 2_9.

Now in 1_8, number at unit’s place is 8 so we should get a carry-over of 2 from the division of number formed by the digits at hundred’s and ten’s place to make the number become completely divisible by 7 (we want to make it 28 which is divisible by 7). Thus the ten’s digit should be 6 and number shall be 168. The reverse number 861 is also divisible by 7. Thus two of our required numbers are 168 and 861.

Now in 2_9, number at unit’s place is 9 so we should get a carry-over of 4 from the division of number formed by the digits at hundred’s and ten’s place to make the number become completely divisible by 7 (we want to make it 49 which is divisible by 7). Thus the ten’s digit should be 5 and number shall be 259. The reverse number 952 is also divisible by 7. Thus other two of our numbers are 259 an 952.

Thus there are four numbers satisfying all three conditions and hence the answer is

(b) 4

2. Examine the following statements:
3. All colours are pleasant.
4. Some colours are pleasant.
5. No colour is pleasant.
6. Some colours are not pleasant.

Given that statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?

(a) 1 and 2 are true.

(b) 3 is true.

(c) 2 is false.

(d) 1 is false.

Solution:

It is given that statement 4 is true i.e. some colours are not pleasant. Now if some colour are pleasant then its corollary is that some of them are pleasant.

Now let us evaluate rest of the three statements:

1. All colours are pleasant….This is in clear contravention to statement 4 so Statement 1 is false.
2. Some colours are pleasant….Yes this is true as we found out in the corollary of statement 4.
3. No colour is pleasant…..No this is false as we found out in the corollary of statement 4.

Thus we know that statement 1 is false, 2 is true and 3 is false.

And hence answer choice is (d).

(d) 1 is false.

3. How many numbers arc there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?

(a) 64

(b) 80

(c) 90

(d) 104

Solution:

We have to find out number between 99 and 1000 i.e. all three digit numbers such that unit’s digit is 8. Nothing has been said of digits at hundred’s or ten’s place.

Now number of digits that can occupy hundred’s place = 9 (1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9) [0 not included as it will make the number a two digit number]

Number of digits that can occupy ten’s place = 10 (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9) [0 included as well]

Now number of digits that can occupy one’s place = 1 (only 8 can occupy this position as stated in the question)

Therefore total numbers between 99 and 1000 where unit’s place is occupied by 8  = 9 × 10 ×1 = 90.

Thus the answer option is

(c) 90

4. If for a sample data

Mean < Median < Mode

then the distribution is

(a) symmetric

(b) skewed to the right

(c) neither symmetric nor skewed

(d) skewed to the left

Solution:

A direct question from basic statistics, For a distribution skewed to the left Mean < Median < Mode. Thus the answer is:

(d) skewed to the left

5. The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the cube of a number again?

(a) 42

(b) 38

(c) 25

(d) 16

Solution:

Last year the age was square of a number therefore it may have been 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49 etc.

Now let us check in which of the above cases the age next year i.e. after 2 years shall be a cube. After 2  years the ages shall be 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, 38, 51 etc. In only one case, that is 64, the age shall be cube of a number. Thus we get the combination of ages we are looking for. Last year age was 25 (a square), this year age is 26 and next year age shall be 27 (a cube).

Now his age will be cube of number again when he is 64. So he must wait for 64 – 26 = 38 years. Thus the answer is option (b).

(b) 38

6. P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings?

(a) 3 : 1 : 1

(b) 3 : 2 : 4

(c) 4 : 3 : 4

(d) 3 : 1 : 4

Solution:

They will share earnings in the ratio of the amount of work they do. Now P and Q together can work four times as fast as R which means in the time taken by R to finish one unit of work, P and Q together shall finish 4 units of work.

Let us assume there are a total of 15 units of work to be finished. When the work is finished, P and Q together would have finished 12 units (4/5th of 15 units) and R would have finished 3 units. Out of these 12 units, since P is 3 times more efficient, P would have finished 9 units (3/4th of 12 units) of work. Therefore the units of work done by P, Q and R is respectively 9 : 3 : 3. Therefore their earnings shall be shared in the same ratio of  9 : 3 : 3 i.e. 3 : 1 : 1. Therefore, answer shall be option (a):

(a) 3 : 1 : 1

[Note: If A can work x times faster than B, then A’s share of work shall be x/(x+1)th part of the total work]

7. Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F:
8. The number of males equals that of females.
9. A and E are sons of F.
10. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl.
11. B is the son of A.
12. There is only one married couple in the family at present.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?

(a) A, B and C are all females.

(b) A is the husband of D.

(c) E and F are children of D.

(d) D is the daughter of F.

Solution:

Number of males = 3 and Number of females = 3.

A and E are males/sons of F (who can be male/female)

B is son of A. This means A, B and E are the males in the family and C, D and F are females.

                                             F (female)

 

                         A (son/male) E (son/male)

 

 

                          B (son/male)

Now it is given that there is only one married couple and D is mother of 2 (a boy and a girl). D is married to either A or E or B. D cannot be married to B because then with 2 children (of which one is son) number of males shall become 4 and it shall violate given condition. D cannot be married to E because then again number of males in family would increase to 4 and that shall violate given condition. That means D is married to A and has B as son, C as daughter and A as husband. So out of the options given, only option (b) can be inferred. Thus the answer is

(b) A is the husband of D.

8. A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?

(a) 17

(b) 16

(c) 13

(d) 11

Solution:

We have to find out minimum number of balls that should be drawn to be sure to get at least one ball of each of the three colours. Now let us consider the worst case scenario:

If we start drawing balls and all the balls turn out to be green, then all balls turn out to be white. So we have drawn 8 + 7 = 15 balls by now. Now if we draw one more ball it will definitely be red and we would have at least one ball of each colour with us. So total balls drawn = 15 + 1 = 16. Thus the answer is option (b).

(b) 16

[Note : It is possible that first ball we draw is green, second we draw is white and third we draw is red i.e. we have three draws and three balls, one each of different colour, has been picked up as required. But in this case it is luck that it happened in three picks. But the question is that we have to be sure that we get at least one ball of each colour out and for that we have to consider the worst case scenario as explained above.]

9. If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there?

(a) 3

(b) 6

(c) 12

(d) 24

Solution:

Instead of using permutation and combination let us try to count the arrangements as the number of boys and girls is less.

Let the seats be numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4 and boys and girls be represented as B1, B2, G1 and G2.

First of all let us fix the seat of G1 at seat no 1 and count the arrangements we need:

 

1	2	3	4
G1	B1	G2	B2
G1	B1	B2	G2
G1	B2	G2	B1
G1	B2	B1	G2

So total arrangement = 4. Similarly let us place G1 at seat 2, 3 and 4 in turn and count the arrangements:

 

1	2	3	4
B1	G1	B2	G2
B2	G1	B1	G2

Number of arrangement = 2

 

1	2	3	4
G2	B1	G1	B2
G2	B2	G1	B1

Number of arrangement = 2

 

 

1	2	3	4
B1	G2	B2	G1
G2	B1	B2	G1
B2	G2	B1	G1
G2	B2	B1	G1

Number of arrangement = 4

Thus the total number of arrangements = 4 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 12

Hence the answer is option (c):

(c) 12

10. The outer surface of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted faces?

(a) 8

(b) 16

(c) 24

(d) 36

Solution:

The question involves a bit of imagery on the part of the candidates and a careful counting. If the top and bottom levels of smaller cubes (all of which shall have at least one painted face) are removed, we shall be left with 32 cubes. Out of these 32 cubes, which form the remaining two levels, the cubes on the outer periphery shall have one painted face. At each level there shall be 12 such cubes that will have one face painted. Thus removing these 12 cubes from each of the remaining levels we are left with 32 – 12 – 12 = 8 cubes who would not have any painted face. Therefore the answer is option (a):

(a) 8

11. Consider the following:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North.

B is not neighbour of G.

F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E.

G is not at the extreme end.

A is sixth to the left of E.

H is sixth to the right of C.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above?

(a) C is to the immediate left of A.

(b) D is immediate neighbour of B and F.

(c) G is to the immediate right of D.

(d) A and E are at the extreme ends.

Solution:

Let us assume we are facing them and then imagine the arrangement:

A is sixth to the left of E, which means there are 5 others between A and E.

A

E

Or

A

E

 

H is sixth to the right of C, which means there are 5 others between H and C.

C

H

Or

C

H

If we combine above arrangements, we have following possibilities:

C

A

H

E

Or

A

C

E

H

Since F is neighbor of E, we can have only of the above arrangements as the possibility and which is as under:

A

C

F

E

H

Putting G to the immediate right of F we get:

A

C

G

F

E

H

B is not neighbour of G, which means final position is as under:

A

C

B

D

G

F

E

H

Now let us check the options:

(a) C is to the immediate left of A…..ANSWER

(b) D is immediate neighbour of B and F…..NO

(c) G is to the immediate right of D……NO

(d) A and E are at the extreme ends…..NO

12. In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘red colour chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’ and ‘254’ means ‘white colour chalk’. The digit in the code that indicates `white’ is

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 8

Solution:

Let us solve this question using elimination. 256 means red colour chalk (thus white is none of 2 or 5 or 6). 589 means ‘green colour flower’ (thus white is none of 5, 8 or 9). Thus white is none of 2, 5, 6, 8 or 9 and hence we get only one option (b) which can represent white. Thus answer is option (b).

(b) 4

13. The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0.40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of 4 : 3. The average of six days was 0.50 inch. What was the rainfall on the fifth day?

(a) 0.60 inch

(b) 0.70 inch

(c) 0.80 inch

(d) 0.90 inch

Solution:

The average rainfall in first four days = 0.40 inch.

Thus total rainfall in first four days = 4 × 0.40 = 1.6 inch……(1)

The average rainfall six days = 0.50 inch.

