Archives: News

Port Infrastructure and Shipping Industry – Sagarmala Project, SDC, CEZ, etc.

Paradip Port: India’s Leading Major Port in Cargo Handling

Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways Etc.

Why in the news?

Paradip Port in Odisha has made history by becoming India’s largest major port in terms of cargo volumes, surpassing Deendayal Port Authority in Gujarat during FY24.

About Paradip Port

Paradip Port is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha.
It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.
The port was commissioned in 1966 to serve as a gateway for the maritime trade of eastern India.
Paradip Port Trust, a statutory body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, manages and operates the port.

Key Features of the Port

Infrastructure: It is equipped with modern facilities for handling a variety of cargo, including dry bulk, liquid bulk, containerized cargo, and general cargo.
Deep-Draft Port: The port has extensive berthing facilities and cargo-handling equipment capable of handling millions of tonnes of cargo annually.
Strategic Importance: Paradip Port serves as a vital link for the export and import trade of eastern and central India, contributing significantly to the region’s economic development.
Connectivity: The port is well-connected to major cities and industrial centers in Odisha and neighbouring states through road and rail networks.

Key Feats Achieved

Cargo Throughput: Paradip Port achieved a record-breaking cargo throughput of 145.38 million metric tonnes (MMT) in FY2023-24, surpassing Deendayal Port.
Coastal Shipping Traffic: The port recorded the highest-ever coastal shipping traffic of 59.19 million metric tonnes, showcasing a growth of 1.30% over the previous year.
Thermal Coal Handling: Thermal coal shipping reached 43.97 million metric tonnes, marking a growth of 4.02% over the previous year.
Revenue Growth: Operating revenue crossed Rs 2,300 crore in FY24, reflecting a notable increase of 14.30% compared to the previous fiscal.

Driving Factors of this Success

Enhanced Operational Efficiency: Mechanised coal handling plant operations were optimized, resulting in the highest handling of thermal coal at 27.12 million tonnes.
Productivity Improvement: Paradip Port improved berth productivity to 33,014 MT, the highest among all ports, showcasing a growth of 6.33% over the previous financial year.
Rake Handling and Ship Movements: The port handled 21,665 rakes and 2,710 ships during FY24, registering significant year-on-year growth in both metrics.

Future Prospects

Capacity Expansion: With a current capacity of 289 million tonnes, Paradip Port is poised to exceed 300 million tonnes capacity in the next 3 years with the commissioning of the Western Dock project.
Strategic Location: Located near a mineral-rich hinterland, Paradip Port remains a strategic asset for India’s maritime trade and economic growth.

PYQ:

2017:

What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.

(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Practice MCQ:

It is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal. It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.

Which sea port in Odisha is being talked about by the above description?

(a) Haldia

(b) Gopalpur

(d) Paradip

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Capital Markets: Challenges and Developments

SEBI unveils SCORES 2.0 to Strengthen Investor Redressal

Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Effects Of Liberalization On The Economy, Changes In Industrial Policy and their effects on Industrial Growth

Why in the news?

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) unveiled the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0) marking a significant advancement in the investor complaint redressal mechanism in the securities market.

About Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.

What is SCORES 2.0?

SCORES 2.0 refers to the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
SCORES is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.
Complaints can be lodged for any issues covered under the:

SEBI Act, 1992
Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1956
Depositories Act, 1966
Companies Act, 2013

Complaints on SCORES 2.0 can be launched against:

Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
Brokers / stock exchanges
Depository participants / depository
Mutual funds
Portfolio Managers
Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc.)

