Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Tokamak Technology, Nuclear Fusion
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- South Korean scientists at the Korea Institute of Fusion Energy (KFE) achieved a significant milestone by producing temperatures of 100 million Celsius for 48 seconds in the Korea Superconducting Tokamak Advanced Research (KSTAR) fusion reactor.
- KSTAR maintained the high confinement mode (H-mode) for over 100 seconds, demonstrating stability in plasma conditions crucial for sustained fusion reactions.
- This is a world record.
What is Tokamak Technology?
- Scientists utilize a tokamak, a donut-shaped reactor, to heat hydrogen variants to extreme temperatures, creating plasma.
- This reactor replicates the Sun’s fusion reaction, generating immense heat energy.
|
What is Nuclear Fusion?
- Nuclear fusion involves fusion of hydrogen and other light elements to release massive energy, akin to the process that powers the Sun and stars.
- It is a process where two light atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a large amount of energy in the process.
- This occurs under extremely high temperatures, typically in the range of tens of millions of degrees Celsius, and pressure, similar to those found in the core of stars.
- In a tokamak reactor, hydrogen variants are heated to extreme temperatures to create a plasma, mimicking conditions found in the Sun’s core.
- 1 kg of fusion fuel contains about 10 million times as much energy as a kg of coal, oil or gas.
Significance of KSTAR’s achievements
- Achieving sustained fusion reactions in laboratory conditions unlocks the potential for unlimited, zero-carbon electricity generation.
- By extending the duration of high-temperature fusion, scientists aim to sustain plasma temperatures of 100 million degrees for 300 seconds by 2026, pushing the boundaries of fusion research.
- Progress in fusion research at KSTAR contributes to international efforts, supporting projects like the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) in France.
ITER Project
- ITER is a unique partnership of nations jointly responsible for the construction, operation, and decommissioning of an experimental fusion facility.
- It was founded in 2007 and is based at Saint-Paul-lez-Durance, France.
- ITER being an experimental reactor, it will allow the study of fusion reaction which governs the Sun and other Stars.
- Nuclear fusion will take place in the form of Plasma in a Tokamak.
ITER is run, funded and designed by 7 members:
- European Union (EU)
- India
- China
- Japan
- Russia
- South Korea
- United States
|
Benefits offered by Nuclear Fusion Energy
- Clean Energy: Fusion reactions produce minimal radioactive waste compared to nuclear fission, which generates long-lived radioactive waste. Fusion also emits no greenhouse gases, making it an environmentally friendly energy source.
- Safety and Controlled Nature: Fusion reactions are inherently safer than nuclear fission reactions. Fusion reactors have a lower risk of accidents and do not produce runaway chain reactions like fission reactors.
- Energy Security: Fusion provides a reliable and secure source of energy, reducing dependence on fossil fuels and volatile energy markets. It offers a sustainable solution to meet global energy demand.
- High Energy Density: Fusion reactions release a vast amount of energy compared to other energy sources. This high energy density makes fusion power compact and efficient, enabling it to meet large-scale energy needs.
- Scalability: Fusion reactors can be designed to scale up or down to meet varying energy demands. They can serve as base-load power plants or complement renewable energy sources, providing flexibility in the energy mix.
- Minimal Environmental Impact: Fusion power plants have a small footprint and do not require large mining operations or fuel transportation, reducing their environmental impact. They also produce no air pollution or carbon emissions during operation.
PYQ:
2016:
India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?
(a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for power generation
(b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation
(c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation
(d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation
Practice MCQ:
The Korea Superconducting Tokamak Advanced Research (KSTAR) fusion reactor has recently set a world record. In this regard, consider the following statements:
1. It produced a temperatures of 100 million Celsius for 48 seconds.
2. It achieved sustained fusion reactions in laboratory conditions.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: RBI, its regulatory functions, major achievements
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
Recently, the RBI celebrated its 90th year in Mumbai, marking a significant milestone.
Dr. Ambedkar’s Role in the Establishment of RBI:
- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s contributions were particularly notable during the Hilton Young Commission discussions in 1926, where he presented his recommendations based on his book “The Problem of the Rupee – Its Origin and Its Solution.”
- These discussions laid the foundation for the establishment of the RBI on April 1, 1935.
|
About Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- The RBI is the central bank and monetary authority of India.
- It was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
- Its idea was incepted from the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
- Sir Osborne Arkell Smith, an Australian, served as the inaugural Governor.
- He was succeeded by Sir C D Deshmukh, the first Indian to hold the position.
- It is a centralized institution for India to effectively regulate its monetary and credit policies.
- RBI had its initial headquarters in Kolkata, later moving permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
- Initially, the RBI operated as a privately owned entity until its full nationalization in 1949.
Functions and Initiatives:
- Monetary Authority: The RBI controls the supply of money in the economy to stabilize exchange rates, maintain a healthy balance of payment, and control inflation.
- Issuer of Currency: Sole authority to issue currency and combat circulation of counterfeit notes.
- Banker to the Government: Acts as a banker to both the Central and State governments, providing short-term credit and financial advisory services.
- Lender of Last Resort: Provides emergency liquidity assistance to banks during crises.
- Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves: Manages foreign exchange reserves and administers the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA).
- Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems: Oversees payment and settlement systems in the country, ensuring efficiency and security.
- Credit Control and Developmental Role: Promotes credit availability to productive sectors and fosters financial infrastructure development.
Transformative Reforms initiated by the RBI
- Green Revolution (1960s-1970s): Supported agricultural growth through credit facilities and rural credit accessibility enhancements.
- Banks Nationalization (1969): Aimed at aligning banking sector objectives with national policy goals.
- Priority Sector Lending (1972): Ensures timely credit flow to key sectors of the economy.
- Economic Liberalization (1991): Opened up the economy to global markets, fostering market-oriented growth.
- Unified Payment Interface (UPI), 2016: Enabled seamless and instant transactions across India.
- Inflation Targeting Framework, 2016: Set inflation targets to guide monetary policy decisions.
- Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), 2019: Launched an integrated bill payment system for customer convenience.