Thus total rainfall in six days = 6 × 0.50 = 3.0 inch……………(2)

Subtracting (1) from (2) we get total rainfall in fifth and sixth day = 3.0 – 1.6 = 1.4 inch….(3)

Now the rainfall on fifth and sixth day was in the ratio 4 : 3. Let us say rainfall on fifth day = 4x inch and that on sixth day = 3x inch. Total rainfall = 4x + 3x = 7x = 1.4 inch [as found out in (3)].

Hence x = 0.2 inch and rainfall on fifth day = 4x = 4 × 0.2 = 0.8 inch. Thus answer is option (c).

(c) 0.80 inch

Directions for the following 3 (three) items : consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from different cities—Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily in the same order) who participated in a conference. Each one of them is specialized in a different subject, viz., Economics, Commerce, History, Sociology, Geography, Mathematics and Statistics (not necessarily in the same order). Further

1. Lecturer from Kanpur is specialized in Geography
2. Lecturer D is from Shillong
3. Lecturer C from Delhi is specialized in Sociology
4. Lecturer B is specialized in neither History nor Mathematics
5. Lecturer A who is specialized in Economics does not belong to Hyderabad
6. Lecturer F who is specialized in Commerce belongs to Srinagar
7. Lecturer G who is specialized in Statistics belongs to Chennai

Let us solve the case and fill up what is clearly given in the table first:

Lecturer              City Specialization

                             Kanpur Geography

      D              Shillong

      C              Delhi        Sociology

      F               Srinagar   Commerce

      G              Chennai    Statistics

Now we have made us of all statements in above table except the following two:

4. Lecturer B is specialized in neither History nor Mathematics
5. Lecturer A who is specialized in Economics does not belong to Hyderabad

Now if we combine our table and above two statements we can see that B does not specialize in History and Mathematics (as is given) or Sociology, Commerce or Statistics (they are specializations of C, F and G) or Economics (A specializes in it). Thus only specialization left for B is Geography. Our table now looks as under:

Lecturer              City Specialization

      B              Kanpur    Geography

      D              Shillong

      C              Delhi        Sociology

      F               Srinagar   Commerce

      G              Chennai    Statistics

Now A specializes in Economics but does not belong to Hyderabad (given) or Kanpur, Shillong, Delhi, Srinagar, Chennai (they are cities of B, D, C, F and G). Thus A must belong to Mumbai. So now our table is as under:

Lecturer              City Specialization

      B              Kanpur    Geography

      D              Shillong

      C              Delhi        Sociology

      F               Srinagar   Commerce

      G              Chennai    Statistics

      A               Mumbai  Economics

Now only city of Hyderabad is left out and thus E must belong to it. Thus our table now looks like this:

Lecturer              City Specialization

      B              Kanpur    Geography

      D              Shillong      

      C              Delhi        Sociology

      F               Srinagar   Commerce

      G              Chennai    Statistics

      A              Mumbai    Economics

      E             Hyderabad

Now we can answer the questions:

14. Who is specialized in Geography?

(a) B

(b) D

(c) E

(d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

Solution:

(a) B

15. To which city does the Lecturer specialized in Economics belong?

(a) Hyderabad

(b) Mumbai

(c) Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai

(d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

Solution:

(b) Mumbai

16. Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad?

(a) B

(b) E

(c) Neither B nor E

(d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

Solution:

(b) E

17. In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E. A and B teach Hindi and English. C and B teach English and Geography. D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi. E and B teach History and French. Who teaches maximum numb, of subjects?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) D

(d) E

Solution:

A – Hindi, English

B – Hindi, English, Geography, History, French

C – English, Geography

D – Mathematics, Hindi

E – History, French  

Thus the answer is option (b):

(b) B

18. A 2-digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?

(a) 9

(b) 27

(c) 36

(d) 45

Solution:

Since we want maximum remainder, we shall try to find a 2 digit number which is as high as possible and try to divide it by its reverse and check the remainder:

Let us begin with 99. The reverse shall be 99 as well. When 99 is divided by 99, the remainder is 0.

Take 98. Reverse is 89 and remainder shall be 9.

Take 97. Reverse is 79 and remainder shall be 18.

Take 96. Reverse is 69 and remainder shall be 27.

Take 95. Reverse is 59 and remainder shall be 36.

Take 94. Reverse is 49. When 94 is divided by 49, the remainder is 45, which is the largest value given in the options and hence our answer. Thus the answer is

(d) 45

19. The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3: 2. However, each saves Rs. 6,000 per month. What is their total monthly income?

(a) Rs. 28,000

(b) Rs. 42,000

(c) Rs. 56,000

(d) Rs. 84,000

Solution:

Let their incomes be 4x and 3x respectively and their savings be 3y and 2y respectively.

Thus savings of X and Y are respectively 4x – 3y and 3x – 2y.

Since both have same savings of Rs. 6000 per month that means : 4x – 3y = 3x – 2y, which means x = y.

Now saving of  X = 4x-3y = 4x – 3x = x = Rs. 6000 (given).

Thus their total monthly income = 4x + 3x = 7 = Rs 42,000. Thus answer is option (b):

(b) Rs. 42,000

20. Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m from the point P. How many meters is the fly from the ceiling?

(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 12

(d) 15

Solution:

If the candidates can again use a bit of imagination they will realize that question is basically about finding the height of a cuboid whose length, breadth and the length of the diagonal joining opposite corners across the cuboid is given. The fly and point P are at the opposite corners across the cuboid in this case. We know that if a, b and c are length, breadth and height of a cuboid then the length of the diagonal, d, joining the opposite corners across the cuboid is equal to a²+b²+c² .

In this case, a = 8 m, b = 1 m, d = 9 m. Putting these values in above formula we get, c = 4 m. Thus the fly is 4 meters away from the ceiling. Therefore the answer is:

(a) 4

Directions for the following 3 (three) items : Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected either by two-way passages or one-way passages. One-way passages are from C to A, E to G, B to F, D to H, G to C, E to C and H to G. Two-way passages are between A and E, G and B, F and D, and E and D.

Let us show the ways through arrows and draw the figure:

                                      C A   

 

                                      E G

 

                                      B F

 

                                      D H   

21.   While travelling from C to H, which one of the following stations must be passed through?

(a) G

(b) E

(c) B

(d) F

Solution:

Now while travelling from C to H, we can have the following paths:

                                                               D H

C                        A E

                                                               G B F D H

 

We can see that of the given options E must be passed through while travelling from C to H and therefore answer is option (b):

(b) E

22. In how many different ways can a train navel from F to A without passing through any station more than once?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4                 

Solution:                                              G            C A

                                                                            C A

                                                              E A

                          F D

                                                               H G C A

 

Thus there are four distinct paths to reach C from F without passing through any station twice and therefore the answer is option (d):

(d) 4

23. If the route between G and C is closed, which one of the following stations need not be passed through while travelling from H to C?

(a) E

(b) D

(c) A

(d) B

Solution:

If the route between G and C is closed, there shall be only one route to travel from H to C as follows:

H           G B          F D E          C

Thus E, D and B must be passed through to reach C from H. Therefore answer is option (c):

(c) A

24. There are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the number and the one obtained on reversing it is always 27. How many such maximum 2-digit numbers are there?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) None of the above

Solution:

Let the number be 10x + y. Thus the number obtained by reversing its digits shall be 10y + x.

Now as per the given condition, (10x + y) – (10y + x) = 27

Thus 9(x-y) = 27 and x – y = 3

Now (x, y) can take following values: (9,6), (8, 5), (7, 4), (6, 3) (5, 2) and (4, 1). Let us validate our answer:

96 – 69 = 27

85 – 58 = 27

74 – 47 = 27

63 – 36 = 27

52 – 25 = 27

41 – 14 = 27

Thus there are 6 such 2 digit numbers and hence the answer is

(d) None of the above

25. What is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to be numbered from 1 to 150?

(a) 262

(b) 342

(c) 360

(d) 450

Solution:

From 1 to 150, there are

9 single digit numbers (1 to 9) + 90 two digit numbers (10 to 99) + 51 three digit numbers (100 to 150)

Thus total digits to be printed = (9 × 1) + (90 × 2) + (51 × 3) = 342. Therefore the answer is option (b):

(b) 342

26. Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of the 5th person will be

(a) 45 kg

(b) 47.5 kg

(c) 50 kg

(d) 52.5 Kg

Solution:

Average weight of first 5 persons = 45 kg

Therefore, total weight of first 5 persons = 5 × 45 kg = 225 kg……(1)

Average weight of last 5 persons = 55 kg

Therefore, total weight of last 5 persons = 5 × 55 kg = 275 kg…….(2)

If we add (1) and (2) we will get the total weight of 9 persons + weight of 5th person (because weight of 5th person will be present in the total weight of first 5 persons as well as in the total weight of last five persons).

This means (1) + (2) = Total weight of 9 person + weight of 5th person….(3)

Total weight of 9 persons = 9 × 50kg = 450 kg….(4)

Putting values from (1), (2) and (4) in equation (3) we get:

Weight of 5th person = (1) + (2) – (4) = 225 + 275 – 450 = 50 kg. Therefore the answer is option (c):

(c) 50 kg

27. In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees. Vimala and Kamla are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are among the tennis players. Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are bank employees. If Shyamala is a postgraduate in Commerce, who among the following is both a tennis player and a bank employee?

(a) Amala

(b) Komala

(c) Nirmala

(d) Shyamala

Solution:

Let us put the given information with each of the women:

Vimala : Bank employee

Kamla : Bank employee, Sociology

Amala : Unemployed, Sociology

Komala : Unemployed, Tennis, Sociology

Nirmala: Tennis, Sociology

Shyamala :Commerce

It is given that Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are bank employees and since it is also given that Amala and Komala are unemployed, therefore Nirmala and Kamla should be Bank employees (something which is already given in the case of Kamla).

Thus we have Nirmala who plays tennis, is post-graduate in Sociology and is also a bank employee. Thus the answer is option (c):

(c) Nirmala

28. P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B), where A is greater than B. In this context, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) P is greater than Q.

(b) Q is greater than P.

(c) P is equal to Q.

(d) None of the above can be concluded with certainty.