Features of SCORES 2.0:

Reduced Timelines: SCORES 2.0 implements reduced and standardized timelines for addressing investor grievances, ensuring a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days from the date of complaint receipt.
Auto-Routing and Escalation: The new version incorporates an auto-routing mechanism to swiftly direct complaints to the relevant regulated entity. Additionally, it introduces a two-tier review process, with complaints undergoing review first by the designated body and subsequently by SEBI if investors remain dissatisfied with the resolution provided.
Integration with KYC Database: SCORES 2.0 is seamlessly integrated with the KYC Registration Agency database, streamlining the registration process for investors onto the platform.
Enhanced Efficiency: Through features such as auto-routing, auto-escalation, and stricter monitoring protocols, SCORES 2.0 aims to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the investor complaint redressal process.

Significance of SCORES 2.0

Improved Regulatory Oversight: By introducing stricter timelines and oversight mechanisms, SEBI aims to enhance regulatory efficiency and transparency, fostering a more accountable and responsive market ecosystem.
Technological Advancements: The integration of advanced technological features, such as auto-routing and KYC database linkage, reflects SEBI’s proactive approach towards harnessing digital innovations to modernize regulatory processes and services.

PYQ:

2013:

The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.

Practice MCQ:

Consider the following statements about the SCORES 2.0 Platform recently launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):

1. It is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.

2. It addresses complaints pertaining to the SEBI Act, 1992 only.

3. It ensures a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) None

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Disasters and Disaster Management – Sendai Framework, Floods, Cyclones, etc.

Kallakkadal: Coastal Flooding Phenomena in Kerala

Prelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Disaster Management

Why in the news?

Coastal areas of Kerala, including Alappuzha, Kollam, and Thiruvananthapuram districts, are grappling with flooding caused by high sea waves, known as swell waves or Kallakkadal in Malayalam.
The recent swell surge occurred following a low-pressure system originating in the South Atlantic Ocean, leading to the formation of waves reaching heights of up to 11 meters.

What is Kallakkadal?

Origin and Meaning:

Kallakkadal refers to coastal flooding during the (April-May) pre-monsoon season.
It is caused by ocean swell waves on the southwest coast of India.
The term “Kallakkadal” originates from Malayalam, combining “Kallan” (thief) and “Kadal” (sea), denoting the sea’s unexpected intrusion akin to a thief.
In 2012, the term was formally approved by the UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).

Causes:

These waves stem from distant storms, such as hurricanes, generating significant energy transfer from the atmosphere to the water.
Kallakkadal typically results from strong winds in the southern Indian Ocean, generating ocean swells that travel northward towards the Kerala coast.

Features of Kallakkadal

This phenomenon occurs mostly during pre-monsoon season and sometimes during post monsoon.
It continues for a few days.
It inundates the low lying coasts.
Initially sea recedes before the surge.
During high tide the run-up, water level can reach as much as 3–4 m above Maximum Water Level (MWL).

How is it distinct from Tsunami?

Nature of Phenomenon: Kallakkadal, though often confused with tsunamis, arises from distant storm-generated waves, contrasting with tsunamis triggered by underwater disturbances, typically seismic activities.
Clarification: Understanding this distinction is crucial for implementing effective early warning systems and mitigating the impact of coastal hazards.

PYQ:

2017: At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at-

(a) Bhavnagar

(b) Bheemunipatnam

(d) Nagapattinam

Practice MCQ:

The Coastal areas of Kerala recently witnessed the Oceanic Swell Waves locally known as Kallakkadal. In this regard consider the following statements:

1. Kallakkadal typically occurs during the spring season (March-April).

2. These waves stem from distant storms in the southern Indian Ocean.

Which of the given statements is/are NOT correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Police Reforms – SC directives, NPC, other committees reports

What is Zero FIR?

Prelims Only | Governance | Mains Paper 2: Governance, Transparency & Accountability, Citizens Charters

Why in the news?

The Hyderabad Police have initiated a zero FIR case against former minister for alleged derogatory remarks against Telangana CM.