- Aadhar-based eKYC (2019): Streamlined customer authentication processes for financial institutions.
- Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), 2020: Provided credit assistance to SMEs affected by the COVID-19 pandemic.
- Central Bank Digital Currency (2022): RBI is actively exploring the issuance of a CBDC known as e₹ (digital Rupee).
- Cryptocurrency Regulation (2022): RBI has maintained a consistent stance against cryptocurrencies, advocating for an outright ban on them (after China and El Salvador imposed the complete ban). In 2020, the Supreme Court of India removed the ban on cryptocurrencies imposed by RBI.
- Payment Vision 2025 Document (2023): The goals and vision of the RBI, are categorised in the Payments Vision 2025 documents into five anchor goalposts – Integrity, Inclusion, Innovation, Institutionalisation and Internationalisation.
PYQ:
2012:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?
1. Banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2013: Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Leap Second, Leap Year, UTC, TAI
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- A recent publication in the science journal Nature highlights how climate change-induced melting of glaciers and ice sheets is altering the Earth’s rotation, potentially disrupting our timekeeping systems.
- Leap seconds were added almost every year between 1972 and 1999 to adjust for Earth’s slowing rotation. But there have only been four added in the last 23 years, and the last time a leap second was added was in 2016.
What is a Leap Second?
- A leap second is a one-second adjustment that is occasionally applied to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in order to synchronize atomic time with astronomical time, particularly with the Earth’s rotation.
- The purpose of adding or subtracting a leap second is to keep International Atomic Time (IAT) (which is extremely precise) in close alignment with astronomical time, which is based on the Earth’s rotation and is subject to slight variations.
There are two types of leap seconds:
- Positive Leap Second:
- A positive leap second is added to UTC when the Earth’s rotation slows down slightly, causing the length of a day to exceed 86,400 seconds.
- This type of leap second is necessary to bring UTC back into alignment with the Earth’s rotational time.
- Positive leap seconds are rare and occur less frequently than negative leap seconds.
- Negative Leap Second:
- A negative leap second, also known as a deletion or removal of a second, occurs when the Earth’s rotation speeds up slightly, causing the length of a day to be less than 86,400 seconds.
- Negative leap seconds are extremely rare and have only been proposed but never implemented. They are considered hypothetical and have not yet been needed to adjust UTC.
- The concept of negative leap seconds is controversial and requires international agreement and coordination among timekeeping organizations.
International Atomic Time (TAI)
- TAI is a high-precision time scale based on the weighted average of atomic clocks (usually involving caesium or rubidium atoms) from various laboratories around the world.
- It is one of the primary time scales used for scientific and technical purposes, providing a continuous and uniform time reference that is independent of the Earth’s rotation.
- TAI is maintained since 1958 by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM) in Paris, France.
- Unlike UTC, which is adjusted periodically to account for the Earth’s irregular rotation, TAI is a continuous time scale that does not include any corrections for Earth’s rotation.
|
How Climate Change causes Negative Leap Second?
- Glacial Melting: Accelerating melt rates in Greenland and Antarctica are redistributing weight across the planet, causing a slight deceleration in the Earth’s rotation.
- Historical Context: Timekeepers have periodically added leap seconds to clocks worldwide to account for the Earth spinning faster than usual, with 27 instances recorded since the 1970s.
- Planned Adjustment: The proposed “negative leap second” adjustment, scheduled for 2026, may be postponed until 2029 or later due to the recent deceleration in the Earth’s rotation.Top of Form
Practice MCQ:
What is a Leap Second?
(a) It is a periodic adjustment added to International Atomic Time (TAI) to compensate for irregularities in Earth’s rotation.
(b) It is an extra second added to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) to synchronize atomic time with astronomical time.
(c) It is the time lag measured by the atomic clocks in Outer Space-Time conditions.
(d) It is a term used to describe the synchronization of atomic clocks with the oscillations of subatomic particles. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Paradip and other major sea-ports
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
Paradip Port in Odisha has made history by becoming India’s largest major port in terms of cargo volumes, surpassing Deendayal Port Authority in Gujarat during FY24.
About Paradip Port
- Paradip Port is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha.
- It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.
- The port was commissioned in 1966 to serve as a gateway for the maritime trade of eastern India.
- Paradip Port Trust, a statutory body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, manages and operates the port.
Key Features of the Port
- Infrastructure: It is equipped with modern facilities for handling a variety of cargo, including dry bulk, liquid bulk, containerized cargo, and general cargo.
- Deep-Draft Port: The port has extensive berthing facilities and cargo-handling equipment capable of handling millions of tonnes of cargo annually.
- Strategic Importance: Paradip Port serves as a vital link for the export and import trade of eastern and central India, contributing significantly to the region’s economic development.
- Connectivity: The port is well-connected to major cities and industrial centers in Odisha and neighbouring states through road and rail networks.
Key Feats Achieved
- Cargo Throughput: Paradip Port achieved a record-breaking cargo throughput of 145.38 million metric tonnes (MMT) in FY2023-24, surpassing Deendayal Port.
- Coastal Shipping Traffic: The port recorded the highest-ever coastal shipping traffic of 59.19 million metric tonnes, showcasing a growth of 1.30% over the previous year.
- Thermal Coal Handling: Thermal coal shipping reached 43.97 million metric tonnes, marking a growth of 4.02% over the previous year.
- Revenue Growth: Operating revenue crossed Rs 2,300 crore in FY24, reflecting a notable increase of 14.30% compared to the previous fiscal.
Driving Factors of this Success
- Enhanced Operational Efficiency: Mechanised coal handling plant operations were optimized, resulting in the highest handling of thermal coal at 27.12 million tonnes.
- Productivity Improvement: Paradip Port improved berth productivity to 33,014 MT, the highest among all ports, showcasing a growth of 6.33% over the previous financial year.
- Rake Handling and Ship Movements: The port handled 21,665 rakes and 2,710 ships during FY24, registering significant year-on-year growth in both metrics.
Future Prospects
- Capacity Expansion: With a current capacity of 289 million tonnes, Paradip Port is poised to exceed 300 million tonnes capacity in the next 3 years with the commissioning of the Western Dock project.
