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  • RBI shuts FCNR(B) dollar-rupee swap window early after $52.3 billion inflow

    Why in the News

    The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will close its special US dollar-rupee swap window for fresh Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) [FCNR(B)] deposits on 31 August 2026, after attracting $52.3 billion.

    What is the FCNR(B) Swap Window?

    1. Banks mobilise fresh 3 to 5 year FCNR(B) deposits in foreign currency.
    2. Banks swap the dollars with the RBI for rupees at a concessional rate.
    3. The RBI returns the dollars when the swap matures.
    4. The concessional rate covers the bank’s hedging cost.

    Key Definitions

    • FCNR(B): Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) term deposit held by NRIs or Persons of Indian Origin in foreign currency.
    • Hedging Cost: Cost incurred to protect against exchange-rate fluctuations.
    • ECB: External Commercial Borrowing, or loans raised by eligible Indian entities from non-resident lenders.
    • OFCB: Overseas Foreign Currency Borrowing, or foreign currency funds borrowed by Indian banks from overseas markets.
    • Balance of Payments (BoP): Record of all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world during a period.

    Why was the window closed early?

    • FCNR(B) route attracted $52.3 billion.
    • Total inflows through the three components reached $56.846 billion by 13 August.
    • High mobilisation indicated strong response.
    • Swaps against already mobilised deposits remain possible until 11 September.

    Impact on Forex Reserves

    • India’s foreign exchange reserves reached around $707 billion as of 7 August, with foreign currency assets driving much of the increase.
    • However, FCNR(B) inflows are debt creating and will eventually require repayment in foreign currency.

    “[2021] Consider the following:

    1. Foreign currency convertible bonds

    2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions

    3. Global depository receipts

    4. Non-resident external deposits.

    Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

    (a) 1, 2 and 3

    (b) 3 only

    (c) 2 and 4

    (d) 1 and 4.

  • States convert free-power subsidy into capital support for rooftop solar under PM Surya Ghar’s Utility-Led Aggregation model

    Why in the News

    States such as Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Bihar are shifting recurring free-power subsidies towards one-time capital support for rooftop solar under the Utility-Led Aggregation (ULA) model.

    What is PM Surya Ghar Yojana?

    • Ministry: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
    • Launch: 13 February 2024
    • Target: 1 crore households with grid-connected rooftop solar by March 2027.
    • Outlay: ₹75,021 crore.
    • Benefit: Up to 300 units of free electricity per month.
    • Central subsidy: ₹30,000/kW up to 2 kW, plus ₹18,000 for the third kW, capped at ₹78,000.
    • Eligibility: Household must have a suitable roof and grid connection.

    What is ULA?

    • Utility-Led Aggregation (ULA) is a model where the distribution company (DISCOM) aggregates household demand and arranges rooftop solar installations at scale.
    • States convert recurring electricity subsidies into one-time capital support for installing solar systems.

    Why the Shift?

    • Reduces recurring State subsidy burden.
    • Creates a 25-year generating asset.
    • Reduces DISCOM’s cost of supplying subsidised daytime electricity.
    • Aggregated procurement can reduce installation costs.

    Current Progress

    • 52 lakh households had installed rooftop systems by 13 August.
    • About 2 lakh of 30 lakh ULA installations are complete.
    • Target: 1 crore households by March 2027.

    Key Definitions

    • Rooftop Solar: Solar photovoltaic system installed on a building roof and connected to the electricity distribution network.
    • Net Metering: Allows surplus rooftop electricity exported to the grid to be adjusted against electricity consumed.
    • DISCOM: Distribution Company responsible for electricity distribution.
    • ALMM: Approved List of Models and Manufacturers for eligible solar modules.

    Challenges

    • Financial stress of DISCOMs
    • High upfront installation costs
    • Limited rooftop access for tenants and apartment residents
    • No battery-storage subsidy
    • Grid and transformer capacity constraints
    • Dependence on imported solar cells and wafers

    “[2025] Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:

    I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

    II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.

    III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    (a) I and II only

    (b) I and III only

    (c) II and III only

    (d) I, II and III.

  • [14th August 2026] The Hindu OpED: Europe’s Al rules may become India’s opportunity

    PYQ Relevance
    [UPSC 2023]     Introduce the concept of Artificial Intelligence (AI). How does AI help clinical diagnosis? Do you perceive any threat to privacy of the individual in the use of AI in healthcare?
    Linkage: The PYQ examines AI’s applications and its implications for privacy and individual rights. The EU AI Act shows how risk-based AI regulation can address privacy, safety and accountability concerns.