First Information Report (FIR)

An FIR is a written document prepared by the police upon receiving information about a cognisable offence.
It is when an officer can arrest a suspect without a court’s warrant if/she has “reason to believe” that the person committed the offence and arrest is necessary based on certain factors.
It serves as the first step towards initiating the investigation process and subsequent police actions.
Section 154(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) empowers the police to register an FIR for cognizable offences.
Section 166A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides punishment for public servants failing to record information related to a cognizable offence, with imprisonment of up to two years and a fine.

What is Zero FIR?

Provision and Purpose: Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognisable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
No diary: Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’. Hence the name.

Features of a Zero FIR:

Swift Action: The relevant police station subsequently registers a fresh FIR and commences the investigation.
Focus on Victims: It is designed to expedite complaint lodging, particularly for serious crimes involving women and children, without the need to approach multiple police stations.
Preserving Evidence: Early registration helps prevent the loss or tampering of crucial evidence and witnesses.
Transferred Jurisdiction: The Zero FIR is later transferred to the relevant police station where the offence occurred or where the investigation should be conducted.

How does it work?

After a police station registers a zero FIR, it has to transfer the complaint to a police station that has the jurisdiction to investigate the alleged offence.
Once a zero FIR is transferred, the police station with the appropriate jurisdiction assigns it a serial number, thereby converting it into a regular FIR.

Legal Provisions for Zero FIR

The provision of Zero FIR finds support in various judgments and recommendations:

Satvinder Kaur vs. State (1999): The Delhi High Court held that a woman has the right to lodge her complaint from any place other than where the incident occurred.
Justice Verma Committee (2012): The introduction of Zero FIR was based on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee, which was formed in response to the 2012 Nirbhaya gangrape case.
Lalita Kumari vs. Govt. of UP (2014): The Supreme Court ruled that registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence.

PYQ:

2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked-up in police station, not in jail.

2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Practice MCQ:

Regarding the Zero FIR, consider the following statements:

1. Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognizable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.

2. Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Solar Energy – JNNSM, Solar Cities, Solar Pumps, etc.

Solar surge: Moving away from imported solar panels

Explained | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways Etc.

Why in the news?

The government is finally bringing into effect the policy of an Approved list of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) that will discourage solar power project developers from relying on imported panels.

About Approved Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules Order, 2019:

Aim: To boost domestic manufacturing of solar panels by registering only those made with domestically manufactured cells, wafers, and polysilicon.
Compulsory Registration: The order mandates compulsory registration for solar PV module and cell manufacturers, ensuring they meet certain quality and production standards.
Lists: LIST-I for solar PV modules and LIST-II for solar PV cells.
- Only listed models and manufacturers in these lists are considered approved for use in various government projects and schemes.
Eligibility Criteria: To be included in the lists, manufacturers must undergo inspections and meet specific criteria set by the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) to ensure the products are genuinely manufactured and not imported.
This order ensures the reliability of solar PV products used in installations, promotes domestic manufacturing, and aligns with the government’s initiatives for renewable energy adoption and energy security.

Efforts made by the Government to promote domestic Solar Manufacturing:

Import Restrictions: The creation of the Approved Models and Manufacturers list was aimed at restricting imports from China, which dominates a significant portion of the global solar supply market.
Ambitious Renewable Energy Targets: India aims to source about 500 GW of its electricity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030, with at least 280 GW coming from solar power. This necessitates adding at least 40 GW of solar capacity annually until 2030. So there is need to focus on indegenous solar project

Challenges ahead:

Unrealistic Targets: Despite ambitious targets, India’s solar capacity additions have been relatively low in recent years, attributed in part to the COVID-19 pandemic. The country aims to ramp up installations to between 25 GW and 40 GW annually.
Reliance on Imports: A significant fraction of India’s solar installations is met by imports, which affects domestic panel manufacturers who must pay for government certification but lose orders to cheaper Chinese panels. For example surge in Solar panel import in FY 24 around $1,136.28 million from FY23 imports $943.53 million

Conclusion: India’s ALMM policy aims to boost domestic solar manufacturing, aligning with ambitious renewable energy targets. Address challenges like meeting targets and reducing reliance on imports through strategic planning and support.

