Union Minister Bhupender Yadav announced that three new chicks have been added under Project Great Indian Bustard (GIB), taking the captive population to 94 birds.
Key Highlights
The three chicks emerged from: 1 wild-collected egg, and 2 captive-laid eggs.
Total chicks hatched in the fourth year of captive breeding:26.
The captive breeding population has now increased to 94 birds.
More chicks are expected during the current breeding season.
About the Great Indian Bustard (GIB)
Scientific Name: Ardeotis nigriceps
One of the heaviest flying birds in the world.
Endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
State Bird of Rajasthan.
Habitat
Arid and semi-arid grasslands.
Open scrublands.
Dry agricultural landscapes.
Distribution: Rajasthan (largest population), Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.
IUCN Status: Critically Endangered.
Protection Status:Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Listed in Appendix I of CITES.
Included under Appendix I of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS).
[2010] With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It is spread over two districts. 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park. 3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Union Minister Jitendra Singh stated that India’s space economy is expected to grow from USD 8-9 billion to USD 40-45 billion over the next decade, driven by policy reforms, private participation, and innovation.
Key Highlights
India’s space economy is projected to reach USD 40-45 billion in the next decade.
The country currently has over 400 space startups, compared to only a handful a few years ago.
More than 125 startups and technology innovators participated in the RISE Conclave 2026.
Factors Driving Growth
Liberalisation and reforms in the space sector.
Increasing private sector participation.
Expansion of the startup ecosystem.
Collaboration among industry, academia, and research institutions.
Focus on innovation-led growth under the vision of Viksit Bharat 2047.
India’s Space Achievements
Chandrayaan-3 established India among leading space-faring nations.
Gaganyaan is India’s upcoming human space mission.
India has demonstrated cost-effective execution of complex missions, including the Mars Orbiter Mission.
Space Technology in Governance
India is increasingly using space applications for development through:
PM Gati Shakti for integrated infrastructure planning.
Urban development programmes.
Drone-enabled monitoring systems.
Project implementation and monitoring.
Improved transparency and efficiency in service delivery.
PSLV Mission Anomaly
The analysis of the recent Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) anomaly has been completed.
Causes have been identified.
Corrective measures have been initiated for future missions.
RISE Conclave 2026
Theme: “Innovation & Entrepreneurship Driven Growth for Viksit Bharat 2047.”
Brought together researchers, startups, investors, industry leaders, and policymakers.
Showcased innovations in Aerospace technologies, Artificial Intelligence, Deep-tech, and Agri-food technologies.
[2025] GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Promotion of Hybrid and Round-the-Clock (RTC) renewable projects.
International Cooperation
India-UK Offshore Wind Taskforce launched in 2026.
Cooperation with Belgium focuses on offshore wind and R&D.
Offshore wind partnership with Denmark, initiated in 2019, was renewed in 2025.
[2025] Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’: I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct?
The Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (MAHSR) Project, India’s first bullet train corridor, has achieved major construction milestones in 2026 and is expected to commence operations from August 2027.
About MAHSR
India’s first High-Speed Rail (HSR) corridor.
Foundation stone laid in September 2017.
Corridor Length: 508 km.
Connects: Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Dadra & Nagar Haveli
Implemented by the National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL).
The corridor comprises 12 stations
Sabarmati Station: Planned as a multimodal transport hub.
Integrates: Bullet Train, Metro, BRTS, and Conventional Railways.
Speed and Travel Time
Design Speed: 350 km/h
Operational Speed: 320 km/h
Mumbai-Ahmedabad journey time: Around 1 hour 58 minutes
High-Speed Rail refers to rail systems operating at more than 250 km/h.
Technology Used
Developed using Japanese Shinkansen technology.
Introduces India’s first domestic high-speed rail ecosystem.
Major Technical Features
J-Slab ballastless track technology.
2×25 kV overhead traction system.
More than 20,000 OHE masts (Overhead Equipment Mast) is a vital vertical steel support used in railway electrification
12 traction substations (electrical substation that converts power from the public electricity grid into the specific voltage, current, and frequency required to power railways, trams, or trolleybuses)
16 distribution substations(electrical facility that receives high-voltage power from transmission or sub-transmission systems and “steps down” the voltage to medium levels).
Rolling stock depots at: Sabarmati, Surat, and Thane.
Engineering Highlights
Elevated Corridor
Around 90% of the corridor is elevated.
Uses Full Span Launching Method (FSLM).
FSLM is about 10 times faster than conventional segmental construction.
River Bridges: Total: 25 river bridges: Gujarat: 21. Maharashtra: 4.
Steel Bridges: 28 steel bridges over highways, canals, rivers and railway lines.
India’s First Undersea Rail Tunnel
Located beneath Thane Creek.