    Mentor’s Comment

    The European Union Artificial Intelligence Act becoming applicable creates an opportunity for India’s technology services. Its compliance demands could generate work Indian firms can supply.

    What is the EU AI Act?

    1. Risk-based law: The European Union Artificial Intelligence (AI) Act regulates AI systems by risk category.
    2. Applicability: It came into force in 2024 and its key obligations apply from 2 August 2026.
    3. High-risk systems: These require a conformity assessment before deployment.
    4. Extraterritorial reach: The Act can apply to entities outside the EU when their AI systems or models are placed on the EU market, used in the EU, or affect people in the EU.

    Risk Categories

    1. Unacceptable risk: Systems like social scoring or manipulative/exploitative AI are completely banned.
    2. High risk: Critical sectors like biometrics, employment, and healthcare require rigorous data governance, logging, and conformity assessments.
    3. Transparency (Limited) risk: Chatbots and deepfakes must clearly disclose to users that they are interacting with AI or synthetic media.
    4. Minimal risk: Most everyday utilities like video games or spam filters face no mandatory rules.

    Why does the EU regulate AI?

    1. Fundamental rights: Prevent discrimination, manipulation and unlawful surveillance.
    2. Safety: Ensure reliable and safe deployment of high-risk AI.
    3. Transparency: Help users distinguish AI-generated content from human-generated content.
    4. Trust: Create a predictable regulatory environment for responsible AI adoption.

    Why does it challenge India’s IT model?

    1. Bespoke services: India’s IT-services firms build customised systems, and any “substantial modification” can trigger a fresh assessment.
    2. Compliance cost: Repeated conformity checks raise the cost of serving EU clients.
    3. Data governance: High-risk AI requires stronger data quality, traceability, record-keeping and governance, requiring firms to upgrade systems.
    4. Talent gap: Compliance requires professionals combining AI, law, cybersecurity, risk assessment and auditing skills.
    5. Shift in competitive advantage: India’s traditional cost-based IT model must evolve towards trusted, auditable and regulation-ready AI services.

    Where is the opportunity?

    1. Compliance services: Demand rises for legal, technical, and audit services to meet the Act.
    2. Notified bodies: The India-EU Free Trade Agreement could let Indian conformity assessment bodies be recognised as EU “notified bodies”.
    3. First-mover edge: Early compliance capability positions India as a preferred AI-services partner.
    4. AI Assurance: Indian firms can offer AI risk assessment, algorithmic auditing, testing, documentation and certification support to global clients.
    5. Compliance-by-design: Indian IT companies can build EU-compliant AI systems from the development stage, turning regulatory expertise into a new export advantage.

    What are the challenges to capturing the opportunity?

    1. Standards gap: India lacks a mature domestic AI conformity-assessment ecosystem.
    2. Mutual recognition: Recognition of Indian bodies depends on the FTA’s regulatory-cooperation terms.
    3. Talent: Specialised AI-audit skills are scarce.
    4. Regulatory clarity: India’s own AI governance framework is still evolving.

    Conclusion

    The Act raises compliance costs but also creates a services market India can serve. Capturing it depends on the India-EU FTA delivering mutual recognition of conformity assessment bodies.

  • Has the Supreme Court drifted from its environmental legacy?

    Why in the News

    A recent reflection has revisited the Supreme Court’s four-decade legacy of environmental jurisprudence. This raises questions over whether recent rulings are departing from its established environmental doctrines.

    What are the core doctrines of Indian environmental law?

    1. Absolute liability: An enterprise engaged in a hazardous activity is fully liable for harm, established after the Bhopal disaster.
    2. Polluter pays principle: The cost of pollution and remediation falls on the polluter.
    3. Precautionary principle: Lack of scientific certainty is no reason to defer measures against environmental harm.
    4. Public trust doctrine: The state holds natural resources as a trustee for the public.

    Where do these doctrines come from constitutionally?

    1. Article 48A: Directs the state to protect and improve the environment.
    2. Article 51A(g): Makes environmental protection a fundamental duty of citizens.
    3. 42nd Amendment, 1976: Inserted both provisions into the Constitution.
    4. Article 21: Read to include the right to a clean environment.

    What is the tension?

    1. Development pull: Recent rulings are read as leaning toward clearing infrastructure over precaution.
    2. Amnesty concern: Environmental amnesty for past violations is questioned as inconsistent with the polluter pays principle.
    3. Consistency critique: The Court is charged with applying its own doctrines unevenly across cases.