Solution:

Here nothing has been said about the relative magnitudes of A and B or whether they are both positive, both negative or one positive and one negative. Therefore, let us assume some value for A and B and see whether we can make any progress:

Let A = 100 and B = 50. In this case P shall come out to be 72.5 and Q shall be 75. That is P shall be smaller to Q.

Now Let A = 100 and B = 99. In this case P shall be 104.35 and Q shall become 99.5. That is P shall be greater to Q.

Thus with different values of A and B, we get different results about magnitudes of P and Q. Thus the answer shall be

(d) None of the above can be concluded with certainty.

29. A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 while another watch gains 2 minutes, in 24 hours. At a particular instant, the two watches showed an identical time. Which of the following statements is correct if 24-hour clock is followed

(a) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days.

(b) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 90 days.

(c) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 120 days.

(d) None of the above statements correct.

Solution:

First clock loses 2 minutes per 24 hours i.e. it loses 1/30 hours per 24 hours. Thus for t hours it loses t/(30×24) = t/720 hours.

The second one gains 2 minutes in 24 hours. AAs above, in t hours it gains t/720 hours.

Now suppose they showed same time at 12 midnight, then after t hours their respective times shall be t + t/720 and t – t/720. Now since it is 24 hour clock, they will show same time again when difference between their times becomes 24.

That is [t + t/720] – [t – t/720] = 24

Thus t = 360 × 24 hours

The number of days after which they will show same time, therefore, shall be (360 × 24) / 24 days = 360 days.

Thus the answer shall be

(d) None of the above statements correct.

30. In a city, 12% of households earn less than Rs. 30,000 per year, 6% households earn more than Rs. 2,00,000 per year, 22% households earn more than Rs. 1,00,000 per year and 990 households earn between Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 1,00,000 per year. How many households earn between Rs. 1,00,000 and Rs. 2,00,000 per year?

(a) 250

(b) 240

(c) 230

(d) 225

Solution:

It is given that 6% households earn more than Rs. 2,00,000/- and 22% earn more than Rs. 1,00,000/-. These statements means that this 22% also includes the 6% that earn more than Rs. 2,00,000/-. Therefore, those who earn more than Rs. 1,00,00/- but less than Rs. 2,00,000/- is 22 – 6= 16%   

 

<  Rs, 30, 000	12%
Rs. 30, 000 – Rs. 1, 00, 000	990
Rs. 1,00,000 – Rs. 2,00,000	16%
> Rs. 2, 00, 000	6%

Now in percentage terms, number of households earning between Rs. 30, 000 – Rs. 1, 00, 000 will be 100 – 12 – 16 – 6 = 66% (which is equal to 990, as given). Now households earning between Rs. 1,00,000 – Rs. 2,00,000 is 16% i.e. (990/66) × 16 = 240

Therefore the answer is

(b) 240

31.** A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice at 3 o’clock, and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock, what is the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock?

(a) 20 seconds

(b) 24 seconds

(c) 28 seconds

(d) 30 seconds

Solution:

The clock will strike 5 times at 5 o’ clock. These five strikes are interspersed with four intervals as under:

Strike – Strike – Strike – Strike – Strike

It is these intervals that take time. When clock strikes 5 times, there are 4 intervals. Total time taken by them is 12 seconds. Thus each interval is of duration 3 seconds.

When the clock will strike 10 times at 10 o’ clock there shall be 9 such intervals and thus time taken shall be 9 ×3 = 27 seconds.

Since this is the ideal approach for the question but the answer 27 seconds is not given therefore this question may be dropped by UPSC from evaluation.

Alternatively, if they want to keep this question (which is unlikely) they would take the answer as option (b) 24 seconds because time taken for 5 strikes = 12 seconds and thus time taken for 10 strikes shall be double of it i.e. 12 × 2 = 24 seconds.

(b) 24 seconds

32. Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow:

Statement:

Morning walk is good for health.

Conclusions:

1. All healthy people go for morning walk.
2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health.

What is/are the valid conclusion/ conclusions?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Let us evaluate the conclusions:

1. All healthy people go for morning walk………Morning walk is good for health but that does not mean ALL healthy people go for walk. Some might go for other activities. And some may not indulge in any activity and still stay fit and healthy. Thus this conclusion is not valid.
2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health….’Essential’ means without morning walk one cannot be healthy but we just proved above that one can be healthy without morning walk too. Thus this conclusion is also not valid.

Thus answer is option (d):

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?

(a) 47

(b) 49

(c) 51

(d) 45

Solution:

Let us assume that the first five required odd number are x – 4, x – 2, x, x + 2, x + 4.

Now their mean will be [(x – 4) + (x – 2) + x + (x + 2) + (x + 4)]/5 = 39, as given.

Thus x = 39 and first five numbers become 35, 37, 39, 41, 43.

Thus the thirteen numbers shall be 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 45, 47, 49, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59.

Their mean shall be (35 + 37 + 39 + 41 + 43 + 45 + 47 + 49 + 51 + 53 + 55 + 57 + 59)/13 =  47.

Therefore the answer is

(a) 47

Alternatively,

For an odd number of consecutive numbers the mean is the central number. Here mean of first five number is 39 which means that the third number is 39. For 13 consecutive numbers, mean shall be 7th number. Now third number is 39, fourth shall be 41, fifth shall be 43, sixth shall be 45 and seventh shall be 47.

34. Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D who passes 1 to E. Then the number of cards possessed by D and E is equal to the number of cards possessed by

(a) A, B and C

(b) B, C and F

(c) A, B and F

(d) A, C and F

Solution:

Here just remember every give and take shall affect two members: One who gains and one who loses. Now let us proceed with each of the with 10 cards at the start and then adjusting the transactions:

A  : 10 – 2 = 8

B  : 10 + 3 – 6 = 7

C  : 10 + 5 – 3 = 12

D  : 10 + 6 – 1 = 15

E  : 10 + 1 = 11

F  : 10 + 2 – 5 = 7

Now cards possessed by D and E = 15 + 11 = 26.

Now lets us evaluate the options:

(a) A, B and C = 8 + 7 + 12 = 27

(b) B, C and F = 7 + 12 + 7 = 26

(c) A, B and F = 8 + 7 + 7 = 22

(d) A, C and F = 8 + 12 + 7 = 27

Thus answer is option (b):

(b) B, C and F

35. There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal amount of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to

(a) 25%

(b) 30%

(c) 35%

(d) 40%

Solution:

Since we have to take 1/3 of the solution therefore let us assume that the volume of solution was 90 L (i.e. something which we can easily divide in 3 parts).

Now one-third of this solution is taken. That means 30 L is taken. This 30 L will have 15 L milk and 15 L water (because water and milk are 50% and 50%).

Now this solution of 30 L (15 L milk + 15 L water) is added to equal amount of pure milk. Thus 30 L of pure milk is added. Thus finally we have in the new mixture: 45 L milk + 15 L water. Thus water is 15/60 parts = ¼ parts which is 25%.

Thus the answer is option (a):

(a) 25%

36. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to one another on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be formed?

(a) 16

(b) 24

(c) 36

(d) 42

Solutions:

When a group of vertical and horizontal lines, which also happen to be parallel equidistant, intersect they form quadrilaterals, each of which is either a rectangle or a square.

Now to make a quadrilateral we should choose 2 vertical lines and 2 horizontal lines. From 4 vertical lines 2 lines can be chosen in C(4,2) ways = 4! / (2! × 2!) = 6 ways.

Similarly out of 4  horizontal lines, 2 lines can be chosen in C(4,2) ways = 4! / (2! × 2!) = 6 ways.

Thus total number of quadrilateral (which would invariably be either square or rectangle as required by the question) shall be 6 × 6 = 36. Thus the answer is option (c):

(d) 42

37. A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train?

(a) 480 km

(b) 260 km

(c) 240 km

(d) 120 km

Solution:

Two hours later the freight train from Delhi to Mumbai must have covered a distance of 40 × 2 = 80 km. Now in this question, we know that the express train is running faster than the freight train so it will eventually catch up with the freight train. If we assume that after 2 hours the freight train has stopped then basically we have to find out in how much time the express train (whose relative speed will be 60-40 = 20 km/hr) cover the distance of 80 km that separates the two trains. Now with 20 km/hr the express train would cover 80 km in 4 hours. Thus in four hours the distance covered by the express train shall be 4 × 60 = 240 km. Hence the answer is option (c).

[This is similar to the policeman and thief question asked in one of the previous years.]

(c) 240 km

Alternatively,

When express train starts, the freight train has already covered 80 km. After one more hour, the trains would have covered 60 km and 120 km respectively. After yet another hour: 120 km and 160 km. After yet another hour: 180 km and 200 km. And finally after one more hour they would have covered distances of 240 km and 240 km. Thus after covering 240 km from Delhi both train shall be at the same position. This method can be used if the above concept explained earlier is not clear and the figures of distance and speed are pretty simple as in this question.

38. In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are more than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks than Shankar. Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained highest marks?

(a) Randhir

(b) Neha

(c) Sonal

(d) Data are inadequate

Solution:

Let us list the contenders first:

Randhir, Kunal, Debu ,Shankar, Sonal  and Neha

Now Randhir > Kunal + Debu this means Randhir has got more marks than Kunal and Debu. Thus Kunal and Debu are out of race.

Sonal > Shankar and Neha > Randhir. This means Shankar and Randhir are out of race. And we are left with Sonal and Neha. Now there is no condition that can help us compare the marks of Sonal and Neha. Therefore, the answer is

(d) Data are inadequate

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: – Consider the given information and answer the two items that follow.

No supporters of ‘party X’, who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, agreed for the alliance with ‘party Y’; but some of them had friends in ‘party Y’.

39. With reference to the above information, which one among the following statements must be true?

(a) Some supporters of ‘party Y’ did not agree for the alliance with the `party X’.

(b) There is at least one supporter of `party Y’ who knew some supporters of ‘party X’ as a friend.

(c) No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign strategy.