- Strategic Location: Located near a mineral-rich hinterland, Paradip Port remains a strategic asset for India’s maritime trade and economic growth.
PYQ:
2017:
What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Practice MCQ:
It is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal. It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.
Which sea port in Odisha is being talked about by the above description?
(a) Haldia
(b) Gopalpur
(c) Belikeri
(d) Paradip |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: SCORES 2.0, SEBI
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) unveiled the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0) marking a significant advancement in the investor complaint redressal mechanism in the securities market.
About Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
- Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
- It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
- SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
- Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.
|
What is SCORES 2.0?
- SCORES 2.0 refers to the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
- SCORES is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.
- Complaints can be lodged for any issues covered under the:
- SEBI Act, 1992
- Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1956
- Depositories Act, 1966
- Companies Act, 2013
Complaints on SCORES 2.0 can be launched against:
- Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
- Brokers / stock exchanges
- Depository participants / depository
- Mutual funds
- Portfolio Managers
- Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc.)
Features of SCORES 2.0:
- Reduced Timelines: SCORES 2.0 implements reduced and standardized timelines for addressing investor grievances, ensuring a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days from the date of complaint receipt.
- Auto-Routing and Escalation: The new version incorporates an auto-routing mechanism to swiftly direct complaints to the relevant regulated entity. Additionally, it introduces a two-tier review process, with complaints undergoing review first by the designated body and subsequently by SEBI if investors remain dissatisfied with the resolution provided.
- Integration with KYC Database: SCORES 2.0 is seamlessly integrated with the KYC Registration Agency database, streamlining the registration process for investors onto the platform.
- Enhanced Efficiency: Through features such as auto-routing, auto-escalation, and stricter monitoring protocols, SCORES 2.0 aims to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the investor complaint redressal process.
Significance of SCORES 2.0
- Improved Regulatory Oversight: By introducing stricter timelines and oversight mechanisms, SEBI aims to enhance regulatory efficiency and transparency, fostering a more accountable and responsive market ecosystem.
- Technological Advancements: The integration of advanced technological features, such as auto-routing and KYC database linkage, reflects SEBI’s proactive approach towards harnessing digital innovations to modernize regulatory processes and services.
PYQ:
2013:
The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the SCORES 2.0 Platform recently launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
1. It is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.
2. It addresses complaints pertaining to the SEBI Act, 1992 only.
3. It ensures a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Kallakkadal, Tsunami
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Coastal areas of Kerala, including Alappuzha, Kollam, and Thiruvananthapuram districts, are grappling with flooding caused by high sea waves, known as swell waves or Kallakkadal in Malayalam.
- The recent swell surge occurred following a low-pressure system originating in the South Atlantic Ocean, leading to the formation of waves reaching heights of up to 11 meters.
What is Kallakkadal?
- Origin and Meaning:
- Kallakkadal refers to coastal flooding during the (April-May) pre-monsoon season.
- It is caused by ocean swell waves on the southwest coast of India.
- The term “Kallakkadal” originates from Malayalam, combining “Kallan” (thief) and “Kadal” (sea), denoting the sea’s unexpected intrusion akin to a thief.
- In 2012, the term was formally approved by the UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).
- Causes:
- These waves stem from distant storms, such as hurricanes, generating significant energy transfer from the atmosphere to the water.
- Kallakkadal typically results from strong winds in the southern Indian Ocean, generating ocean swells that travel northward towards the Kerala coast.
Features of Kallakkadal
- This phenomenon occurs mostly during pre-monsoon season and sometimes during post monsoon.
- It continues for a few days.
- It inundates the low lying coasts.
- Initially sea recedes before the surge.
- During high tide the run-up, water level can reach as much as 3–4 m above Maximum Water Level (MWL).
How is it distinct from Tsunami?
- Nature of Phenomenon: Kallakkadal, though often confused with tsunamis, arises from distant storm-generated waves, contrasting with tsunamis triggered by underwater disturbances, typically seismic activities.
- Clarification: Understanding this distinction is crucial for implementing effective early warning systems and mitigating the impact of coastal hazards.
PYQ:
2017: At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at-
(a) Bhavnagar
(b) Bheemunipatnam
(c) Chandipur
(d) Nagapattinam
Practice MCQ:
The Coastal areas of Kerala recently witnessed the Oceanic Swell Waves locally known as Kallakkadal. In this regard consider the following statements:
1. Kallakkadal typically occurs during the spring season (March-April).
2. These waves stem from distant storms in the southern Indian Ocean.
Which of the given statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Zero FIR vs ordinary FIR
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Hyderabad Police have initiated a zero FIR case against former minister for alleged derogatory remarks against Telangana CM.
First Information Report (FIR)
- An FIR is a written document prepared by the police upon receiving information about a cognisable offence.
- It is when an officer can arrest a suspect without a court’s warrant if/she has “reason to believe” that the person committed the offence and arrest is necessary based on certain factors.
- It serves as the first step towards initiating the investigation process and subsequent police actions.
- Section 154(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) empowers the police to register an FIR for cognizable offences.
- Section 166A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides punishment for public servants failing to record information related to a cognizable offence, with imprisonment of up to two years and a fine.
|
What is Zero FIR?
- Provision and Purpose: Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognisable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
- No diary: Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’. Hence the name.
Features of a Zero FIR:
- Swift Action: The relevant police station subsequently registers a fresh FIR and commences the investigation.
- Focus on Victims: It is designed to expedite complaint lodging, particularly for serious crimes involving women and children, without the need to approach multiple police stations.
- Preserving Evidence: Early registration helps prevent the loss or tampering of crucial evidence and witnesses.
- Transferred Jurisdiction: The Zero FIR is later transferred to the relevant police station where the offence occurred or where the investigation should be conducted.
How does it work?
- After a police station registers a zero FIR, it has to transfer the complaint to a police station that has the jurisdiction to investigate the alleged offence.
- Once a zero FIR is transferred, the police station with the appropriate jurisdiction assigns it a serial number, thereby converting it into a regular FIR.