Mains PYQ

Q Describe the benefits of deriving electric energy from sunlight in contrast to conventional energy generation. What are the initiatives offered by our government for this purpose? (UPSC IAS/2020)

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/how-india-became-a-frontrunner-in-the-global-renewable-energy-market/articleshow/100271905.cms?from=mdr

https://mnre.gov.in/approved-list-of-models-and-manufacturers-almm/

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1944075

https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/indias-solar-panel-imports-set-to-remain-higher-in-fy24/106217488#:~:text=During%20the%20initial%20six%20months,million%2C%20according%20to%20Eninrac%20Consulting

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Health Sector – UHC, National Health Policy, Family Planning, Health Insurance, etc.

Two States: a comparison on access to life-saving C-sections

Explained | Indian Society | Mains Paper 2: Health & Education

Why in the News?

The study released by IIT Madras highlights the concerns related to high rates of C-section deliveries among women in Tamil Nadu, particularly in private hospitals.

This indicates the necessity for corrective measures to address the situation.

What is a Caesarean section?

It is also known as C-section or cesarean delivery, which is the surgical procedure by which one or more babies are delivered through an incision in the mother’s abdomen.

It is often performed because vaginal delivery would put the mother or child at risk.

Changes in the share of births delivered by C-sections in public and private sector hospitals in India, Tamil Nadu, and Chhattisgarh between 2015-16 and 2019-21.

High C-section Rate in Public Hospitals: In public sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu, nearly 40% of women underwent C-sections during 2019-21.
High C-section Rate in Private Hospitals: Close to 64% of women underwent C-sections in private sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu during 2019-21, which is significantly higher than both the national average of around 50% and Chhattisgarh’s rate of 59%.
Higher than the National Average: The rate of C-section deliveries in Tamil Nadu’s public sector hospitals is substantially higher than the national average, which is approximately 16%. Additionally, it surpasses the rate in Chhattisgarh, where it stands at 10%.

Reasons behind the increase in C-section rates despite a decrease in pregnancy complications:

Regional Disparities: In Chhattisgarh, the likelihood of a woman undergoing a C-section in a private hospital is ten times higher than in a public hospital. This suggests potential disparities in access to high-quality healthcare services between public and private sectors, with implications for maternal health outcomes.
Socioeconomic Factors: The study assumes that poorer households opt for public hospitals while richer households prefer private ones for deliveries. This socioeconomic divide may contribute to inequitable access to healthcare services at the national level.
Higher Likelihood in Private Health Facilities: Women delivering in private health facilities are more likely to undergo C-sections compared to those in public facilities, with a notable disparity observed in Chhattisgarh.
Maternal Age and Weight Status: Factors such as maternal age (35-49) and overweight status increase the likelihood of C-section delivery.
High gap between Poor and Rich: In India, the gap in C-section prevalence between the poor and non-poor narrowed in private facilities, but Tamil Nadu exhibited a concerning trend where a higher percentage of the poor underwent C-sections compared to the non-poor.

Recommendations by the World Health Organization (WHO): Cesarean delivery rates should ideally not exceed 10-15% to achieve the lowest maternal and neonatal mortality rates. When C-section rates go beyond 10%, there is no significant decrease in maternal mortality. In 2021, global C-section rates surpassed 20%, and they are projected to increase to 30% by 2030.

Conclusion: Access to C-sections in Tamil Nadu shows disparities, with high rates in both public and private hospitals. Addressing regional, and socioeconomic factors and adhering to WHO recommendations are crucial for equitable maternal healthcare.

PYQ Mains

Q Appropriate local community level healthcare intervention is a prerequisite to achieve ‘Health for All’ in India. Explain. (UPSC IAS/2018)

https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/rise-in-c-section-deliveries-despite-decrease-in-pregnancy-complications-iit-madras-study-2521773-2024-04-01

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Foreign Policy Watch: India-Sri Lanka

Katchatheevu | What is the controversy all about?