(d) No supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z.

Solution:

Let us evaluate the options:

(a) Some supporters of ‘party Y’ did not agree for the alliance with the `party X’….No mention of alliance between X and Y…OUT

(b) There is at least one supporter of `party Y’ who knew some supporters of ‘party X’ as a friend…Statement has some supporters of party X has friends in party Y which means that there were some (at least one) supporter of party Y who knew some supporter (at least one) of party X as friend…ANSWER

(c) No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign strategy….The statement is that no supporters of party X who knew Z and supported his campaign agreed for alliance with Party Y, which means that there were some supporters of party X who did support Z and his campaign strategy…OUT

(d) No supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z….The statement begin with those supporters of party X who knew Z…OUT

40. With reference to the above information, consider the following statement
41. Some supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z
42. Some supporters of ‘party X’, who opposed Z’s campaign strategy, knew Z.
43. No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign strategy.

Which of the statements given above, is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Let us evaluate the options:

1. Some supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z…… This statement is correct.
2. Some supporters of ‘party X’, who opposed Z’s campaign strategy, knew Z…Statement is silent about those supporters of party X who knew Z but still would have supported his campaign…So this statement is not correct.
3. No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign strategy….Statement says there were some supporters of party X who knew Z and supported his campaign…. So this statement is not correct.

Thus statement 2 and 3 are not correct and answer is option (b):

(b) 2 and 3 only

41. If second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?

(a) 23

(b) 22

(c) 21

(d) 20

Solution:

Since we have to find out minimum number of working days therefore let us chose a month with minimum number of days. That would be February of 28 days. These 28 days shall have 4 days of each of the 7 days of the week i.e. 4 Mondays, 4 Tuesdays and so on. Now out of these 28 days 4 Sundays shall be holiday and 2 Saturdays (second and fourth) shall be holiday. So number of working days = 28 – 4 – 2  = 22. Therefore the answer is:

(b) 22

42. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of population of a community has migrated every year from one place, to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixth year, if there is no further growth in the population during this period?

(a) 16/243rd part of the population

(b) 32/243rd part of the population

(c) 32/729th part of the population

(d) 64/729th part of the population

Solution:

1/3rd population is migrating every year therefore the population will continue to become 2/3rd of the previous year.

So after one year the population will be 2/3 × original population.

After 2 years it will be 2/3 × 2/3 × original population and so on.

So after six years remaining population shall be 2/3 × 2/3 ×2/3 × 2/3 ×2/3 × 2/3 × original population i.e. 64/729th part of population. Thus answer is option (d):

(d) 64/729th part of the population

43. Four tests—Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted exactly after two tests are held. Which is the last test held?

(a) Physics

(b) Biology

(c) Mathematics

(d) Chemistry

Solution:

Chemistry is third to be held as is given. Now Biology cannot be fourth because passage says there is a test that is to be held after Biology. Now Biology cannot be first as well since Physics is to be held before Biology. Thus Biology is second. Since Physics is before Biology thus Physics is first and the remaining one i.e. Mathematics is last. And hence the answer is:

(c) Mathematics

Alternatively,

Since Physics is to be held before the test (say T) which is conducted after Biology that means we have this order Physics, Biology, T (we are not considering the final order yet). This means Physics and Biology are not the last tests to be held and thus option (a) and (b) are not the answer. Chemistry is held exactly after two tests are held i.e. Chemistry is the third test to be held and thus even Chemistry is not the last test. And hence the answer is Mathematics.

44. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. Whose income is the highest?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Solution:

Let A, B, C and D represent their respective incomes.

A + B > C + D….(1)

A + C = B + D

A = (B+D)/2  and thus C = (B+D)/2 which implies that A = C….(2)

Putting A = C in (1) we get,  A + B > A + D which means B > D….(3)

Now adding C + D to both sides of (1), we get A + B + C + D > 2C + 2D

Or (A+C) + (B+D) > 2C + 2D

Or 2B + 2D > 2C + 2D (because A + C = B + D)

Or B > C…. (4)

From (2), (3) and (4) we get B > C = A and B > D, thus B is the greatest.

Therefore answer is

(b) B

45. Consider the following:

Statement:

Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music.

Conclusions:

1. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.
2. Even though one’s voice is not good, one can keep practising.

Which one of the following is correct, in respect of the above statement and conclusions?

(a) Only conclusion I follows from the statement.

(b) Only conclusion II follows from the statement.

(c) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows from the statement.

(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement.

Solution:

The Statement basically means that good voice is natural gift but to excel in field of music one still needs to practice in order to improve and excel. That means natural gift alone is not sufficient, it needs nurturing and care FOR music. But the statement nowhere proffers that every natural gift needs nurturing and caring as the statement is specific to the field of music. Thus conclusion I does not necessarily follows from the statement. Conclusion II is not connected to the statement as the statement is about natural gifts and not about those who do not have good voice and thus does not even mention what people with voice which is not good should or should not do. Consequently conclusion II does not follow from the statement. Therefore the answer is option (d):

(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement.

46. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm but slips down 1 cm. B climbs on Y by 7 cm but slips down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm but slips down 2 cm. If each of them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars, what is the height of the shortest pillar?

(a) 161 cm

(b) 163 cm

(c) 182 cm

(d) 210 cm

Solution:

After one chance:

actual height covered by X = 6 – 1 = 5 cm,

actual height covered by Y = 7 – 3 = 4 cm,

actual height covered by Z = 6.5 – 2 = 4.5 cm.

Now in 40th attempt they will reach the top means till 39th chance they will climb up and slip but in 40th chance they will only climb and reach the top (if they slip they will not reach the top).

Thus after 39th chance:

total height covered by X = 39 × 5 = 195 cm

total height covered by Y = 39 × 4 = 156 cm

total height covered by Z = 39 × 4.5 = 175.5 cm

and after 40th climb:

total height covered by X = 195 + 6 = 201 cm

total height covered by Y = 156  + 7 = 163 cm

total height covered by Z = 175.5 + 6.5 = 182 cm

Thus shortest pillar is 163 cm in height and the answer is option (b):

(b) 163 cm

47. “Rights are certain advantageous conditions of social well being indispensable to the true development of the citizen.”

In the light of this statement, which one of the following is the correct understanding of rights?

(a) Rights aim at individual good only.

(b) Rights aim at social good only.

(c) Rights aim at both individual and social good.

(d) Rights aim at individual good devoid of social well-being.

Solution:

Statements can be understood as meaning that the Rights are conditions of social well being which is indispensable for individual development as well thus Rights target both social and individual well being and thus the answer is option (c):

(c) Rights aim at both individual and social good.

48. 15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22nd from the top. What is his position from the bottom?

(a) 18th

(b) 17th

(c) 16th

(d) 15th

Answer. C

Solution:

15 students failed out of 52. After removing the students who failed we are left with 52 – 15 = 37 students. In the list of 37 students Ramesh is 22 from the top that means there are 37 – 22 = 15 students below it and thus from the bottom his position is 16th. Thus the answer is option (c):

(c) 16th

49. Consider the following:

A+ B means A is the son of B.

A – B means A is the wife of B.

What does the expression P + R – Q mean?

(a) Q is the son of P.

(b) Q is the wife of P.

(c) Q is the father of P.

(d) None of the above

Solution:

P + R = P is son of R which means P is male and R is male or female.

So P + R – Q = R is wife of Q (If we take R is male then she cannot be in the role of wife thus we can say that R is female).

Thus we get that R (wife) and Q (husband) have a son P.

Thus answer is option (c):

(c) Q is the father of P.

50. Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal’s position if he agreed?

(a) Neither loss nor gain

(b) Loss 1%

(c) Gain 1%

(d) Gain 0.5%

 

Solution:

Suppose Gopal got the cell phone for Rs. 100/-. He sold it to Ram at 10% profit i.e. he sold it to Ram for Rs. 110/-.  Now Ram wants to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss i.e. only for 90% of the amount for which is got it. Thus he will sell it to Gopal for Rs. 0.9 × 110 = Rs. 99/-

Thus Gopal makes a profit of Rs. 1 over an initial investment of Rs. 100/-  Thus the answer is

(c) Gain 1%

                                                    * * * * * * *

Since the CSAT was introduced in the year 2011, the number of questions based on comprehension in Paper II has been steadily high and no candidate can escape attempting at least few of the passages

The range and complexity of the passages has also undergone a visible change and so has the variety of questions

Instead of writing a didactic ‘How to attempt comprehension passages” blog we have taken up the passages that appeared in CSP-2017, Paper II and show you first-hand how you can attempt the passages with accuracy. The 2017 CSP Paper II was a quintessential paper encompassing passages from a multitude of topics

But before that have a look at some of the numbers:

Now we are all set to take up the passages and try our hands at some reverse engineering:

[Passage 1] What climate change will undeniably do is cause of amplify events that hasten the reduction of resources. Competition over these diminishing resources would ensue in the form of political or even violent conflict. Resource based conflicts have rarely been overt and are thus difficult to isolate. Instead they take on veneers that appear more politically palatable. Conflicts over resources like water are often cloaked in the guise of identity or ideology.

What does the above passage imply?

(a) Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated.

(b) There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts.

(c) Environmental issues contribute to resource stresses and political conflicts

(d) Political conflicts based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved.

Solution:

If we sum up the passage in our language it basically says that climate change will lead to resource crunch, this crunch would lead to conflicts and that many identity or ideology based conflicts are in fact conflicts engenders by resource scarcity. Now let us evaluate each option:

(a) Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated – The passage, in fact, contends just the opposite i.e. many politically palatable conflicts are, in truth, resource-based….OUT

(b) There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts….The passage is talking about the problem and not the solution and as such is not asserting whether there can be any political situation to the looming crisis…..OUT

(c) Environmental issues contribute to resource stresses and political conflicts…This is exactly how we summed-up the passage and is indeed the needed implication….ANSWER

(d) Political conflicts based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved……The passage is not about whether and how political conflicts can be resolved…OUT

[Passage 2] The man who is perpetually hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his resolution to be changed by the first counter-suggestion of a friend—who fluctuates from opinion to opinion and veers from plan to plan-can never accomplish anything. He will at best be stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is only the man who first consults wisely, then resolves firmly and then executes his purpose with inflexible perseverance, undismayed by those petty difficulties which daunt a weaker spirit—that can advance to eminence in any line.

The keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that

(a) we should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly

(b) we should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged

(c) we should always remain broad-minded

(d) we should be resolute and achievement-oriented

Solution:

Again summing-up the passage – we should take wise consul, then take a resolution and stand our ground. If we keep vacillating we will never reach anywhere.

Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) we should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly…YES, it is a contender for answer choice but let us go on with other options first.

(b) we should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged….The passage is about our ability to stay focused and not about rejecting the suggestions of friends. In fact rejecting a suggestion just for the sake of it might be counter-productive as it may be a wise suggestion.

(c) we should always remain broad-minded……………It is not really clear what the option means by being ‘broad-minded’ so this option can be avoided at this stage.

(d) we should be resolute and achievement-oriented…..YES, this is another contender for the answer choice and but compared with option (a), we see that what option (a) says is stated very clearly in the passage and thus it should be preferred over option (d).

Hence option (a) should be marked as answer choice as the most appropriate among the options given.

[Passage 3] During the summer in the Arctic Ocean, sea ice has been melting earlier and faster, and the winter freeze has been coming later. In the last three decades, the extent of summer ice has declined by about 30 per cent. The lengthening period of summer melt threatens to undermine the whole Arctic food web, atop which stand polar bears.

Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

(a) Climate change has caused Arctic summer to be short but temperature to be high

(b) Polar bears can be shifted to the South Pole to ensure their survival

(c) Without the presence of polar bears, the food chains in Arctic region will disappear

(d) Climate change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears

Solution:

The passage asks for the most crucial massage. As we can see that the passage goes on to lament the conditions in the Arctic and closes the passage with the assertion that these conditions threaten the food chain atop which sits the polar bear. Basically the passage was a built-up to drive home the point that polar bears are at risk due to conditions that Arctic now faces. Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) Climate change has caused Arctic summer to be short but temperature to be high…The passage does talks about the havoc that climate change is wreaking in the Arctic region but that is not the most crucial message. The whole revelation about increasing melt and delayed winter freeze is to drive home the point of its effect on the food chain in Arctic and thus this, in itself, is not the most crucial message of the passage……………..OUT

(b) Polar bears can be shifted to the South Pole to ensure their survival…….This is one-of-a-kind solution for the survival of the Polar bears but this is not what the passage proffers. The passage is not even discussing any solution, plausible or adventurous……OUT

(c) Without the presence of polar bears, the food chains in Arctic region will disappear….Again the passage is not discussing the effect of presence or absence of Polar bear on the Arctic food chain…..OUT

(d) Climate change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears…..This is the most plausible among the options given that qualifies as the most crucial message of the passage as it syncs with what the passage eventually leads to…..ANSWER

[Passage 4] Why do people prefer open defecation and not want toilets or, if they have them, only use them sometimes? Recent research has shown two critical elements: ideas of purity and pollution, and not wanting pits or septic tanks to fill because they have to be emptied. These are the issues that nobody wants to talk about, but if we want to eradicate the practice of open defection, they have to be confronted and dealt properly.

Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

(a) The ideas of purity and pollutions are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people

(b) People have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting

(c) People cannot change their old habits

(d) People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy

Solution:

Let us evaluate the options:

(a) The ideas of purity and pollution are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people….If the passage were to suggest that ideas of purity and pollution, arguably the reason behind people’s preference for open defecation, are so entrenched that they cannot be altered then it shall not suggest remedy to bring out behavioral changes in people…..OUT

(b) People have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting …..This is indeed the message of the passage that we have being about a change in the perception of the people and make them see toilet use and pit-emptying as clean……..ANSWER

(c) People cannot change their old habits……If the passage meant that people cannot change their old habits it would not go on to suggest that we should counter the people’s perceived notions to bring about a change in their preference for open defecation…OUT

(d) People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy………The passage is not a commentary on the civic sense of the people and is rather in the nature of trying to figure out the reason behind the preference for open defecation………..OUT

[Passage 5] In the last two decades, the world’s gross domestic product (GDP) has increased 50 percent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased by a mere 6 percent. In recent decades, GDP-driven economic performance, has only harmed inclusive wealth like human capital; and natural capital like forests, land and water. While the world’s human capital which stands at 57 percent of total inclusive wealth grew by only 8 percent, the natural which is 23 percent of total inclusive wealth declined by 30 per cent worldwide in the last two decades.

Which of the following is the most crucial inference from the above passage?

(a) More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital

(b) The growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable

(c) The economic performance of the countries of the world is not satisfactory

(d) The world needs more human capital under the present circumstances

Solution:

Let us evaluate the options for the crucial inference of the passage. But before that, let us sum-up the passage: GDP driven growth – inequity – harming inclusive wealth. Now let us get back at the options:

(a) More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital…..Where is the passage making any such suggestion?….OUT

(b) The growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable…..This can be inferred from the passage as the passage mentions that GDP driven growth is harming inclusive wealth like human and natural capital. And thus we can infer that only GDP driven growth is undesirable….ANSWER

(c) The economic performance of the countries of the world is not satisfactory….The passage says GDP grew by 50 percent. If that is not satisfactory then what is?….OUT

(d) The world needs more human capital under the present circumstances…Human capital already stands at 57 percent and there is no suggestion in the passage that we need any more of it…..OUT

[Passage 6] By 2020, when the global economy is expected to run short of 56 million young people, India, with its youth surplus of 47 million, could fill the gap. It is in this context that labour reforms are often cited as the way to unlock double-digit growth in India. In 2014, India’s labour force was estimated to be about 40 per cent of the population, but 93 per cent of this force was in unorganized sector. Over the last decade, the compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of employment has slowed to 0.5 per cent, with about 14 million jobs created during last year when the labour force increased by about 15 million.

Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

(a) India must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate

(b) Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force

productively

(c) India is poised to achieve the double-digit growth very soon

(d) India is capable of supplying skilled young people to oil countries

Solutions:

The passage, in our words, can be re-written as – a shortage of labour force is imminent and if India wants to tap into this opportunity with its young labour force, labour reforms are a necessity. Everything else is customary paraphernalia to underscore this suggestion.

Now let us evaluate the options and check which one comes closest to our understanding of the passage:

(a) India must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate…Passage is about labour reforms and not population control…..OUT

(b) Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force productively…This is what gels well with our understanding of the passage…ANSWER

(c) India is poised to achieve the double-digit growth very soon…..Passage suggests that India can achieve double-digit growth if we take care of labour reforms and not that such growth is automatic and imminent……OUT

(d) India is capable of supplying skilled young people to oil countries……Supplying young people to other countries? And oil countries in specific??…..OUT

[Passage 7] The very first lesson that should be taught to us when are old enough to understand it, is that complete freedom from the obligation to work is unnatural, and ought to be illegal, as we can escape our share of the burden of work only by throwing it on someone else’s shoulders. Nature ordains that the human race shall perish of famine if it stops working. We cannot escape from this tyranny. The question we have to settle is how much leisure we can afford to allow ourselves.

The main idea of the passage is that

(a) it is essential for human beings to work

(b) there should be a balance between work and leisure

(c) working is a tyranny which we to face

(d) human’s understanding of the nature of work is essential

Solution:

As we understand it, the passage suggests that we should not succumb to ergophobia (aka abnormal fear or aversion to work). We have to ensure that we maintain a healthy balance between work and leisure. And that work-leisure balance is the main idea of the passage is corroborated by the last statement which ends the passage by throwing a challenge to identify how much leisure can be allowed. Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) it is essential for human beings to work…YES, this is an answer-contender

(b) there should be a balance between work and leisure…..YES, again an answer-contender. Rather a more potent answer contender as the passage ends with a call to limit leisure to healthy proportion.

(c) working is a tyranny which we to face….The passage has used nature’s tyranny as a simile to drive home the point that we must work and this is not the main idea of the passage..OUT

(d) human’s understanding of the nature of work is essential…The passage is not about the understanding of nature of work but about its necessity…OUT

Thus between option (a) and option (b), option (b) seems to be more appropriate as it combines both leisure and work, the two themes touched upon in the passage.

[Passage 8] There is no harm in cultivating habits so long as they are not injurious. Indeed, most of us are little more than bundle of habits. Take away our habits and the residuum would hardly be worth bothering about. We could not get on without them. They simplify the mechanism of life. They enable us to do a multitude of things automatically, which, if we had to give fresh and original thought to them each time, would make existence an impossible confusion.

The author suggests that habits

(a) tend to make our lives difficult

(b) add precision to our lives

(c) make it easier for us to live

(d) tend to mechanize our lives

Solution:

Let us evaluate the options:

(a) tend to make our lives difficult…The passage suggests just the opposite…OUT

(b) add precision to our lives…..The passage talks about making our lives easy and not precise…OUT

(c) make it easier for us to live…This is definitely suggested in the passage in the statement, They simplify the mechanism of life…..YES…but before locking it as answer we will also look at option d

(d) tend to mechanize our lives…The passage does mentions that habits enable us to handle several chorus automatically but it does not suggest that habits make our life mechanical which is sort of a pessimistic view of the author’s view and the passage does not seem to be a pessimistic take on habits….OUT

[Passage 9] We have hard work ahead. There is no resting for any of us till we redeem our pledge in full, till we make all the people of India what destiny intends them to be. We are citizens of a great country, on the verge of bold advance, and we have to live up to that high standard. All of us, to whatever religion we may belong, are equally the children of India with, equal rights, privileges and obligations. We cannot encourage communalism or narrow-mindedness, for no nation can be great whose people are narrow in thought or action.