Legal Provisions for Zero FIR
The provision of Zero FIR finds support in various judgments and recommendations:
- Satvinder Kaur vs. State (1999): The Delhi High Court held that a woman has the right to lodge her complaint from any place other than where the incident occurred.
- Justice Verma Committee (2012): The introduction of Zero FIR was based on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee, which was formed in response to the 2012 Nirbhaya gangrape case.
- Lalita Kumari vs. Govt. of UP (2014): The Supreme Court ruled that registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence.
PYQ:
2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked-up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Regarding the Zero FIR, consider the following statements:
1. Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognizable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
2. Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
This year marks 125th Year of the Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO).
About Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)
- The idea for an Indian solar observatory emerged in the late 19th century, with then government sanctioning the establishment of the Solar Physics Observatory in Kodaikanal in August 1893.
- Kodaikanal in the Palani hills of Tamil Nadu was chosen as the site for the observatory due to its favorable atmospheric conditions, following surveys conducted by Charles Michie Smith.
- The foundation stone for KoSO was laid by Lord Wenlock, the then Governor of Madras, in 1895.
- Systematic observations at KoSO began on March 14, 1901.
- KoSO initially housed instruments for solar observations, including telescopes for examining sunspots, prominences, and solar radiations.
- Presently, KoSO houses advanced instruments like the H-alpha telescope and the White light Active Region Monitor (WARM) for high-resolution solar imaging.
Do you know?
- The Bhavnagar Telescope, named after the Maharaja of Bhavnagar, was one of the more famous instruments at KoSO during the early decades of its operation.
- A 15cm telescope was used to capture solar images onto a photographic film or plate.
- Solar magnetic plages and prominences were recorded since 1911, taken on photographic films and plates.
|
Historical Perspective
- Ancient Legacy: Throughout history, seafarers, mathematicians, astronomers, and physicists have meticulously studied the Sun and its celestial phenomena.
- British Era Initiatives: In 1792, the British East India Company established the pioneering Madras Observatory, marking a significant milestone in astronomical research in the region.
- Madras Observatory’s Legacy: The Madras Observatory documented crucial astronomical observations during 1812-1825, laying the groundwork for solar research in India.
- Shift to Systematic Observations: Dedicated solar observations commenced in 1878, fostering a deeper understanding of solar phenomena.
- Advancements in Methodology: The adoption of systematic observational techniques paved the way for more comprehensive and detailed studies of the Sun’s behavior.
Need for such Observatory
- Great Drought of 1875-1877: This event triggered by scanty rainfall, propelled the need for comprehensive solar studies to comprehend its implications on weather patterns.
- India’s Geographical Significance: India’s drought was part of a larger global phenomenon, affecting several countries and leading to widespread famine.
- Scientific Inquiry: Scientists recognized the potential role of solar variability in influencing climatic patterns, prompting inquiries into the Sun’s behavior and its correlation with environmental phenomena.
Scientific Endeavors of KoSO
- The observatory made significant contributions to solar physics, including the discovery of the radial motion of sunspots, known as the Evershed Effect.
- Over time, KoSO expanded its research areas beyond solar physics to include cosmic rays, radio astronomy, ionospheric physics, and stellar physics.
- In April 1971, KoSO was brought under the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, as part of the separation of astrophysics from the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
Repository of the KoSO
- Between 1904 and 2017, all solar observations were traced onto photographic films and plates
- A new telescope mounted with CCD cameras has taken over and, since 2017, continued to observe the Sun.
- Digitization of the records was initiated in 1984 by Prof J C Bhattacharyya, and others continued the effort.
- KoSO is now home to a digital repository of a whopping 1.48 lakh solar images adding up to 10 terabyte of data.
- These include 33,500 white-light images (showing sunspots), 45,000 images of the Ca II K spectral line (which reveals plages), and 70,000 H-alpha photographic plates that show prominences.
PYQ:
2019:
On 21st June, the Sun-
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Evershed Effect’ in Sun?
(a) It refers to the bending of light waves around obstacles, demonstrated by the diffraction pattern observed in a single-slit experiment.
(b) It is the phenomenon of a magnetic field being generated by the motion of charged particles in the convective zone of the Sun.
(c) It describes the deflection of moving charged particles, such as electrons, in a magnetic field, leading to the creation of an electric potential difference.
(d) It is the radial flow of gases in the Sun’s outer atmosphere, observed as a redshift in the spectrum of light emitted by the photosphere. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Mains level: NA
Why in the News?
- The Allahabad High Court clarified the appellate jurisdiction concerning orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) in contempt proceedings.
- The court ruled that appeals against CAT contempt orders must be filed exclusively before the Supreme Court under Section 19 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
What is Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
- The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body in India established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India.
- Its primary function is to adjudicate disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
- CAT was set up to provide a speedy and inexpensive remedy to government employees in matters concerning their service conditions and employment disputes.
Establishment of CAT:
- The Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985 enacted by the Parliament authorizes the central government to establish Central Administrative Tribunal and the State Administrative Tribunals.
- There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the Central Administrative Tribunal all over India.
Jurisdiction of CAT:
- The Administrative Tribunal is distinguishable from the ordinary courts with regard to its jurisdiction and procedure.
- It exercises jurisdiction only about the service matters of the parties covered by the Act.
- CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning the following:
- A member of any All-India Service
- A person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the Union
- A civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence
Services NOT Covered:
The following members are NOT covered under the jurisdiction of CAT:
- Defense forces, Officers,
- The staff of the Supreme Court and
- Secretarial staff of the Parliament.
Procedure:
- The CAT is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is NOT bound by the procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
- It is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
- Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.
Composition:
- The CAT comprises of a chairman, and other members who are appointed by the President of India.
- The membership of CAT is filled by members from judicial and administrative fields.
- The term of the service is 5 years or until the age of 65 years for chairman; 62 years for members, whichever is earlier. (minimum age is 50 years)
- The chairman or any other member may address his resignation to the President in between his term of office.