    Conclusion

    The central claim is that the Court built strong environmental doctrine but now applies it inconsistently. What remains unresolved is whether the Court restores precaution as the default in development disputes.

    Back2Basics

    Foundational Context: environmental jurisprudence in India

    1. Judicial origin: Much of Indian environmental law is judge-made through public interest litigation.
    2. Landmark cases: M.C. Mehta cases, Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum, and the Bhopal litigation shaped the doctrines.
    3. Sustainable development: The Court fused environmental protection with development as a constitutional balance.
    4. Expansion of Article 21: The Supreme Court progressively interpreted the right to life to include the right to a clean, healthy and pollution-free environment

    Landmark Cases

    1. M.C. Mehta cases: Developed principles of environmental liability and protection.
    2. Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996): Recognised the precautionary principle and polluter pays principle as essential features of sustainable development.
    3. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak, 1987): Established the doctrine of absolute liability.
    4. M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997): Strengthened the public trust doctrine.

    PYQ Relevance

    “[2010] Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts?

    (a) Social Justice and Empowerment

    (b) Inclusive Growth

    (c) Globalization

    (d) Carrying capacity

  • Seven-judge Bench to weigh privileges against free speech

    Why in the News

    A seven-judge Constitution Bench will hear from 6 October 2026 whether legislative privileges override the freedom of speech. The reference revives a dispute from the 2003 attempt by the Tamil Nadu Assembly to arrest journalists over a critical editorial.

    What is the constitutional question?

    1. Privilege versus speech: Whether privileges under Article 194 can override Article 19(1)(a) free speech.
    2. Interplay of Articles: The case engages Articles 194(3), 19, and 21 together.
    3. Origin: It stems from a 2003 Assembly resolution to arrest newspaper journalists.

    What are legislative privileges?

    1. Definition: Special rights of a legislature and its members to function without external interference.
    2. Article 194: Grants privileges to state legislatures, mirroring Article 105 for Parliament.
    3. Uncodified: Privileges remain largely uncodified, drawing on British parliamentary practice.

    Why is the tension unresolved?

    1. Two rights collide: A legislature’s authority to punish for contempt sits against a citizen’s free speech.
    2. Judicial review scope: Whether courts can review a House’s exercise of privilege is itself disputed.
    3. Chilling effect: Broad privilege can deter press criticism of legislatures.

    “[2023, GS2, 10] Discuss the role of Presiding Officers of state legislatures in maintaining order and impartiality in conducting legislative work and in facilitating best democratic practices.”

    [2017] Which one of the following statements is correct?

    [A] Rights are absolute and can never be restricted by the State.

    [B] Rights are legally enforceable claims that individuals have against the State

    [C] Rights are privileges granted by the government that can be revoked at any time.

    [D] Rights are moral values that do not require legal protection.

  • FCRA Bill goes to a Joint Parliamentary Committee

    Why in the News

    The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC). The referral has renewed attention on how parliamentary committees shape legislation.

    What is a Joint Parliamentary Committee?

    1. Ad hoc committee: A JPC is set up for a specific bill or inquiry and dissolves after it reports.
    2. Composition: Members are drawn from both Houses, in proportion to party strength.
    3. Recommendations: Its recommendations are advisory, not binding on the government.

    Why does the committee route matter?

    1. Scrutiny space: Committees allow detailed, less partisan examination away from the floor.
    2. Declining use: Bills referred to committees fell from about 71% in the 15th Lok Sabha to about 16% in the 17th.
    3. Delay lever: Referral can also defer a contentious bill.

    What is contested in the FCRA amendment?

    1. Foreign funding control: The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 governs foreign donations to NGOs and associations.
    2. Civil society concern: Tighter rules are opposed as constraining non-governmental organisations and religious bodies.

    Conclusion

    The referral subjects a contested bill to committee scrutiny without settling it. The current status is examination by the JPC, with its report the next milestone.

    Back2Basics: Parliamentary Committees

    1. Standing committees: Permanent bodies such as the Public Accounts Committee and departmental committees.
    2. Ad hoc committees: Temporary bodies such as a JPC or a Select Committee.
    3. Financial committees: Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings.

    “[2023, GS2, 15] Explain the structure of the Parliamentary Committee system. How far have the financial committees helped in the institutionalization of Indian Parliament?”

    [2018] With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws etc. conferred by the constitution of delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

    (a) Committee on Government Assurances

    (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

    (c) Rules Committee

    (d) Business Advisory Committee

  • Can Parliament remove a judge who has resigned?

