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Type: Prelims Only

  • Anti-defection law: Supreme Court seeks Centre’s reply on Tenth Schedule merger interpretation

    Why in News

    The Supreme Court has issued notice to the Central Government challenging the prevailing interpretation of the merger exception under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law). The plea, linked to the 2022 Goa defection case, argues that the current interpretation undermines the purpose of the Anti-Defection Law by allowing legislators to avoid disqualification without a genuine party merger.

    What is the Merger Exception?

    • Paragraph 4 of the Tenth Schedule provides an exception to disqualification in cases of a merger.
    • A merger is protected when not less than two-thirds of the legislators of a political party agree to merge with another party.
    • The present dispute is whether a legislative party alone can claim a merger, or whether the original political party must also merge.

    About the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law)

    • Added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
    • Strengthened by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, which removed the earlier exemption for one-third splits.
    • Seeks to curb political defections, ensure government stability, and uphold party discipline.
    • The Presiding Officer (Speaker/Chairman) decides questions relating to disqualification.

    Constitutional Provisions

    • Articles 102(2) and 191(2): Provide for disqualification of MPs and MLAs under the Tenth Schedule.
    • Tenth Schedule: Contains provisions relating to disqualification on grounds of defection.

    Landmark Judgments

    • Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992): Upheld the constitutional validity of the Tenth Schedule and held that the Speaker’s decision is subject to judicial review.
    • Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Speaker, Manipur (2020): Directed Speakers to decide disqualification petitions within a reasonable period, ordinarily three months.

    Issues with the Current Law

    • Delay in deciding disqualification petitions.
    • Allegations of partisan conduct by the Speaker.
    • Ambiguity regarding the merger exception.
    • Weakens representative democracy when mass defections alter electoral mandates.

    [2013, GS2, 10M] The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law, which was legislated but with a different intention?”

    [2022] With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

    1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

    2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Western Ghats Eco-Sensitive Area notification remains deadlocked

    Why in News

    1. The Union Environment Ministry’s expert committee on Western Ghats Ecologically Sensitive Areas has had its tenure extended to July 2027.
    2. The 2024 draft notification covering 56,825 sq km remains unresolved across six states.

    Key Highlights

    1. Panel extension: Expert committee tenure extended to July 2027.
    2. Draft notification scope: 2024 draft notification covers 56,825 sq km across six states.
    3. Background dispute: The unresolved notification continues the divergence between the Gadgil Committee Report and the Kasturirangan Committee Report on how much of the Western Ghats should fall under Eco-Sensitive Area status.

    What is an Eco-Sensitive Area (ESA)?

    • Ecologically fragile areas notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
    • Act as “shock absorbers” around protected ecosystems by regulating developmental activities.
    • Aim to balance environmental conservation with sustainable development.

    Gadgil Committee vs Kasturirangan Committee

    Gadgil Committee (Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel, 2011)

    • Recommended about 64% of the Western Ghats as ESA.
    • Favoured strict conservation with a bottom-up, community-led approach.
    • Proposed a ban on mining, quarrying and highly polluting industries in sensitive zones.
    • Emphasised Gram Sabha participation in environmental governance.

    Kasturirangan Committee (High-Level Working Group, 2013)

    • Recommended about 37% of the Western Ghats (around 59,940 sq km) as ESA.
    • Used satellite imagery to identify ecologically sensitive landscapes.
    • Allowed greater flexibility for agriculture and human settlements.
    • Focused on balancing ecological protection with economic development.

    Significance of the Western Ghats

    • One of the world’s eight hottest biodiversity hotspots.
    • Recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    • Origin of major peninsular rivers including Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri and Periyar.
    • Plays a crucial role in regulating the South-West Monsoon.
    • Supports rich biodiversity with a high proportion of endemic flora and fauna.
    • Provides vital ecosystem services, including water security and climate regulation.

    [2016] ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to

    (a) constitutional reforms

    (b) Ganga Action Plan

    (c) linking of rivers

    (d) protection of Western Ghats

    “[2014] With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

    2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Insurers seek first third party premium hike in four years

    Why in News?