PYQ:
2019: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its power as an independent judicial authority. Explain.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
1. The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body.
2. It adjudicates disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
3. Personnel of the armed forces are covered in the jurisdiction of CAT.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Lalit Kala Academy
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Ministry of Culture has restricted the powers of Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA) Chairman, V Nagdas, preventing him from taking any administrative actions without prior consultation with the ministry.
- The directive was issued, citing rule 19(1) of General Rules and Regulations of LKA, empowering the central government to intervene in administrative matters.
About Lalit Kala Akademi
|
Details |
| Established |
1954
Inaugurated by then Education Minister Maulana Azad (Based on French Academy) |
| Headquarters |
New Delhi, India |
| Founding Legislation |
Lalit Kala Akademi Act, 1954
Registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860. |
| Type |
Autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India |
| Objective |
Promotion and development of visual arts in India |
| Functions |
Conducting exhibitions, workshops, seminars, and research programs
Granting scholarships, awards, and fellowships to artists
Publishing journals, catalogues, and other art-related publications
Collaborating with international art organizations and institutions |
| Programs |
1. National Exhibitions of Art
2. Rashtriya Kala Mela
3. International Exhibitions
4. Scholarships, Awards, and Fellowships
5. Workshops and Residencies
6. Seminars and Conferences |
| Key Initiatives |
Triennale India
National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA)
Art camps and symposiums |
| Membership |
Open to visual artists, art enthusiasts, and art scholars |
| Publications |
1. Lalit Kala Contemporary
2. Lalit Kala Series
3. Annual Reports
4. Catalogues and Journals |
| Awards |
1. Lalit Kala Akademi Fellowship
2. National Awards in various art categories
3. Kalidasa Samman |
| Gallery |
Lalit Kala Akademi Galleries in New Delhi and regional centers |
PYQ:
2021: Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 :
1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statement about the Lalit Kala Akademi:
1. It was inaugurated in 1954 by then-Education Minister Maulana Azad.
2. It is an autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Ozone, Jupiter's Compositions, Its moon
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
PRL Ahmedabad researchers has uncovered evidence of ozone presence on Jupiter’s moon Callisto, offering profound insights into celestial chemical processes.
About Jupiter and its Moons
|
Description |
| Discovery |
Known since ancient times;
Galileo Galilei observed Jupiter and its moons through a telescope in 1610 |
| Composition |
Mostly composed of hydrogen and helium, with traces of other gases such as ammonia, methane, and water vapor |
| Diameter |
139,822 kilometers |
| Mass |
1.898 × 10^27 kilograms (317.8 Earth masses) |
| Orbital Period |
Approximately 11.86 Earth years |
| Average Distance from Sun |
Approximately 778 million kilometers |
| Surface Temperature |
Approximately -145°C (-234°F) |
| Magnetic Field |
Strong magnetic field, the strongest in the solar system |
| Moons |
Jupiter has 79 known moons, including the four largest Galilean moons: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.
Other notable moons include Amalthea, Himalia, Elara, Leda, Thebe, Metis, Adrastea, and more.
The moons vary significantly in size, composition, and orbital characteristics. |
| Great Red Spot |
Enormous storm system, known to exist for at least 400 years |
| Exploration |
Explored by spacecraft such as Pioneer, Voyager, Galileo, Juno, and more |
Callisto and its Unique Environment
- Composition: Callisto’s predominantly icy surface, interspersed with rocky materials, sulphur dioxide, and organic compounds, positions it as a compelling candidate for extraterrestrial life exploration.
- Geological Stability: Despite extensive cratering, Callisto’s surface exhibits geological inactivity, suggesting long-term stability conducive to preserving subsurface oceans or potential habitats.
Significance of Ozone Findings
- Life-Sustaining Component: Ozone, a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms, plays a vital role in shielding celestial bodies from harmful ultraviolet radiation, fostering conditions conducive to life.
- Earthly Parallel: Just as the Earth’s ozone layer protects against harmful UV radiation, the presence of ozone on Callisto hints at stable atmospheric conditions and potential habitability, sparking scientific intrigue.
PYQ:
What is the difference between asteroids and comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are made of ice, dust and rocky material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (2011)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: NICES Programs
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The National Information System for Climate and Environment Studies (NICES) Program has extended invitations to Indian researchers to contribute to climate change mitigation efforts.
What is NICES Program?
- The NICES Programme is operated by the ISRO and the Department of Space.
- It was launched in 2012.
- It operates within the framework of the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
- NICES aims to enhance the participation of Indian researchers in addressing climate change-related challenges through multidisciplinary scientific investigations.
- Focus Areas: Potential areas for project submission include Space-based Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) and Climate Indicators, Climate Change Challenges, Weather Extremes, and Climate Services.
Activities held under NICES Program
- NICES invites project proposals from Indian scientists, academicians, and researchers affiliated with various governmental organizations, recognized institutions, universities, and departments.
- Project proposals should address climate change-related challenges.
- These projects are expected be completed within 3 years from the date of sanction.
Objective and Functionality
- The primary objective of the NICES Programme is to generate and disseminate long-term Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) derived from Indian and other Earth Observation (EO) satellites.
- These variables, spanning terrestrial, oceanic, and atmospheric domains, are crucial for characterizing Earth’s climate and monitoring changes over time.
Achievements and Impact:
- Since its inception in 2012, NICES has developed over 70 geophysical products meeting stringent quality standards.
- These products have been instrumental in documenting climate change and its impacts, contributing to scientific understanding and evidence-based decision-making.
PYQ:
2021: Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference?
Practice MCQ:
The NICES Program is an initiative of:
(a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(b) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
(c) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
(d) None of the above. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: district Kancheepuram, trend in export of electronic goods
Mains level: Trend in export of electronic goods
Why in the news?
Nearly 40% of India’s smartphone shipments over the past two fiscal years originated from a single district Kancheepuram.
Context
- In FY23, Tamil Nadu emerged as India’s foremost exporter of electronic goods, contributing 30% to the country’s total electronic goods exports in FY24.
- Historically, the state lagged behind Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka in this sector until FY22.
- However, in recent years, Tamil Nadu has experienced consistent growth in electronic goods exports, unlike other states where figures have either declined or remained static.