The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve

(a) a high standard of living, progress and privileges

(b) equal privileges, fulfilment of destiny and political tolerance

(c) spirit of adventure and economic parity

(d) hard work, brotherhood and national unity

Solution:

In first glance, the passage seems to be some kind of exhortation by the author to work for the achievement of the high ideals. Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) a high standard of living, progress and privileges….The tone and tenor of the exhortation suggests that is not about standard of living but is about greater things…OUT

(b) equal privileges, fulfilment of destiny and political tolerance…..privilege and political tolerance is not what the challenge is about. The author does use the word destiny but the usage appears to be more figurative in the sense that people should achieve what they are capable of….OUT

(c) spirit of adventure and economic parity….spirit of adventure? The passage does not exhort people to become adventurous…OUT

(d) hard work, brotherhood and national unity….This gels most with the tone of the passage…ANSWER

[Passage 10] “The individual, according to Rousseau, puts his person and all his power in common under the supreme direction of the General Will and in our corporate capacity we receive each member as an indivisible part of the whole.”

In the light of the above passage, the nature of General Will is best described as

(a) the sum total of the private wills of the individuals

(b) what is articulated by the elected representatives of the individuals

(c) the collective good as distinct from private wills of the individuals

(d) the material interests of the community

Solution:

In common parlance, the passage means, individuals are part of a whole which is guided by the ‘General Will’ or, in more general terms, by the collective good that overrides the individual good. Hence the answer option is option (c).

(c) the collective good as distinct from private wills of the individuals

[Passage 11] In a democratic State, where a high degree of Political maturity of the people obtains, the conflict between the will of the sovereign law-making body and the organized will of the people seldom occurs.

What does the above passage imply?

(a) In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty

(b) In a mature democracy, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty

(c) In a mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of sovereignty

(d) In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty

Solution:

A tangential look at the option leads to the consternation about what is the relevance of words like ‘force’ and ‘sovereignty’ which find no mention at all in the passage. But if we read the passage again and try to connect it with the options, we realize that the passage is really about the fact that conflict seldom occurs in mature democracy and the use of ‘force’ is minimal and yet again the force is not obliterated completely. Now under the aegis of our such mature understanding of the passage let us evaluate the options:

(a) In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty…force as main phenomenon?…OUT

(b) In a mature democracy, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty…force to great extent?….OUT

(c) In a mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of sovereignty…force is irrelevant?..OUT

(d) In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty…force is there but is minimal…ANSWER

[Passage 12] A successful democracy depends upon widespread interest and participation in politics, in which voting is an essential part. To deliberately refrain from taking such an interest, and from voting, is a kind of implied anarchy, it is to refuse one’s political responsibility while enjoying the benefits of a free political society.

This passage relates to

(a) duty to vote

(b) right to vote

(c) freedom to vote

(d) right to participate in politics

Solution:

The passage is in the form of a commentary on the people who take democracy for granted and shy away from their responsibility and duty to vote to ensure a healthy vibrant democracy. Here there is no need to evaluate each option separately and the answer is clearly option (a).

(a) duty to vote…ANSWER

[Passage 13] In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of outstanding, character and ability. Moreover, it is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position, since early in life one can see his qualities of character. But this is not always true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy state of his country.

The passage seems to suggest that

(a) a leader foresees his future position

(b) a leader is chosen only by a free country

(c) a leader must see that his country is free from despair

(d) despair in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship

Solution:

Our understanding of the passage: leader show signs from childhood while dictators may be incidental.

Now lets us evaluate the options:

(a) a leader foresees his future position……The passage does not talk about the clairvoyant skills of a leader…OUT

(b) a leader is chosen only by a free country……The passage is not discussing who chooses a leader and who chooses a dictator…OUT

(c) a leader must see that his country is free from despair….The passage is not about what a leader should or should not do…OUT

(d) despair in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship….This gels really well with the passage which suggests that dictatorship is often result of despairing conditions of a country…ANSWER

[Passage 14] The greatest blessing that technological progress has in store for mankind is not, of course, an accumulation of material possessions. The amount of these that can be effectively enjoyed by one individual in one lifetime is not great. But there is not the same narrow limit to the possibilities of the enjoyment of leisure. The gift of leisure may be abused by people who have had no experience of making use of it. Yet the creative use of leisure by a minority in societies has been the mainspring of all human progress beyond the primitive level.

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. People always see the leisure time as a gift and use it for acquiring more material possessions.
2. Use of leisure by some people to produce new and original things has been the chief source of human progress.

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Our reading of the passage is : material possessions is not everything as no one can have every material possession and still enjoy it. But the possibility to enjoy leisure is unbounded. And during this leisure time, a minuscule population gets sucked up in creative and original pursuits that engender human advancement.

Now if we evaluate the two assumptions we can see that the word ‘always’ makes the assumption one a sweeping generalisation and is thus out.

Assumption 2 is almost verbatim from the passage and is thus valid. So the answer option is (b):

(b) 2 only

[Passage 15] There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that “a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events”. But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying particularly the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire to leadership. Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which enabled the winners to win—and certain deficiencies which caused the losers to lose and the student will see that the same pattern recurs consistently, again and again, throughout the centuries.

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. A study of the famous battles in history would help us understand the modern warfare.
2. Studying the history is essential for anyone who aspires to be a leader.

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Here we are evaluating the validity of the assumptions made. Now, see that eventually assumptions may or may not come out to be true but we need to only check whether we can make these assumptions from the passage or not without bothering about their eventual outcome. For example, if we consider the second assumption, we cannot discard it by countering it by claiming that it is not true that every leader must study history but we can certainly say from the passage that for an aspiring leader a study of history is essential! Did that make sense? I hope it did.

As for the first assumption, the passage does not make out a case suggesting that studying past battle shall help us understand modern warfare.

Hence answer is

(b) 2 only

[Passage 16] Disruption of traditional institutions, identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. It is possible that some people may renew their identification with traditional groups whereas others align themselves with new groups and symbols emergent from processes of political development. In addition, political development tends to foster group awareness of a variety of class, tribe, region, clan, language, religion, occupation and others.

Which one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage?

(a) Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay

(b) Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development

(c) It is impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties

(d) Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development

Solutions:

Alignment along traditional and new groups may lead to ambivalent situations. Political development creates new identities along which people may align themselves severing ties with traditional institutions. Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay…That is not a unilinear process can be made out from the fact that it creates multitude of group awareness. This option is still in race and now let’s checkout other options.

(b) Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development…No, infact people align themselves along new groups and symbols..OUT

(c) It is impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties…’Impossible’ is too strong a word especially when passage sage people do align with new symbols and groups engendered by political development….OUT

(d) Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development…The passage does not make any case for continuation of traditional loyalties…OUT

Since option (b), (c) and (d) have been ruled out, we can mark option (a) as the answer.

[Passage 17] There has been a significant trend worldwide towards regionalism in government, resulting in a widespread transfer of powers downwards towards regions and communities since 1990s. This process, which involves the creation of new political entities and bodies at a sub-national level and an increase in their content and powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has been characterized as being made up of three factors—political legitimacy, decentralization of authority and decentralization of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass demand from below for the decentralization process, which is able to create a political force for it to take place. In many cases, decentralization is initiated by the upper tier of government without sufficient political mobilization for it at the grassroots level, and in such cases the decentralization process often does not fulfil its objectives.

Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization

(b) The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the regional communities by law or otherwise

(c) Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level

(d) For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential

Solution:

Our understanding of passage: decentralization due to grass-root demand seems good but that which is initiated in the upper levels may miss its target. Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization….The passage is not talking about the emergence of strong leaders to create sub-national entities thus ensuring devolution…OUT

(b) The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the regional communities by law or otherwise….The last statement of the passage counters this option by stating that the devolution initiated by upper tier my miss its objective..OUT

(c) Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level…The passage suggests that devolution engendered by mass demand from below has political legitimacy and for it can be inferred that it can happen when people at lower level should be able to freely express themselves and participate actively in the process….ANSWER

(d) For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential…The passage suggests that devolution can happen if initiated by upper tiers as well, even though it may not work as intended, and thus strong regional feeling is not a prerequisite for devolution ……OUT

[Passage 18] We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who we are, how we connect to the world around us, and the ways in which we define our domains of life, labour and language are hugely structured by the digital technologies. The digital is everywhere and; like air, invisible. We live within digital systems, we live with intimate gadgets, we interact through digital media, and the very presence and imagination of the digital has dramatically restructured our lives. The digital, far from being a tool, is a condition and context that defines the shapes and boundaries of our understanding of the self, the society, and the structure of governance.

Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?

(a) All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies

(b) Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living

(c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media

(d) Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future

Solution:

The passage is about the omnipresence of digital world. That it has come to shape the context that defines our understanding i.e. it may appear invisible but has become an integral part of our existence. Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies…..’All’ ? Sweeping statement. Nevertheless, the passage is about the permanency of the digital world and not about how digital tech can solve governance problems….OUT

(b) Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living…YES..when we talk of life and living we unconsciously also talk of digital techs which have so smoothly entered our lives that we do not even notice their existence..but let us evaluate remaining options first.

(c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media..Again sweeping statement! We may have to love with digital tech all around us but that does not mean our creativity cannot be expressed without digital means. What about our creativity on the walls of the archaeological sites that we so lovingly adorn (aka desecrate) with our drawings?….OUT

(d) Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future….That digital tech has become part of our daily living does not mean we cannot survive without it i.e. it is not imperative!…OUT

In the light of above, the answer choice is option (b).

[Passage 19] The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the risk of falling into ‘middle-income trap’. It means that average incomes in these countries, which till now have been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond a point—a point that is well short of incomes in the developed West. The IMF identifies a number of causes of middle-income trap—none of which is surprising—from infrastructure to weak institutions, to less than favourable macroeconomic conditions. But the broad, overall cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the growth of productivity.

Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes

(b) Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies

(c) There is no hope at all for emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth momentum

(d) As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory

Solution:

Our understanding : Asian economies – risk of income being plateau out – due to collapse of productivity growth. Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes…Yes, the passage is about the middle-income trap phenomenon which befalls the growing economies if corrective action is not taken. So this is an answer-candidate. But before marking it as the final answer let us evaluate other options.

(b) Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies….No, the passage says that economies of Asia face this risk and not that it is a general characteristic of fast growing economies….OUT

(c) There is no hope at all for emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth momentum….’no hope’ ? Again very strong uncorroborated statement. Of course there is light at the end of the tunnel by boosting productivity growth….OUT

(d) As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory …The passage is making an assertion based on past experience that fast growing economies are facing a risk of falling into middle-income trap. The passage is no where commenting that these economies are not performing well. In fact, it says that they are fast emerging economies….OUT

Thus based on above elimination of options (b), (c) and (d), we get option (a) as the answer.

[Passage 20] An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R&D can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created by rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services threatens to increase income inequality. By encouraging India’s R&D labs and universities to focus on the needs of poor people and by improving the ability of informal firms to absorb knowledge, an innovation and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the cost of goods and services and create income – earning opportunities for the poor people.

Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration

(b) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors

(c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society

(d) Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country’s economic growth is rapid

Solution:

Our understanding of the passage: Invest in R&D as it can stem inequality. Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration….R&D is essential as made out by the passage but that it is the ‘only way’ has not been mentioned anywhere in the passage….OUT

(b) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors….The passage is concerned about R&D and inequality and not about agriculture and other sectors, so it cannot be most logical assumption….OUT

(c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society….Yes, this is the case that the passage intends to make. It claims that inclusive innovation and R&D can reduce inequality and create a just society…now let’s check out last option before finalizing this as answer choice.

(d) Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country’s economic growth is rapid…Urbanization is not even what the passage is about. Only reference to is while claiming that R&D can tackle the issues arising out of rapid urbanization…OUT

Thus our final answer is option (c).

[Passage 21] Climate change is likely to expose a large number of people to increasing environmental risks forcing them to migrate. The international community is yet to recognize this new category of migrants. There is no consensus on the definition and status of climate refugees owing to the distinct meaning the term refugees carry under international laws. There are still gaps in understanding how climate change will work as the root cause of migration. Even if there is recognition of climate refugees, who is going to provide protection? More emphasis has been given to international migration due to climate change. But there is a need to recognize the migration of such people within the countries also so that their problems can be addressed properly.

Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

(a) The world will not be able to cope with large scale migration of climate refugees

(b) We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change

(c) Climate change will be the most important reason for the migration of people in the future

(d) Relation between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood

Solution:

Our understanding of the passage: The passage is essentially about the environmental refugees. The passage suggests that such categorization of migrants is still not commonplace as it lacks a consensus definition and the intra-country migration is to be recognised as well. And even when such migration is recognised who will provide for the refugees? Now let us evaluate the options:

Now let is evaluate the options:

(a) The world will not be able to cope with large scale migration of climate refugees…The passage does not mention if the world would be able to cope or not..OUT

(b) We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change…Well indeed we must find ways but this passage is about environmental refugees and how to provide for them and not about finding ways to contain climate change…OUT

(c) Climate change will be the most important reason for the migration of people in the future….That climate change will lead to migration is true as per passage but passage does not vouch for the fact it shall be the ‘most important’ factor for migration of people…OUT

(d) Relation between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood …Yes, it is indeed the case as this is the reason why the world has been unable to recognize and define this category of migrants properly..ANSWER

[Passage 22] Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides in some of the developed countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately, there are reports that these compounds possess inherent toxicities that endanger the health of the farm operators, consumers and the environment. Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in environment. Entering in food chain they destroy the microbial diversity and cause ecological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has resulted in development of resistance among insects to insecticides, upsetting of balance in nature and resurgence of treated populations. Natural pest control using the botanical pesticides is safer to the user and the environment because they break down into harmless compounds within hours or days in the presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal properties have been in nature for millions of years without any ill or adverse effects on the ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by many microbes common in most soil. They help in the maintenance of biological diversity, of predators and the reduction of environmental contamination and human health hazards. Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are biodegradable and their use in crop protection is a practical sustainable alternative.

# On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modem agriculture.
2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imbalance.
3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Our summary of the passage: The passage is about synthetic Vs botanical. And we underline the properties, this is what we get –

Synthetic: toxic, enter food chain, persistent, destroy diversity, cause imbalance, insects develop resistance

Botanical: in use for millions of years, break down into harmless compounds in presence of sunlight, no ill/adverse effects on ecosystems, maintain biodiversity, easily broken down by microbes, reduced contamination and health hazard , practical sustainable alternative.

1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modem agriculture….Nowhere mentioned
2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imbalance….True
3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides…No comparison of respective efficacies.

Since only the second statement is correct the answer is option (b).

(b) 2 only

# Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding biopesticides?

1. They are not hazardous to human health.
2. They are persistent in environment.
3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Let us look at the given statements:

1. They are not hazardous to human health…Yes, as per the passage
2. They are persistent in environment….No, they breakdown fast
3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem…They maintain biodiversity as mentioned in the passage but passage nowhere claims that they are ‘essential’ for maintaining the biodiversity.

Since only statement 1 is correct answer is option (a):

(a) 1 only

[Passage 23] An air quality index (AQI) is a way to combine measurements of multiple air pollutants into a single number or rating. This index is ideally kept constantly updated and available in different places. The AQI is most useful when lots of pollution data are being gathered and when pollution levels are normally, but not always, low. In such cases, if pollution levels spike for a few days, the public can quickly take preventive action (like staying indoors) in response to an air quality warning. Unfortunately, that is not urban India. Pollution levels in many large Indian cities are so high that they remain well above any health or regulatory standard for large part of the year. If our index stays in the Red/Dangerous’ region day after day, there is not much any one can do, other than getting used to ignoring it.

Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Our governments are not responsible enough to keep our cities pollution free

(b) There is absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country

(c) Air quality index is not helpful to the residents of many of our large cities

(d) In every city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase

Solution:

Our take on the passage – AQI works well when levels are low because in that case spikes are easily identifiable. However it is not much useful in Indian cities as levels are perpetually high making the indicator redundant. Now let us evaluate the options in fresh air:

(a) Our governments are not responsible enough to keep our cities pollution free…The passage is taking about the pollutions levels and the utility of AQI and not a commentary on the lackadaisical attitude of governments….OUT

(b) There is absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country…..Absolutely no need is tantamount to stretching the argument too far. That it is not working optimally is no reason to cast it aside altogether…OUT

(c) Air quality index is not helpful to the residents of many of our large cities…Exactly. This is what the passage says that AQI’s utility is under cloud….ANSWER

(d) In every city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase…This is what should happen but this is not what the passage seeks to perpetuate….OUT

[Passage 24] Productive jobs are vital for growth and a good job is the best form of inclusion. More than half of our population depends on agriculture, but the experience of other countries suggests that the number of people dependent on agriculture will have to shrink if per capita incomes in agriculture are to go up substantially. While industry is creating jobs, too many such jobs are low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the unorganized sector, offering low incomes, little protection, and no benefits. Service jobs are relatively of high productivity, but employment growth in services has been slow in recent years.

Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion

(b) We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion

(c) We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture

(d) We must emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture

Solution:

Our take on the passage: people engaged in agriculture should come down in order for agricultural per capita incomes to go up. Jobs created by the industry are mostly low income jobs in unorganized sector. Growth in high productivity service sector is slow.

Let us evaluate the options now and evaluate our productivity to identify the right option:

(a) We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion…..YES that is a plausible inference from the passage but before marking it as the answer let us evaluate other options as well.

(b) We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion……The passage says that manufacturing/ industry sector is not really highly productive and shifting the farm workers (assuming options meant all of the) is not viable method to occasion high growth as where would agriculture go then?…OUT

(c) We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture…Another contender for answer choice as everything seems to be right with the option. Comparing it with option (a), this option (a) seems more germane as it talks of jobs and inclusion, something with which the passage opens and hence option (a) is more appropriate inference. Moreover the passage nowhere mentions what should be done with agriculture sector as is mentioned in option (c).

(d) We must emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture….The passage is not talking about hybrid varieties and modified crops…OUT

[Passage 25] A Landscape-scale approach to land use can encourage greater biodiversity outside protected areas. During hurricane ‘Mitch’ in 1998, farms using eco agricultural practices suffered 58 percent, 70 percent and 99 percent less damage in Honduras, Nicaragua and Guatemala, respectively, than farms using conventional techniques. In Costa, vegetative windbreaks and fencerows boosted farmers’ income from pasture and coffee while also increasing bird diversity. Bee pollination is more effective when agricultural fields are closer to natural or seminatural habitat, a finding that matters because 87 percent of the world’s 107 leading crops depend on animal pollinators. In Costa Rica, Nicaragua and Colombia silvopastoral systems which integrate trees with pastureland are improving the sustainability of cattle production, and diversifying and increasing farmers’ income.

Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and reduce the vulnerability to disasters

(b) All the countries of the world should be encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with conventional agriculture

(c) Ecoagriculture should be permitted in protected areas without destroying the biodiversity there

(d) The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them

Solution:

Our understanding: Eco-agricultural activities are better then conventional activities. Enough examples and figures given to ingrain the idea into our head. Now let us evaluate the options:

(a) Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and reduce the vulnerability to disasters….Yes certainly an answer-contender. Now move on to other options.

(b) All the countries of the world should be encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with conventional agriculture…..No. Just the opposite in fact…OUT

(c) Ecoagriculture should be permitted in protected areas without destroying the biodiversity there….Passage is not making out a case for allowing ecoegricultural activities inside the protected areas…OUT

(d) The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them….The passage is silent about the yield….OUT

Ruling out the other three options, we are left with option (a) as the most plausible inference from the passage and that is thus the answer option.