    Non life insurers are pressing for their first motor third party premium hike in four years, citing a Supreme Court judgment recognising the economic value of homemakers’ unpaid domestic work.

    Key Highlights

    • In its 11 June 2026 judgment, the Supreme Court held that unpaid domestic work performed by homemakers has measurable economic value and must be fairly considered while awarding compensation under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
    • Insurers argue that the ruling is likely to increase compensation payouts, adding to existing underwriting losses.
    • They have requested an upward revision in motor third party insurance premiums, the first such increase in four years.
    • The Central Government, in consultation with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), notifies third party premium rates.

    Motor Third Party (TP) Insurance

    • Mandatory under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 for all motor vehicles operating in India.
    • Covers death, bodily injury, or property damage caused to a third party due to the insured vehicle.
    • Does not cover damage to the insured vehicle; that requires comprehensive motor insurance.
    • Premium rates are regulated by the Central Government, based on recommendations from IRDAI.

    Value Addition

    • IRDAI: Statutory regulator established under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999.
    • Motor Accident Claims Tribunal (MACT): Adjudicates compensation claims arising from road accidents under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
    • Significance of the Supreme Court ruling: Strengthens recognition of the economic contribution of unpaid care work, advancing substantive gender equality and ensuring more equitable compensation in accident claims.

    [2026] With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details :

    Sl. No.CommitteeObjectiveOrganization under which it was formed
    1R.N. Malhotra CommitteeComprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in IndiaInsurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
    2L.C. Gupta CommitteePreparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in IndiaSecurities and Exchange Board of India
    3Urjit R. Patel CommitteePreparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sectorReserve Bank of India
    4Y.H. Malegam CommitteePreparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in IndiaReserve Bank of India


    In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched ?

    [A] 2 only

    [B] 2 and 3

    [C] 1, 3 and 4

    [D] 2 and 4

  • 3 Great Indian Bustard Chicks Placed in Rewilding Tunnel

    Why in News?

    Three Great Indian Bustard (Godawan) chicks bred at the Godawan Conservation Centre, Jaisalmer, have been placed in a specially designed rewilding tunnel to prepare them for release into the Desert National Park under India’s captive breeding and species recovery programme.

    Background

    • The initiative is part of the Great Indian Bustard Recovery Programme, implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Rajasthan Forest Department and international conservation partners.

    Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps)

    • One of the heaviest flying birds in the world and endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
    • Locally known as Godawan in Rajasthan.
    • Inhabits arid grasslands, scrublands and semi-desert ecosystems.
    • Rajasthan’s Desert National Park holds the largest surviving wild population.

    Conservation Status

    • IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
    • Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I (highest protection)
    • CITES: Appendix I
    • CMS (Bonn Convention): Appendix I

    Major Threats

    • Collision with overhead power transmission lines (largest cause of mortality).
    • Habitat loss and fragmentation due to agriculture, infrastructure and renewable energy projects.
    • Predation of eggs and chicks by feral dogs and other predators.
    • Low reproductive rate (typically one egg per breeding season).

    Conservation Measures

    • National Conservation Action Plan for Great Indian Bustard (2013).
    • Species Recovery Programme under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats (IDWH) scheme.
    • Captive Breeding Centre at Jaisalmer for population augmentation.
    • Undergrounding or bird diverters on power lines in priority habitats following Supreme Court directions.
    • Habitat protection and predator management in key breeding areas.

    [2012] Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
    (a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
    (b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
    (c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
    (d) Lion tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

  • Drawing parallels between A.P., TN airport projects

    Why in News?

    With the Prime Minister set to inaugurate the Bhogapuram Greenfield International Airport in Andhra Pradesh on August 1, an analysis compared its execution with Tamil Nadu’s stalled Parandur airport project.