Explained | International Relations | Mains Paper 2: India & Its Neighborhood – Relations

Why in the news?

Katchatheevu Island, a disputed stretch in the Palk Strait, was ceded to Sri Lanka during late PM Indira Gandhi, through an agreement.

Fifty years later, PM Modi, has mounted an attack on the Congress and DMK for ‘callously’ giving it away to Sri Lanka.

About the Katchatheevu Island:

Katchatheevu is an uninhabited area in the Palk Strait, between India and Sri Lanka. It was created due to volcanic eruption in the 14th century and is comparatively youthful in the realm of geological chronology.
Historically, it was controlled by the Jaffna kingdom of Sri Lanka in the medieval period.
However, in the 17th century, control passed to the Ramnad zamindari based out of Ramanathapuram, about 55 km northwest of Rameswaram.

The Island became part of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj. But in 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, at the time were British colonies and claimed Katchatheevu to determine fishing boundaries.
A British delegation from India challenged this, citing ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom. This dispute was not settled until 1974.

Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement of 1974:

In 1974, the Indian government, led by Indira Gandhi at the time, endeavored to definitively resolve the maritime border between India and Sri Lanka.
As a component of this arrangement, termed the ‘Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement’, Katchatheevu was relinquished to Sri Lanka.
During this period, it was perceived that the island held minimal strategic significance, and relinquishing India’s claim over it was anticipated to foster stronger relations with its southern neighbor.
Limitations of the Agreement of 1974:
- Issue of fishing rights: The 1974 agreement failed to address the issue of fishing rights. Sri Lanka interpreted the access of Indian fishermen to Katchatheevu as being restricted solely to activities such as resting, drying nets, and visiting the Catholic shrine, without the requirement of a visa.
- The issue concerning EEZ: Further agreement was reached between the two countries, prohibiting fishing within each other’s Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs).
- However, the proximity of Katchatheevu to the edges of both countries’ EEZs left unresolved questions regarding fishing rights, contributing to ongoing uncertainty.

India’s stand on the Kachchatheevu issue:

August 2013: The Union government informed the Supreme Court that the question of reclaiming Kachchatheevu from Sri Lanka did not arise because no Indian territory was ceded to Sri Lanka. Moreover, it was historically disputed territory between British India and Ceylon (now Sri Lanka), and the matter was settled through agreements in 1974 and 1976.

December 2022: The Union government reiterated the stance, emphasizing that Katchatheevu lies on the Sri Lankan side of the India-Sri Lanka International Maritime Boundary Line as per the agreements. Additionally, it mentioned that the matter was under judicial consideration in the Supreme Court.

Conclusion: The recent mention of Katchatheevu by Prime Minister Modi ahead of elections in Tamil Nadu highlights its contentious nature. To address fishermen’s issues, diplomatic dialogue and legal clarity are crucial.

Mains PYQ

Q What are the maritime security challenges in India? Discuss the organizational, technical, and procedural initiatives taken to improve maritime security. (UPSC IAS/2022)

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Innovation Ecosystem in India

125 years of Kodaikanal Solar Observatory

Prelims Only | Science Tech | Mains Paper 3: Awareness in various sc and tech fields

Why in the news?

This year marks 125^th Year of the Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO).

About Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)

The idea for an Indian solar observatory emerged in the late 19th century, with then government sanctioning the establishment of the Solar Physics Observatory in Kodaikanal in August 1893.
Kodaikanal in the Palani hills of Tamil Nadu was chosen as the site for the observatory due to its favorable atmospheric conditions, following surveys conducted by Charles Michie Smith.
The foundation stone for KoSO was laid by Lord Wenlock, the then Governor of Madras, in 1895.
Systematic observations at KoSO began on March 14, 1901.
KoSO initially housed instruments for solar observations, including telescopes for examining sunspots, prominences, and solar radiations.
Presently, KoSO houses advanced instruments like the H-alpha telescope and the White light Active Region Monitor (WARM) for high-resolution solar imaging.