    Why in the News

    A parliamentary inquiry committee found all three charges proved against a former High Court judge, including failure to explain cash recovered from his residence and interference with evidence. The issue is whether the removal process can continue after his resignation.

    Removal of Judges: Constitutional Framework

    1. Article 124(4): Supreme Court judges can be removed only for proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
    2. Article 217: Deals with the tenure and removal of High Court judges.
    3. Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968: Provides the inquiry mechanism and formulation of charges.
    4. Parliamentary approval: Removal requires a special majority in each House, in the same session.
    5. Final step: After Parliament passes the address, the President issues the removal order.

    What did the Inquiry Committee Find?

    • All three charges were proved.
    • The judge failed to satisfactorily explain the cash recovered from his residence.
    • The committee found attempts to interfere with evidence.

    Key Constitutional Issue After Resignation

    • Removal is primarily linked to holding judicial office.
    • Resignation ends the judge’s tenure, creating a question about whether Parliament can still complete the removal process.
    • Possible consequences involving pension or future disqualification make the issue constitutionally significant.
    • There is no settled precedent on completing the removal process against a judge who has already resigned.

    Prelims Facts

    • Ground for removal → Proved misbehaviour or incapacity
    • High Court judge → Article 217
    • Supreme Court judge → Article 124
    • Inquiry procedure → Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
    • Removal requires → Special majority in both Houses
    • Final removal order → President
    • Policy disagreement → Not a ground for removal
    • Historical fact → No Indian judge has so far been removed after completion of the parliamentary removal process.

    “[2025, GS2, 15] “Constitutional morality is the fulcrum which acts as an essential check upon the high functionaries and citizens alike…” In view of the above observation of the Supreme Court, explain the concept of constitutional morality and its application to ensure balance between judicial independence and judicial accountability in India.”

    [2021] With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
    1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the president of India.
    2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • The constitutional limits on arrest, reaffirmed

    Why in the News

    An explainer revisits the constitutional limits on arrest after a 2025 Supreme Court ruling. It reaffirms that an arrested person must be meaningfully informed of the grounds of arrest.

    What does Article 22 guarantee on arrest?

    1. Grounds of arrest: Article 22(1) requires that grounds be communicated meaningfully, not as a formality.
    2. Legal counsel: The arrested person has the right to consult a lawyer of choice.
    3. Production before magistrate: Article 22(2) requires production within 24 hours of arrest.
    4. No prolonged custody: Continued detention beyond 24 hours requires Magistrate’s authorisation.
    5. Exception: These safeguards under Article 22(1) and 22(2) do not apply to enemy aliens and persons detained under preventive detention laws under Article 22(3).

    What did the recent ruling and precedents establish?

    1. Vihaan Kumar (2025): The Court held that failure to communicate grounds vitiates the arrest.
    2. Arnesh Kumar (2014): Arrest must be the exception for offences carrying up to seven years, not routine.
    3. D.K. Basu (1997): The Court prescribed safeguards including an arrest memo, informing relatives and medical examination to prevent custodial abuse.
    4. Arrest memo: Procedural safeguards require a documented arrest memo.

    What did the Supreme Court Rule in Vihaan Kumar Case?

    The judgment of the Supreme Court of India (Supreme Court) in the case of Vihan Kumar vs. State of Haryana (2025) marked a crucial milestone in protecting the fundamental rights of arrested persons.

    1. Mandatory information about the reasons for arrest: The Supreme Court has made it clear that the person arrested must be informed of the reasons for his arrest immediately. This is
      a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 22(1) of the Constitution.
    2. Arrest is invalid: If the accused is not informed of the reasons for the arrest, the arrest becomes illegal and unconstitutional.
    3. Cancellation of further proceedings: If fundamental rights are violated during the arrest process itself, subsequent remand orders issued by the courts or charge sheets filed by the police cannot rectify that mistake (Vitiated).
    4. Language awareness: The reasons for the arrest should be communicated in a language that the accused understands, and should not be a mere formality.

    Human rights and dignity (Article 21)

    1. Ban on shackles in hospitals: The Supreme Court has strongly condemned the practice of shackles and chains on Vihan Kumar when he was admitted to the hospital due to medical reasons.
    2. Right to Life: The court held that the right to live with dignity is part of Article 21 , and chaining the accused to a hospital bed falls under the category of human rights violation.

    How is preventive detention different?