[Passage 26] The medium term challenge for Indian manufacturing is to move from lower to higher tech sectors, from lower to higher value-added sectors, and from lower to higher productivity sectors. Medium tech industries are primarily capital intensive and resource processing; and high tech industries are mainly capital and technology intensive. In order to push the share of manufacturing in overall GDP to the projected 25 per cent, Indian manufacturing needs to capture the global market in sectors showing a rising trend in demand. These sectors are largely high technology and capital intensive.

Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) India’s GDP displays high value-added and high productivity levels in medium tech and resource processing industries

(b) Promotion of capital and technology intensive manufacturing is not possible in India

(c) India should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in research and development, technology upgradation and skill development

(d) India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand

Solution:

In our words passage means: manufacturing should move from lower to higher end and that we should make inroads into booming global sectors. Let us evaluate the options now:

(a) India’s GDP displays high value-added and high productivity levels in medium tech and resource processing industries…If this were true why would we need to shift from medium to high end?…OUT

(b) Promotion of capital and technology intensive manufacturing is not possible in India…Passage is in the form of what we should do and is not talking about if it is possible to do or not…OUT

(c) India should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in research and development, technology upgradation and skill development….This is what can be inferred from the passage doing this would lead to what the passage seems to suggest…ANSWER

(d) India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand…No we have not gained a firm ground in global markets and hence passage suggests that we should make foray into such sectors….OUT

[Passage 27] Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has become more robust with record production of food grains and oilseeds. Increased procurement, consequently, has added huge of food grains in the granaries. India is one of the world’s top producers of rice, wheat, milk, fruits and vegetables. India is still home to a quarter of all undernourished people in the world. On an average, almost half of the total expenditure of nearly half of the households is on food.

Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork value chain is necessary to reduce the poverty and malnutrition

(b) Increasing the agricultural productivity will automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India

(c) India’s agricultural productivity is already great and it is not necessary to increase it further

(d) Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India

Solution:

Before we start evaluating the options let us understand what is meant by ‘corollary’. For our purpose it simply means what follows from what is given i.e. which of the given options can follow from the arguments presented in the passage.

Now our take on passage: It presents an irony. Water, water everywhere not a drop to drink. Enough production, enough storage still high levels of hunger.

(a) Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork value chain is necessary to reduce the poverty and malnutrition…YES this should indeed happen if the arguments of the passage are true. So this is a contender for answer choice. But let us evaluate other options.

(b) Increasing the agricultural productivity will automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India….The passase is arguing just the opposite. That there is enough productions still malnutrition and hunger and it is not getting eliminated automatically…OUT

(c) India’s agricultural productivity is already great and it is not necessary to increase it further…Passage is presenting a case for handling malnutrition and not agricultural production and adjectives likes ‘great’ are too good to be trusted…OUT

(d) Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India…..The passage is trying to relate production and storage with hunger and malnutrition and not discussing welfare programmes….OUT

Thus the only option that fits the bill is option (a) and is the answer.

[Passage 28] The States are like pearls and the Centre is the thread which turns them into a necklace; if the read snaps, the pearls are scattered.

Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement?

(a) A strong Centre and strong States make the federation strong

(b) A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity

(c) A strong Centre is a hindrance to State autonomy

(d) State autonomy is a prerequisite for a federation

Solution:

The passage is in the form of figurative speech whether the author is stating that without the thread pearls shall get scattered and that the centre is a binding form to keep them together. This view is presented in option (b). The other options can be ruled out as the passage is not discussing about State autonomy or strength of federation. Thus the answer is option (b):

(b) A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity

[Passage 29] Really I think that the poorest he that is in England has a life to live, as the greatest he, and therefore truly, I think it is clear that every man that is to live under a government ought first by his own consent to put himself under the government, and I do think that the poorest man in England is not at all bound in a strict sense to that government that he has not had a voice to put himself under.

The above statement argues for

(a) distribution of wealth equally to all

(b) rule according to the consent of the governed

(c) rule of the poor

(d) expropriation of the rich

Solution:

The passage goes on to claim that ‘poorest man’, the representative of the governed used by the author, should be governed by those who have been chosen by the those being governed. Hence the option choice (b) is the right answer. Expropriation of rich, rule by poor and distribution of wealth to all is not what the passage is implying.

(b) rule according to the consent of the governed

* * * * * * *

After this lengthy blog, here is the list of takeaways

1. Read all answer choices even if you think a particular option is correct

2. The passages are pretty easy. Get over the dread

3. At least two option choices in many passages are clearly wrong. Rule them out first

4. Summing up the passage in our words helps a ton

5. Few of the above passages have already appeared in previous year NDA/CDS exams. Therefore, there is no harm in practicing on the passages of past 4-5 years of CDS and NDA papers.

6. The passages are getting more diverse but still, you shall find some sitting ducks. Shoot them first

7. Answer the question as per the information in the passage. What you already know may not be in consonance with what the passage proffers but what matters is that you answer the question as per the passage only

8. Use elimination of choices to zero in on the answer choice. It is quite effective, especially in comprehension tests

9. When you have to decide between two options, choose the one where the words used are same as those used in the passage

10. Only 33% percent marks are required to qualify CSAT, Paper II. Still attempt all questions you correctly and confidently attempt

11. Do not take CSAT, Paper II for granted. The cake-walk may morph into quick-sand

So this is Good-Bye and Good Luck for now!

All aspirants who are giving tomorrow’s test should discuss all there doubts/queries about any question on this thread and not in the comments section of the test

Around 20 questions of the test can be solved using Tikdam method

Tikdams explanations in those selected questions are given in the explanation column itself

By closely observing those questions after every test you will gradually learn the art of Tikdams which will assist you in clearing the UPSC prelims

Highlights of tomorrow’s test:

 

Q.1) Which of the following are the possible affects of ‘Deforestation’?

1. It can result in an immediate lowering of ground water level.

2. In long-term, it can result in reduction of precipitation.

Select the correct option using the codes given below.

a) Neither 1 nor 2

b) 1 only

c) 2 only

d) Both are correct

 

Q.2) Which of the following are the examples of ‘Natural Coastal Wetland’?

1. Estuary

2. Lagoon

3. Creek

4. Backwater

5. Bay

6. Coral reef

Select the correct option using the codes given below.

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

b) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only

c) 1 and 5 only

d) 2, 3 and 4 only

 

Q.3) Which of the following ecosystem produce produces pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome respiration problem in the anaerobic conditions?

a) Mangroves

b) Coral Reefs

c) Tropical rain forests

d) Both (a) and (b)

 

Q.4)  Consider the following statements regarding Photochemical smog (smog):

1. One of the primary components of photochemical smog is ozone.

2. Photochemical smog can greatly decrease ultraviolet radiation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both are correct

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Best of luck!

Super Intensive Prelims (SIP): Everything that is important nothing that is not

Last minute revision is the key to cracking the exam. We’ve been preparing for months to finalize the right format which will deal with topics in the right amount of depth as per the requirement of the exam and helps you with maximum retention

Key features

1. Samanvaya (Mentorship)

CD has earned a reputation for giving personalized attention to students and helping them actualize their true potential. While other institutes are bombarding you with more and more questions, we are more concerned about teaching you the right things and helping you retain more and retain better.

– Private Telegram Group: All your queries solved within 24 hours
– 1 on 1 calls: Sessions basis merit of participation within the group

2. Samachar Manthan for Pre (Lectures on current affairs)

– Covering 3 years of CA: Over 40 hours of videos + intensive notes on all subject:
– International Organizations will be covered in Blackboard format – Watch Sample videos here: Click2watch
– Conceptual Subjects will be covered in lecture format
– Systematic Notes will be provided in pdf format – Read sample notes here: Click2Read

Lectures for Current Affairs will be updated in between the static subject lectures (See schedule below)

3. Systematic Core Build-up (Lectures on static subjects)

Lecture on static subjects would not focus on explaining you the concept per se but on important trivial details you tend to miss while reading the book. Generally, in prelims, the questions are asked from these trivial areas. Thus in our lectures, we will highlight these trivial very important details/facts which cannot be missed at any cost. We will cover all the basic and advanced books for explaining these issues

To illustrate with an example:

• Polity

In the Statutory bodies topic in Laxmikant 1 very important fact is that while In case of appointment of CVC the collegium consists of PM, LOP and Home Minister, in case of CIC the collegium consists of PM,LOP and any Cabinet Minister appointed by PM

• Modern History

Similarly In case of modern history if we take the topic of Constitutional development in India , Many people get confused about when elections were introduced in British India some people think that it was started with 1892 act, however, if we closely observe we will find that in 1892, there was the system where The universities, district board, municipalities, zamindars and chambers of commerce were empowered to recommend members to provincial councils.Out of the recommended members, the GG would select the members. The use of term election is no-where used in the 1892 act.

Or if we take another example and take the Gandhian movement and compare Non-cooperation movement with Civil disobedience movement we find that While Capitalist participation was close to nil in NCM but they participated actively in CDM

• Indian Economy

Similarly In case of Economics if we take the topic of Monetary Policy and compare Marginal standing facility with LAF we will find that In case of MSF Bank can maximum borrow up to 2% of its NDTL while in case of LAF Bank can borrow any amount of money as long as it has the securities to sell

• Indian Geography

All Indian soils are deficient in nitrogen < If any option in any prelims Question says that soil X is rich in nitrogen then it means that the statement is incorrect. We will try to focus on these trivial details of Geography in our lectures

Schedule for Static subjects coverage via video lectures:

2-10 April: Polity

12-20 April: History

22-30 April: Economics

2-10 May: Geography & Environment

4. Prelims Mocks: 11 FLTs (8 paper 1 TS + 3 CSAT) + 10 Dedicated CA Tests

– Dedicated paper for Economic Survey, Budget, Govt. Themes
– Level 3 Tests for Advanced Static + month wise CA to complement the notes
– Level 2 CSAT papers

Read our special exhaustive blogs highlighting trends in CSAT (Paper 2 Prelims) and previous years analysis here: 

For Reading comprehension- Click2Read

For Maths & Logical reasoning- Click2Read

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