Chart 1 shows the electronic goods exported from Tamil Nadu in $ billion, year-wise.
- Between April 2023 and January 2024, Tamil Nadu exported electronic goods valued at over $7.4 billion.
Chart 2 shows the exports of electronic goods of the top five States in India in $ billion, year-wise
- In FY24, Tamil Nadu’s exports exceeded the combined exports of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka, which totaled $6.7 billion during that period.
- Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka were ranked second and third, respectively, in terms of electronic goods exports.
- Gujarat and Maharashtra, also among the top five exporting states, have experienced stagnant growth in recent years.
Chart 3 shows the commodity wise share in total exports from India for FY24 (till February) in $ billion
- Engineering goods were the dominant category of exports from India during the specified period, with a total value of $98 billion.
- Petroleum products followed closely behind, with exports valued at $78 billion.
- Gems and jewellery constituted another significant export category, with a total export value of $30 billion.
- Electronics goods were also notable, although they ranked lower compared to other categories, with exports totaling $25 billion. In FY18, electronics goods were not among the top 10 most exported commodities from India.
Biggest markets
- Top most importor of India’s Electronic goods: The United States and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) are the largest markets for India’s electronic goods export. In FY24 (up to February), the U.S. accounted for approximately 35% of India’s electronic goods exports, amounting to $8.7 billion, while the UAE accounted for 12% with $3 billion.
- Other countries share:The Netherlands and the United Kingdom (U.K.) each held a share of about 5% in India’s electronic goods exports.
- The primary destination : Since FY21, the United States has consistently been the primary destination for India’s electronics exports, with its share increasing significantly in recent years.
Conclusion
Tamil Nadu’s emergence as a key electronics exporter, with 30% of India’s exports, is highlighted. Kancheepuram district’s significant role, alongside Tamil Nadu’s surpassing of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka, underscores its growth in electronic goods exports.
Mains PYQ
Q Can the strategy of regional-resource based manufacturing help in promoting employment in India? (UPSC IAS/2019)
Q Account for the failure of manufacturing sector in achieving the goal of labour-intensive exports. Suggest measures for more labour-intensive rather than capital-intensive exports.(UPSC IAS/2017)
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Vaikom Satyagraha and the people associated
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
This year April 1st marks 100 years of the Vaikom Satyagraha, in Kottayam, Kerala.
About Vaikom Satyagraha
- Vaikom was the epicentre of the Vaikom Satyagraha, which began in 1924.
- This movement aimed to challenge the ban imposed on marginalized communities from entering the vicinity of the Vaikom Mahadevar Temple in the princely state of Travancore.
- It sparked similar temple entry movements across India, advocating for the rights of untouchables and backward castes.
- It introduced nonviolent public protest as a method of resistance in Kerala.
A Precursor to the Vaikom Satyagraha
- Social and Political Developments
- Backdrop of Social Injustice: Travancore, characterized by feudal and caste-based governance, imposed stringent restrictions on lower castes, denying them entry to temples and public spaces.
- Emergence of Social Consciousness: By the late 19th century, progressive reforms and missionary activities led to increased awareness and education among lower castes, particularly the Ezhavas.
- Rise of Educated Elite: Educated individuals from diverse backgrounds, including lower castes, began to challenge social norms and demand equality in opportunities and rights.
- Beginning of Agitation
- Advocacy for Change: Ezhava leader T K Madhavan spearheaded efforts to challenge temple entry restrictions, advocating for direct action to confront discriminatory practices.
- Influence of Gandhi’s Ideals: Inspired by Gandhi’s principles of non-cooperation, Madhavan sought support from the Indian National Congress (INC) to mobilize a mass movement against untouchability.
Actual Course of Events
- Agitation
- Leaders such as T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and George Joseph spearheaded the agitation.
- Despite facing resistance and arrests by the police, the Satyagrahis persisted in their protest for over a year, resulting in numerous arrests and jails.
- Notable figures like Mahatma Gandhi, Chattampi Swamikal, and Sree Narayana Guru extended their support to the movement, which gained nationwide recognition.
- The involvement of women and support from various regions, including Punjab, highlighted the widespread impact of the Satyagraha.
- Suspension:
- Initially suspended in April 1924 at Gandhi’s suggestion, the movement resumed when attempts to resolve the issue with caste Hindu leaders failed.
- The absence of leaders like T.K. Madhavan and K.P. Kesava Menon, who were arrested, posed challenges to the movement.
- V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar) lent support from Tamil Nadu before also being arrested.
- The resolution for the right to temple entry faced resistance in the Assembly, thwarted by traditionalist support and government pressure.
- Aftermath
- On October 1, 1924, a procession of Savarnas (forward castes) submitted a petition to the Regent Maharani Sethu Lakshmi Bai of Travancore, signed by around 25,000 individuals, urging for the temple’s open entry.
- Gandhi’s meeting with the Regent Maharani and the procession led by Mannath Padmanabhan Nair underscored the growing support for the cause.
- Eventually, on November 23, 1925, all temple gates were opened to Hindus except the eastern gate, marking a significant victory.
- The Vaikom Satyagraha laid the groundwork for the temple entry proclamation of Kerala in 1936 and inspired similar movements’ nationwide, promoting social justice and equality.
PYQ:
Satya Shodhak Samaj organized (2016):
(a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar’
(b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
(c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
(d) a peasant movement in Punjab
Practice MCQ:
The Vaikom Satyagraha of 1924 was essentially a:
(a) Temple Entry Movement
(b) Peasants’ Uprising
(c) Salt Satyagraha
(d) Swadeshi Movement |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: GI, Various GI tags mentioned in the news
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
What is a GI Tag?
- A GI is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
- Nodal Agency: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 w.e.f. September 2003.
- GIs have been defined under Article 22 (1) of the WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
- The tag stands valid for 10 years and can be renewed.