Tunnel Length: 21 km.
Undersea Stretch: 7 km.
Uses: Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) and New Austrian Tunnelling Method (NATM).
TBM cutter head diameter: 13.6 metres (largest in an Indian railway project).
Safety Systems
Early Earthquake Detection System:28 seismometers. Detects primary waves and triggers automatic power shutdown.
Rainfall Monitoring System: 6 rain gauge stations. Provides real-time rainfall data to the Operation Control Centre (OCC).
Wind Speed Monitoring System:14 anemometer stations. Monitors wind speed and direction. Speed restrictions imposed when wind speeds exceed prescribed thresholds.
Economic Significance
Expected to generate: Around 4,000 direct jobs. 35,000 to 40,000 indirect jobs.
Supports Make in India through technology transfer and domestic manufacturing.
Dedicated High-Speed Rail Training Institute established at Vadodara.
Union Budget 2026-27: Proposed High-Speed Rail Corridors
Delhi-Varanasi, Varanasi-Patna-Siliguri, Chennai-Bengaluru, Bengaluru-Hyderabad, Chennai-Hyderabad, Mumbai-Pune, and Pune-Hyderabad
[2023] Consider the following statements : 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation, whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The Government highlighted the progress of welfare initiatives implemented under the Antyodaya approach aimed at ensuring inclusive development of deprived communities.
Antyodaya
Means “rise of the last person”.
Inspired by the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi.
Focuses on bringing the poorest and most marginalised sections to the forefront of development.
Key Schemes and Initiatives
PM JANMAN (Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan)
Launched: November 2023
Targets 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) across 18 States and 1 UT.
Budget Outlay: ₹24,104 crore.
Implemented through 11 interventions by 9 Ministries.
Interventions include: Housing, Road connectivity, Piped water supply, Mobile medical units, Anganwadi centres, Hostels, Electrification, Mobile towers, Multipurpose centres, Van Dhan Vikas Kendras, and Vocational skilling
Van Dhan Vikas Kendras (VDVKs)
Promote value addition and marketing of forest produce.
Covers SCs, OBCs, EBCs, DNTs, sanitation workers and waste pickers.
Over 2.08 lakh beneficiaries trained.
VISVAS(Vanchit Ikai Samooh aur Vargon ko Aarthik Sahaita)Yojana
Provides interest subsidy up to 5% on loans.
Promotes entrepreneurship and self-employment.
SEED (Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs)
Launched in February 2022.
Components: Free coaching, Health insurance, Livelihood assistance, and Housing support.
Minority Welfare
PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan)
Launched in 2025.
Integrates five previous minority welfare schemes.
Focuses on skill development and entrepreneurship.
Sanitation Workers
NAMASTE (National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem)Scheme
Launched in FY 2023-24.
Replaces hazardous manual cleaning with mechanised sanitation.
Since June 2024, also covers waste pickers.
Regional Development
Aspirational Districts Programme
Launched in 2018.
Covers 112 districts.
Focuses on: Health and Nutrition, Education, Agriculture, Financial Inclusion, and Basic Infrastructure
Aspirational Blocks Programme
Launched in 2023.
Covers 500 blocks across 329 districts.
[2019] Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
The Ministry of MSME is promoting the products of Divyangjan Vishwakarma artisans through the One Station One Product (OSOP) initiative under the PM Vishwakarma (PMV) Scheme, providing dedicated retail spaces at railway stations to improve market access and livelihoods.
PM Vishwakarma (PMV) Scheme
A flagship scheme of the Government of India.
Launched to support traditional artisans and craftspeople.
Objectives
Recognition of artisans and craftspeople.
Issuance of PM Vishwakarma certificates and ID cards.
Dedicated retail outlets are established at selected high-footfall railway stations.
Designed specifically to promote products made by Divyangjan Vishwakarma artisans.
Objectives
Expand market reach.
Increase product visibility.
Enhance sales opportunities.
Promote sustainable livelihoods.
Foster economic inclusion and financial independence.
Achievements under OSOP
Total Beneficiaries: 28 Divyangjan artisans facilitated.
States Covered: 12 States/UTs
Total Stalls: 28 stalls
[2023] Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises are those with and machinery between is crore and 25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Odisha has emerged as a model for community-led groundwater conservation under the initiative ‘Jal Sanchay, Jan Bhagidari’, transforming monsoon rainfall into a sustainable source of groundwater recharge through rooftop rainwater harvesting and aquifer recharge structures.
What is ‘Jal Sanchay, Jan Bhagidari’?
A nationwide approach promoting: Water conservation through people’s participation.
Based on the principle of “Whole of Government, Whole of Society.”
Encourages Community ownership, Scientific water management, and Rainwater harvesting.