    Key Highlights

    • Bhogapuram Greenfield International Airport is scheduled for inauguration on 1 August 2026.
    • Parandur Greenfield Airport in Tamil Nadu continues to face delays due to land acquisition and rehabilitation concerns.
    • Land acquisition, compensation, and rehabilitation of affected families remain the principal bottlenecks in large greenfield infrastructure projects.
    • The comparison highlights the importance of timely clearances, stakeholder consultation, and fair compensation for successful infrastructure development.

    Greenfield Airport

    • A new airport developed from scratch on previously undeveloped land, unlike a brownfield airport, which expands or upgrades an existing airport.
    • In India, greenfield airports are approved under the Greenfield Airports Policy, 2008.
    • Approval is granted by the Ministry of Civil Aviation after assessing:
      • Demand and traffic potential
      • Site suitability
      • Environmental and statutory clearances
      • Financial viability
    • Airports are generally developed through public, private, or Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models.

    Value Addition

    • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Civil Aviation.
    • Airport Development Agency: Airports Authority of India (AAI) provides technical support and develops many airports.
    • Constitutional Basis for Land Acquisition: Governed by the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013, which mandates fair compensation, rehabilitation, and social impact assessment.
    • Significance: Greenfield airports improve regional connectivity under the UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) scheme, promote tourism, attract investment, and support balanced regional economic development.

    [2024] Consider the following airports:

    1. Donyi Polo Airport

    2. Kushinagar International Airport

    3. Vijayawada International Airport.

    In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3.

  • Trump’s new forced labour tariffs face global pushback and legal questions

    Why in News?

    The United States’ new forced labour tariffs under Section 301, covering more than 60 countries, face legal pushback from Brazil and Australia over WTO compliance.

    Key Highlights

    • Tariffs are imposed under a Section 301 forced labour enforcement investigation, covering over 60 trading partners.
    • Brazil and Australia are contesting the tariffs’ compliance with WTO rules.
    • The dispute remains open, legally and diplomatically.

    Section 301 (U.S. Trade Act, 1974)

    • Empowers the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) to investigate and respond to unfair foreign trade practices.
    • Authorises the U.S. to impose tariffs or other trade restrictions if another country’s actions are found to burden or restrict U.S. commerce.
    • Frequently used in disputes involving intellectual property, market access, subsidies, and labour practices.

    World Trade Organization (WTO)

    • Established in 1995, succeeding the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1947.
    • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
    • Objective: Ensure rules-based, predictable, and non-discriminatory international trade.
    • Functions include administering trade agreements, resolving disputes, monitoring trade policies, and providing technical assistance.

    Value Addition

    • Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) Principle (Article I, GATT): WTO members must treat all trading partners equally unless an exception applies.
    • Dispute Settlement Understanding (DSU): Discourages unilateral trade retaliation and requires members to resolve disputes through the WTO mechanism.
    • Relevance for India: Increasing use of unilateral tariffs by major economies can affect export competitiveness and test the credibility of the multilateral trading system.

    [2018, GS2, 15 marks] What are the key areas of reform if the WTO has to survive in the present context of ‘Trade War’, especially keeping in mind the interest of India?”

  • Rajasthan farmers object to GI tag for Unjha jeera and saunf

    Why in News?

    Rajasthan’s cumin and fennel farmers have objected to Geographical Indication tags granted to Gujarat’s ‘Unjha Jeera’ and ‘Unjha Fennel’ (saunf), arguing Unjha is a trading hub, not the growing region.

    Key Highlights

    1. The GI tags for ‘Unjha Jeera’ and ‘Unjha Fennel’ were registered in the name of Gujarat’s Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC), Unjha.
    2. Farmers from Rajasthan contend that a significant share of the crops is cultivated in Rajasthan, making the GI registration misleading.
    3. The Unjha APMC has defended the GI registrations, citing over 1,000 pages of scientific, historical, and commercial evidence submitted during the registration process.
    4. The dispute raises questions over the criteria for GI registration, particularly the link between a product’s reputation, production area, and marketing centre.