Various GI Tags Awarded:
|
Details |
| Bihu Dhol (Assam) |
Traditional drum used during Bihu festivals |
| Jaapi (Assam) |
Bamboo headgear worn in rural Assam |
| Sarthebari metal craft (Assam) |
Traditional metal craft producing utensils and artifacts |
| Mishing handloom products (Assam) |
Handwoven textiles including shawls and sarees |
| Asharikandi terracotta craft (Assam) |
Terracotta pottery and decorative items |
| Pani Meteka craft (Assam) |
Brass and copper utensils adorned with intricate designs |
| Bodo Dokhona (Assam) |
Traditional attire of Bodo women |
| Bodo Eri silk (Assam) |
Silk fabric produced from eri silkworms, known for its soft texture and eco-friendly production |
| Bodo Jwmgra (Assam) |
Traditional scarf worn by Bodo community members |
| Bodo Gamsa (Assam) |
Traditional dress of Bodo men |
| Bodo Thorkha (Assam) |
Traditional musical instrument made from bamboo or wood |
| Bodo Sifung (Assam) |
Long flute used in traditional Bodo music |
| Banaras Thandai (Uttar Pradesh) |
Traditional drink made from milk, nuts, seeds, and spices |
| Banaras Tabla (Uttar Pradesh) |
Pair of drums used in classical Indian music |
| Banaras Shehnai (Uttar Pradesh) |
Traditional wind instrument used in Indian classical music |
| Banaras Lal Bharwamirch (Uttar Pradesh) |
Red chili grown in the Banaras region |
| Banaras Lal Peda (Uttar Pradesh) |
Popular Indian sweet made from condensed milk and sugar |
| Pachra-Rignai (Tripura) |
Traditional dress worn by women, consisting of a wrap-around skirt and blouse |
| Matabari Peda (Tripura) |
Sweet delicacy made from condensed milk, sugar, and ghee |
| Garo Textile weaving (Meghalaya) |
Traditional weaving craft practiced by the Garo tribe |
| Lyrnai Pottery (Meghalaya) |
Traditional pottery making characterized by unique designs and techniques |
| Chubitchi (Meghalaya) |
Traditional dish made with meat, local herbs, and spices |
PYQ:
Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? (2015)
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to (2016):
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the Geographical Indications (GI) Tag:
1. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for GI.
2. A GI tag stands valid for 10 years and cannot be renewed.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
|
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Hume, a prominent research lab and tech firm based in New York, has unveiled Empathic Voice Interface (EVI), world’s first conversational AI endowed with emotional intelligence.
What is Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)?
- Hume’s Empathic Voice Interface (EVI) is powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM).
- It can decipher tones, word emphasis, and emotional cues, improving the quality of interactions.
- As an API, EVI can integrate seamlessly with various applications, offering developers a versatile solution for implementing human-like interactions.
Potential Applications and Future Prospects
- Enhanced AI Assistants: Hume’s technology enables AI assistants to engage in nuanced conversations, enhancing productivity and user satisfaction.
- Improved Customer Support: By infusing empathy into customer support interactions, Hume’s AI promises to deliver more personalized service and foster stronger relationships.
- Therapeutic Potential: Hume’s empathetic AI holds promise in therapeutic settings, offering support and guidance by understanding and responding to human emotions.
PYQ:
- What is ’emotional intelligence’ and how can it be developed in people? How does it help an individual in taking ethical decisions? (2013)
- “Emotional Intelligence is the ability to make your emotions work for you instead of against you.” Do you agree with this view? Discuss. (2019)
- How will you apply emotional intelligence in administrative practices? (2017)
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)?
(a) EVI operates as a standalone application, devoid of integration capabilities with other software systems.
(b) It relies on conventional language models, neglecting emotional cues and word emphasis during interactions.
(c) EVI, powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM), detects emotional nuances such as tones, word emphasis, and cues, enhancing interaction quality.
(d) EVI is developed by the Microsoft. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Hepatitis B
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- A recent study by Sir Ganga Ram Hospital, New Delhi, revealed alarming deficiencies in public knowledge (transmission, effects & vaccination) about Hepatitis B in India.
- Despite the availability of a vaccine for over 30 years, HBV infection rates remain high in India, with prevalence estimates ranging from 2% to 8% and approximately 37 million carriers nationwide.
About Hepatitis
- Hepatitis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the liver.
- It can be caused by various factors, including viral infections (hepatitis viruses), alcohol consumption, certain medications, toxins, autoimmune diseases, and metabolic disorders.
|
Hepatitis A |
Hepatitis B |
Hepatitis C |
| Causative Virus |
Hepatitis A Virus (HAV) |
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) |
Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) |
| Transmission |
Fecal-oral route (contaminated food/water) |
Blood and body fluids (unsafe sex, sharing needles) |
Blood-to-blood contact (sharing needles, transfusions) |
| Vaccine Available |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
| Chronic Infection |
No (usually acute) |
Yes (can become chronic) |
Yes (often becomes chronic) |
| Symptoms |
Mild flu-like symptoms, jaundice |
Variable, from none to severe symptoms |
Often asymptomatic, but can lead to liver damage |
| Chronic Complications |
None |
Cirrhosis, liver cancer |
Cirrhosis, liver cancer |
| Preventable by Vaccine |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
| Treatment |
Supportive care |
Antiviral medications |
Antiviral medications |
PYQ:
Which one of the following statements is not correct? (2019)
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? (2013)
1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding Hepatitis C virus:
1. It is spread mainly through contaminated water and food.
2. It primarily affects the functioning of respiratory system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Ministry of Home Affairs extended till June 30 the validity of all FCRA registered NGOs whose licences are expiring on March 31.
What is Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)?
- The FCRA regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect internal security.
- First enacted in 1976, it was amended in 2010 when a slew of new measures was adopted to regulate foreign donations.
- The FCRA is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations.
- It is mandatory for all such NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA.
- The registration is initially valid for 5 years and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
What contributes to Foreign Donations?
- Foreign Contribution’ means the donation, delivery or transfer made by any foreign source of any:
- Article (whose market value is not more than one lakh rupees);
- Currency (whether Indian or foreign);
- Securities
- Foreign donations may be those from Governments, international agencies, foreign companies, trusts, corporations, foreign citizens
- However, some agencies like the UN, World Bank, IMF etc. are EXEMPTED from the definition of foreign donors.