Do you know?

The Bhavnagar Telescope, named after the Maharaja of Bhavnagar, was one of the more famous instruments at KoSO during the early decades of its operation.
A 15cm telescope was used to capture solar images onto a photographic film or plate.
Solar magnetic plages and prominences were recorded since 1911, taken on photographic films and plates.

Historical Perspective

Ancient Legacy: Throughout history, seafarers, mathematicians, astronomers, and physicists have meticulously studied the Sun and its celestial phenomena.
British Era Initiatives: In 1792, the British East India Company established the pioneering Madras Observatory, marking a significant milestone in astronomical research in the region.
Madras Observatory’s Legacy: The Madras Observatory documented crucial astronomical observations during 1812-1825, laying the groundwork for solar research in India.
Shift to Systematic Observations: Dedicated solar observations commenced in 1878, fostering a deeper understanding of solar phenomena.
Advancements in Methodology: The adoption of systematic observational techniques paved the way for more comprehensive and detailed studies of the Sun’s behavior.

Need for such Observatory

Great Drought of 1875-1877: This event triggered by scanty rainfall, propelled the need for comprehensive solar studies to comprehend its implications on weather patterns.
India’s Geographical Significance: India’s drought was part of a larger global phenomenon, affecting several countries and leading to widespread famine.
Scientific Inquiry: Scientists recognized the potential role of solar variability in influencing climatic patterns, prompting inquiries into the Sun’s behavior and its correlation with environmental phenomena.

Scientific Endeavors of KoSO

The observatory made significant contributions to solar physics, including the discovery of the radial motion of sunspots, known as the Evershed Effect.
Over time, KoSO expanded its research areas beyond solar physics to include cosmic rays, radio astronomy, ionospheric physics, and stellar physics.
In April 1971, KoSO was brought under the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, as part of the separation of astrophysics from the India Meteorological Department (IMD).

Repository of the KoSO

Between 1904 and 2017, all solar observations were traced onto photographic films and plates
A new telescope mounted with CCD cameras has taken over and, since 2017, continued to observe the Sun.
Digitization of the records was initiated in 1984 by Prof J C Bhattacharyya, and others continued the effort.
KoSO is now home to a digital repository of a whopping 1.48 lakh solar images adding up to 10 terabyte of data.
These include 33,500 white-light images (showing sunspots), 45,000 images of the Ca II K spectral line (which reveals plages), and 70,000 H-alpha photographic plates that show prominences.

PYQ:

2019:

On 21st June, the Sun-

(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Practice MCQ:

Which of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Evershed Effect’ in Sun?

(a) It refers to the bending of light waves around obstacles, demonstrated by the diffraction pattern observed in a single-slit experiment.

(b) It is the phenomenon of a magnetic field being generated by the motion of charged particles in the convective zone of the Sun.

(c) It describes the deflection of moving charged particles, such as electrons, in a magnetic field, leading to the creation of an electric potential difference.

(d) It is the radial flow of gases in the Sun’s outer atmosphere, observed as a redshift in the spectrum of light emitted by the photosphere.

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Civil Services Reforms

In news: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)

Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Statutory, Regulatory & Various Quasi-Judicial Bodies

Why in the News?

The Allahabad High Court clarified the appellate jurisdiction concerning orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) in contempt proceedings.
The court ruled that appeals against CAT contempt orders must be filed exclusively before the Supreme Court under Section 19 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

What is Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body in India established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India.
Its primary function is to adjudicate disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
CAT was set up to provide a speedy and inexpensive remedy to government employees in matters concerning their service conditions and employment disputes.

Establishment of CAT:

The Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985 enacted by the Parliament authorizes the central government to establish Central Administrative Tribunal and the State Administrative Tribunals.
There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the Central Administrative Tribunal all over India.