    Geographical Indication (GI) Tag

    • A Geographical Indication (GI) identifies goods that possess qualities, reputation, or characteristics essentially attributable to their geographical origin.
    • Governed by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
    • Registration is granted by the Geographical Indications Registry, Chennai, under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
    • Validity: 10 years, renewable indefinitely.
    • GI protection applies to agricultural products, natural products, handicrafts, manufactured goods, and foodstuffs.

    Value Addition

    • First GI tag in India: Darjeeling Tea (2004-05).
    • Benefits of GI: Protects producers from misuse, preserves traditional knowledge, enhances product value, promotes exports, and supports rural livelihoods.
    • Difference from Trademark: A GI belongs collectively to eligible producers from a specific region, whereas a trademark is an exclusive right owned by an individual or company.

    [2018] India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

    (a) ILO

    (b) IMF

    (c) UNCTAD

    (d) WTO

  • Maritime sector posts remarkable growth

    Why in News?

    An analysis of India’s port sector found capacity utilisation at about 60%, against a global benchmark of 70%, as Sagarmala 2.0 continues to expand port linked infrastructure.

    Key Highlights

    1. Port capacity utilisation stands at roughly 60%, below the 70% global benchmark.
    2. Sagarmala 2.0 is the next phase of the Sagarmala Programme, aligned with the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision (MAKV) 2047.
    3. MAKV 2047 targets positioning India as a global maritime innovation hub.

    Sagarmala Programme

    • Launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
    • Vision: Port-led development to accelerate economic growth and reduce logistics costs.
    • Four key pillars:
      • Port modernisation and new port development
      • Port connectivity enhancement
      • Port-led industrialisation
      • Coastal community development

    [2026] Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:

    I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port led economic growth through cost effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

    II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.

    III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

    Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2

    (c) 2 and 3

    (d) 3 only

  • CBDT issues crypto asset reporting note aligned with OECD framework

    Why in News?

    The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) issued a 198 page guidance note on crypto asset reporting under the Income tax Act, 2025, aligned with the OECD’s Crypto Asset Reporting Framework (CARF).

    Key Highlights

    1. The guidance note runs to 198 pages and is issued under the Income tax Act, 2025.
    2. It aligns India’s crypto asset reporting with the OECD’s Crypto Asset Reporting Framework (CARF).
    3. The framework enables automatic global information exchange on crypto asset holdings starting next year.

     [2016] With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries.
    2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address.
    3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    [A] 1 and 2 only

    [B] 2 and 3 only

    [C] 3 only

    [D] 1, 2 and 3

  • Investment Friendliness Index (IFI)

    Why in News?

    NITI Aayog launched the Investment Friendliness Index (IFI) to assess and improve the investment ecosystem across States and UTs through competitive and cooperative federalism.

    What is IFI?

    • A data driven index that benchmarks how effectively States and UTs attract and sustain investments by evaluating their policy, regulatory, institutional, and infrastructure ecosystem.

    Background

    • Proposed after the 9th NITI Aayog Governing Council Meeting (2024).
    • Announced in the Union Budget 2025-26.

    Key Features

    • Covers 28 States and 8 UTs.
    • Based on 84 indicators using: Secondary data and Investor perception survey.

    Eight Pillars

    • Infrastructure. Business Climate, Resources, Government Policy, Regulatory Ease, Institutional Environment, Financial Health, and Environmental Resilience

    Performance Categories

    • Top Performers: Above 50
    • Frontrunners: 45 to 50
    • Emerging Performers: 40 to <45
    • Aspiring States: Below 40

    Top Performers

    • Overall: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Goa, Odisha.
    • Hilly & NE States: Uttarakhand.
    • UTs & City States: Goa.

    Significance

    • Promotes competitive and cooperative federalism.
    • Encourages State level reforms and ease of investment.
    • Supports Viksit Bharat @2047 and Viksit Rajya @2047.

    [2019] Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?

    [A] Maintenance of law and order

    [B] Paying taxes

    [C] Registering property

    [D] Dealing with construction permits