Who cannot accept donations under FCRA?
According to the FCRA, foreign donations cannot be accepted by:
- Election candidates
- Editors and publishers of newspapers
- Judges and government employees.
- Political parties and members of legislature etc.
What was the recent Amendment?
The FCRA was amended in September 2020 to introduce some new restrictions:
- There is now a capping of the administrative expenses of NGOs at 20% of their foreign donations.
- The new amendment requires them to have a State Bank of India account at a Delhi Branch.
- It also prohibits the transfer of grants received under FCRA to any other outfit.
- It also gives sweeping powers to the Ministry of Home Affairs to cancel the FCRA certificate of an NGO.
- It made legal for political parties to accept foreign aid through Indian subsidiaries.
- Under the Act, the government may suspend the registration of a person for a period not exceeding 180 days.
- Providing Aadhar is mandatory for all office bearers, directors or key functionaries of the organization.
PYQ:
2015: Examine critically the recent changes in the rule governing foreign funding of NGOs under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 1976.
2015: How can be the role of NGOs be strengthened in India for development works relating to protection of the Environment? Discuss throwing light on the major constraints.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding “Foreign Contribution (regulation) Act”:
1. World Bank is excluded from the definition of foreign sources under the act.
2. Political parties are prohibited from taking foreign donations under the act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Supreme Court has rejected review petitions challenging its ruling on the initiation of proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
- The judgment clarified that Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code cannot be invoked for PMLA proceedings unless the alleged conspiracy pertains to a scheduled offence.
Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
- The PMLA was enacted in 2002 with the aim of preventing money laundering and providing for confiscation of property derived from money laundering.
- It applies to all financial institutions, banks (including the RBI), mutual funds, insurance companies, and their financial intermediaries.
- The Act empowers government authorities to confiscate property and/or assets earned from illegal sources and through money laundering.
- It has been amended three times, in 2005, 2009, and 2012.
- Under the PMLA, the burden of proof lies with the accused, who must demonstrate that the suspect property/assets have not been obtained through proceeds of crime.
Penalties under PMLA:
- Freezing or Seizure of property and records, and/or attachment of property obtained through crime proceeds.
- Rigorous imprisonment for a minimum of 3 years and a maximum of 7 years. In cases where money laundering is linked with the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the punishment can extend up to 10 years, along with a fine.
- Fine imposition.
Authorities for investigation under PMLA:
- Enforcement Directorate (ED): It is responsible for investigating offenses under the PMLA.
- Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND): It is the national agency tasked with receiving, processing, analyzing, and disseminating information related to suspect financial transactions.
|
What is Article 120 of Indian Penal Code (IPC)?
- Section 120 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the concept of “Conspiracy to commit an offense”.
- It states that when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy.
- Section 120A defines “criminal conspiracy” as when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means.
- Section 120B prescribes the punishment for criminal conspiracy, with death, imprisonment for life, or rigorous imprisonment for a term of two years or upwards, shall be punished in the same manner as if he had abetted such offense.
Punishment for Criminal Conspiracy
- Nature of Conspiracy: IPC 120B categorizes conspiracy based on the gravity of the offense and prescribes punishments accordingly.
- Serious Offenses: Conspiracy to commit serious crimes punishable by death, life imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment for 2 years or more warrants severe punishment equivalent to the offense committed.
- Other Offenses: Conspiracy for illegal acts not falling under the serious category incurs imprisonment for up to six months, a fine, or both, as per Section 120B.
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements are correct regarding ‘Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 (PMLA)’?
1. Enforcement Directorate (ED) is responsible for investigating offences under the PMLA
2. The Act enables government authorities to confiscate property earned through money laundering.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: H5N1 Bird Flu
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Since 2020, the highly pathogenic H5N1 bird flu has been spreading globally, posing a significant threat to both birds and mammals.
H5N1 Bird Flu: Details
- H5N1 originated from a virus outbreak on a goose farm in China in 1996 and has since evolved into a highly pathogenic strain.
- The virus quickly spread from Europe to Africa, Asia, North America, and South America, and most recently, it reached mainland Antarctica.
- H5N1 is a subtype of the influenza A virus that causes severe respiratory disease in birds, known as avian influenza or “bird flu”.
- Influenza A viruses are classified by subtypes based on the properties of their surface proteins, with H5N1 being one subtype.
How widespread is it?
- The virus has affected birds in over 80 countries, resulting in mass culling of poultry and wild birds.
- Furthermore, it has now begun infecting mammals, including seals, sea lions, and marine mammals.
- While humans rarely contract bird flu, those at risk are typically individuals who have extensive contact with infected birds at poultry farms.
- Bird flu first broke out in Maharashtra in 2006.
- The H5N1 virus led to the culling of millions of poultry so as to contain the virus. But it has resurfaced from time to time.
Impact on Animals
- Bird Species Affected: Numerous bird species, including Great Skuas and Barnacle Geese, have experienced significant mortality rates due to H5N1.
- Endangered Species Threatened: Endangered birds like the California condors have been severely affected, with a notable percentage of the population succumbing to the virus.
- Mammalian Casualties: H5N1 has crossed species barriers, infecting mammals such as foxes, pumas, skunks, and marine mammals like sea lions and dolphins.
- Devastating Consequences: Mass mortalities of marine mammals, particularly elephant seals, have been reported, raising concerns about the long-term ecological impact.
Factors behind Spread
- Climate Change: Some scientists attribute the large-scale spread of bird flu to climate change, which alters bird behavior and facilitates the transmission of the virus.
- Warmer Seas: Warmer sea temperatures have weakened marine mammal populations, making them more susceptible to disease outbreaks.
PYQ:
2015: H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
(a) AIDS
(b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue
(d) Swine flu
Practice MCQ:
How many of the given statements about H5N1 Virus is/are correct?
1. It is a type of influenza virus causing highly infectious, respiratory disease in birds.
2. It is highly contagious in humans.
3. Seals, sea lions, and other marine mammals are vulnerable to this Virus.
Select the correct codes from below –
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now