    1. Without trial: Preventive detention permits custody without a charge to prevent an anticipated act.
    2. Advisory Board: Detention beyond three months requires review by an Advisory Board.
    3. Narrow safeguards: Several ordinary arrest protections under Article 22 do not apply to preventive detention.
    4. Preventive: Unlike ordinary detention, it is not punitive. It is intended to prevent an anticipated act prejudicial to specified interests.
    5. No 24-hour Magistrate requirement under Article 22(3).
    6. Grounds of detention must generally be communicated, subject to non-disclosure in public interest.

    What is the “Golden Triangle”?

    1. Articles 14, 19, 21: Together they form the core of personal liberty jurisprudence.
    2. Maneka Gandhi (1978): Established that a law depriving personal liberty must prescribe a procedure that is just, fair and reasonable.
    3. Article 22: Provides specific procedural safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention, complementing the broader protection under Article 21.

    Conclusion

    The ruling restates settled safeguards and closes an enforcement gap on communicating arrest grounds. It sharpens the line between lawful arrest and arbitrary detention.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2023] “The Constitution of India is a living instrument with capabilities of enormous dynamism. It is a constitution made for a progressive society.” Illustrate with special reference to the expanding horizons of the right to life and personal liberty.

    Linkage: The PYQ examines the expanding scope of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. Arrest safeguards and preventive-detention limits show how judicial interpretation strengthens protection against arbitrary deprivation of liberty.

  • Anti-paper-leak law amended amid exam-integrity protests

    Why in the News

    The Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 seeks to strengthen the 2024 law against organised cheating and examination paper leaks amid concerns over NEET and recruitment examination irregularities.

    What is the Public Examination Act, 2024?

    1. Objective: Criminalises organised cheating, paper leaks, impersonation and other unfair means.
    2. Coverage: Applies to major public examinations conducted by bodies such as UPSC, SSC and NTA.
    3. Penalties: Provides imprisonment and heavy fines for organised examination malpractice.
    4. Focus: Targets organised networks rather than genuine candidate errors.

    Why was it amended?

    • Exam-leak crisis: Repeated paper leaks and irregularities exposed weaknesses in examination governance.
    • Enforcement gaps: Strengthening was considered necessary after experience with the 2024 framework.
    • Public trust: Fair examinations are essential for merit-based recruitment and equal opportunity.

    What does the crisis reveal?

    • Aspiration-opportunity gap: Large numbers of candidates compete for limited government jobs.
    • Institutional trust deficit: Repeated leaks undermine confidence in recruitment institutions.
    • Governance challenge: Legal punishment alone cannot ensure examination integrity without secure technology, accountable agencies and speedy investigation.

    Prelims Pointers

    • Act: Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
    • Ministry/Department: Department of Personnel and Training
    • Targets: Organised cheating, paper leaks and impersonation
    • Important distinction: The Act does not automatically cover all university or State board examinations unless the concerned government adopts the framework.

    “[2024, GS2, 15] What are the aims and objects of the recently passed and enforced, The Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024? Whether University/State Education Board examinations, too, are covered under the Act?”

    [2021] With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
    1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
    2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • Parliament clears renaming of Kerala to “Keralam”

    Why in the News

    Both Houses passed a Bill to rename Kerala as “Keralam”, its name in Malayalam. The change follows two resolutions of the Kerala Assembly and routes through the constitutional process for altering a state’s name.

    How is a state renamed under the Constitution?

    1. Parliament’s power: Under Article 3, Parliament can alter the name of a state by law.
    2. Presidential referral: Such a Bill needs the President’s recommendation and the views of the affected state legislature.
    3. Simple majority: The change is passed by ordinary legislative majority, not a constitutional amendment.

    Why “Keralam”?

    1. Linguistic identity: “Keralam” is the state’s name in Malayalam, and the change aligns official usage with local usage.
    2. Assembly resolutions: The Kerala Assembly twice sought the change unanimously.

    Why does the process matter?

    1. Union primacy: Only Parliament, not the state, can effect the legal renaming.
    2. Federal courtesy: The state legislature’s view is sought, but its resolution is not binding.

    Back2Basics: Article 3 of the Constitution

    1. Scope: Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states.
    2. Initiation: Only on the President’s recommendation, after seeking the state legislature’s views.
    3. Nature: Treated as an ordinary law, reflecting the “indestructible states” feature of Indian federalism.

    “[2022, GS1, 15] The political and administrative reorganization of states and territories has been a continuous ongoing process since the mid-nineteenth century. Discuss with examples.”

    [2025] Consider the following pairs :
    State:Description
    1. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the state has two National Parks
    2. Nagaland: The State came into Existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
    3. Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of State in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    [A] Only one

    [B] Only two

    [C] All the three

    [D] None