Jurisdiction of CAT:

The Administrative Tribunal is distinguishable from the ordinary courts with regard to its jurisdiction and procedure.
It exercises jurisdiction only about the service matters of the parties covered by the Act.
CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning the following:

A member of any All-India Service
A person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the Union
A civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence

Services NOT Covered:

The following members are NOT covered under the jurisdiction of CAT:

Defense forces, Officers,
The staff of the Supreme Court and
Secretarial staff of the Parliament.

Procedure:

The CAT is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is NOT bound by the procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
It is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.

Composition:

The CAT comprises of a chairman, and other members who are appointed by the President of India.
The membership of CAT is filled by members from judicial and administrative fields.
The term of the service is 5 years or until the age of 65 years for chairman; 62 years for members, whichever is earlier. (minimum age is 50 years)
The chairman or any other member may address his resignation to the President in between his term of office.

PYQ:

2019: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its power as an independent judicial authority. Explain.

Practice MCQ:

Consider the following statements about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):

1. The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body.

2. It adjudicates disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.

3. Personnel of the armed forces are covered in the jurisdiction of CAT.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) None

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Trade Sector Updates – Falling Exports, TIES, MEIS, Foreign Trade Policy, etc.

UNCTAD Report Highlights Shifts in India’s Trade Relations

IOCR | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Indian Economy

What is the news?

The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Global Trade Report revealed an evolving trade landscape for India, marked by increased reliance on China and the European Union (EU).

About UNCTAD

UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1964.
It is part of the UN Secretariat.
The UNCTAD Conference ordinarily meets once in four years.
It reports to the UNGA and the Economic and Social Council, but has its own membership, leadership and budget.
It is also a part of the United Nations Development Group.
It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively.
Reports published by the UNCTAD are-

Trade and Development Report
World Investment Report
Technology and Innovation Report
Digital Economy Report

Membership:

UNCTAD’s membership consists of all 195 member states of the United Nations.
India is an active member. The second UNCTAD Conference took place in New Delhi, India in 1968.

Key Highlights of the Report:

Key Findings on India

Trade Trends: India’s trade dependence on China and the EU rose by 1.2%, while reliance on Saudi Arabia declined by 0.6%.
Factors: This shift occurred amidst supply chain disruptions caused by the pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine conflict, leading to record-high food and fuel prices.
Policy Measures: Despite efforts to reduce dependency on China through initiatives like the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme and Quality Control Orders (QCOs), India’s trade relations with China strengthened.

Insights from the Report

Stable Proximity: Geographical proximity of international trade remained relatively constant, indicating minimal near-shoring or far-shoring trends.
Political Proximity: However, there was a noticeable rise in the political proximity of trade, favouring countries with similar geopolitical stances.
Concentration of Trade: Global trade increasingly favored major trade relationships, although this trend softened towards the end of 2023.
Sectoral Trends: Most sectors experienced a decline in trade value, except for pharmaceuticals, transportation equipment, and electric cars.
Global Forecast: Global merchandise trade is expected to contract by 5% in 2023, with services trade projected to gain 8%.

Impact of Russia-Ukraine Conflict

Shifts in Trade: The ongoing conflict led to a surge in Russia’s trade dependence on China by 7.1% while decreasing reliance on the EU by 5.3%.
Oil Trade: Russian oil shifted from the EU to China and India, with China becoming a significant trade partner for Russia.
US Trade Dynamics: The US managed to reduce reliance on China by 1.2% in 2023, while increasing dependence on the EU and Mexico.

PYQ:

The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an: (2017)

(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.

(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.

(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.

(d) UNCTAD-funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.

Practice MCQ:

With reference to the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), consider the following statements:

1. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly.

2. It is part of the UN Secretariat.

3. India has never hosted the UNCTAD Conference.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) None

Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor

Join the Community

Join us across Social Media platforms.