Objective
Recharge groundwater aquifers.
Improve water security.
Build resilience against future water stress.
Promote sustainable use of water resources.
Odisha’s Groundwater Recharge Strategy
The State captures rainwater where it falls and channels it into underground aquifers through Rooftop Rainwater Harvesting
Rainwater collected from: Schools, Colleges, Government offices, Institutional buildings, is filtered and directed into recharge wells.
Recharge Structures in Water Bodies: Ponds, Tanks, Community water bodies, allowing excess monsoon runoff to percolate underground.
CHHATA Scheme
Focuses on Rooftop Rainwater Harvesting Systems (RRHS).
Implements recharge systems in institutional buildings.
Functions
Collection of rooftop runoff.
Filtration of rainwater.
Recharge of groundwater through bore wells.
Benefits
Improves groundwater levels.
Reduces seasonal water shortages.
Supports urban groundwater revival.
ARUA Scheme
About: Facilitates groundwater recharge through ponds and tanks.
Construction of Recharge Shafts.
Functions
Diverts surplus surface runoff.
Enhances deep aquifer recharge.
Reduces loss of monsoon water.
[2022] Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) under the Department of Consumer Affairs has released IS 20201:2026 – Community Seed Bank Management: Requirements, providing the first standardised framework for the management of Community Seed Banks (CSBs) in India.
What is IS 20201:2026?
Title: IS 20201:2026 Community Seed Bank Management – Requirements
Released by: Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
Parent Ministry: Department of Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
Developed by: Biodiversity Sectional Committee (EED 06) Under BIS’s Environment and Ecology Department (EED).
Objective
The standard seeks to:
Conserve indigenous seed varieties.
Protect agricultural biodiversity.
Promote community-led seed conservation.
Enhance climate resilience in agriculture.
Ensure long-term food and nutritional security.
Empower farmers through decentralised seed systems.
What are Community Seed Banks (CSBs)?
Community Seed Banks are Decentralised, community-managed repositories that collect, conserve, multiply, store, and exchange locally adapted seeds.
Functions
Preservation of traditional crop varieties.
Seed exchange among farmers.
Maintenance of seed diversity.
Supply of quality seeds during climatic shocks.
Protection of farmers’ knowledge.
[2017] Consider the following statements:
1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The two-day SAPLING (South Asian Policy Leadership for Improved Nutrition and Growth) Dialogue 2026 concluded on 10 June 2026 in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, with a call for a concrete action plan for the holistic development of the food processing sector in South Asia.
About SAPLING Dialogue 2026
Jointly organised by: Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), Government of India and World Bank Group
Venue: Ahmedabad, Gujarat
Duration: 9-10 June 2026
Participants: Around 200 delegates.
Participants Included
Policymakers, Industry leaders, International organisations, Development partners, Researchers, Startups, Financial institutions, and Representatives from South Asian countries
Theme
“Unlocking Value: Advancing Food Processing for Employment Generation and Sustainable Growth in South Asia”
Key Objectives
Strengthen resilient, inclusive and sustainable food systems in South Asia.
Promote regional cooperation in food processing.
Encourage value addition in agriculture.
Facilitate technology adoption in the sector.
Generate employment opportunities.
Enhance farmer incomes and rural development.
Support MSMEs and women entrepreneurs.
[2023] Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with and machinery between is crore and 25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The Ministry of Coal notified the Coal Exchange Rules, 2026 on 4 June 2026, paving the way for the establishment of Coal Exchanges in India. The initiative aims to modernise coal marketing through transparent, competitive, and market-driven trading.
Background
Legal Basis: The concept of Coal Exchanges emerged from the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2025
The amendment:
Introduced the concept of a Mineral Exchange.
Empowered the Central Government to facilitate transparent mineral trading.
Covers: Coal, Processed forms of coal, Other notified minerals.
What is a Coal Exchange?
A Coal Exchange is an organised electronic marketplace where multiple buyers and sellers can trade coal through transparent mechanisms.
Traditional System: One seller → Many buyers to Exchange-Based System: Many sellers ↔ Many buyers
Coal Exchanges will be authorised by the Coal Controller Organisation (CCO).
Registration validity: 25 years
Establish and operate trading platforms.
Frame market rules and bye-laws.
Facilitate coal transactions.
Ensure compliance with regulations.
Role of Coal Controller Organisation (CCO)
Established in 1945.
Functions under the Ministry of Coal.
Headquarters Kolkata.
Functions
Regulates coal quality.
Collects and disseminates coal statistics.
Ensures compliance with coal grading standards.
Registers and regulates Coal Exchanges under the 2026 Rules.
[2022] In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? 1.CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in Government of India. 2.It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. 3.It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4.It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
