Why in the News?
Former Odisha CM expressed concern over the omission of the Paika Rebellion from NCERT’s latest Class VIII history textbook, calling it a “huge dishonour” to the brave Paikas.
Localized Revolts in Odisha Region:
- The Paika Rebellion was part of a broader pattern of regional uprisings triggered by colonial encroachments:
- Paralakhemundi Rebellion (1799–1814)
- Ghumusar Revolt (1835–36)
- Angul Uprising (1846–47)
- Kondh and Sabara Rebellions (1855–1857)
- These revolts were often led by dispossessed elites and tribal communities, reacting to land loss, economic distress, and erosion of traditional authority.
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About Paika Rebellion:
- Who Were the Paikas: Traditional militia of Odisha who served local kings in exchange for rent-free land (nish-kar jagirs) and social standing.
- Role: Functioned as hereditary foot soldiers and police for the Khurda kingdom.
- Decline: British annexation of Odisha in 1803 ended their privileges through land revenue reforms and colonial restructuring.
- Leader: Led by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar, the military chief under King Mukunda Dev II of Khurda.
- Causes of Rebellion: Loss of land rights, oppressive taxation, and marginalization of both the elite and peasantry under British rule.
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- 2 April 1817: Bakshi Jagabandhu led the Paikas, joined by tribal Kondhs and others, in open rebellion.
- Rebel Actions: British offices at Banapur were torched, the treasury looted, and colonial officers killed.
- British Response: Regained control by mid-1817, but rebels resorted to guerrilla tactics.
- Bakshi’s Death: Captured in 1825, died in custody in 1829.
Outcomes:
- British Concessions: Temporary tax remissions, Lowered assessments, Suspended forced estate sales and fixed-land-tenures.
- Administrative Impact: These measures showed the British were forced to reconsider exploitative policies.
- Aftermath and Significance:
- Historical Role: An early example of organized resistance against British colonial rule—decades before 1857.
- Freedom Struggle Legacy: Viewed as a precursor to India’s independence movement.
- Current Demand: Odisha leaders advocate its recognition as India’s “first war of independence.”
| [UPSC 2018] After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called `Santhal Paraganas’ were created. 2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2* (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
The World Bank’s report, “Towards Resilient and Prosperous Cities in India”, warns that climate risks like extreme heat and floods threaten India’s cities, despite their role as economic growth engines.
About the ‘Towards Resilient and Prosperous Cities in India’ Report
- Prepared By: World Bank in collaboration with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- Focus: Evaluates Indian cities’ exposure to climate risks like heatwaves and urban flooding
- Scope: Covers 24 cities with deeper analysis of Chennai, Indore, New Delhi, Lucknow, Surat, and Thiruvananthapuram
- Support: Backed by Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR)
Key Highlights:
-
- 70% of new jobs to emerge in urban areas by 2030
- Urban population to nearly double to 951 million by 2050
- Estimated housing demand: 144 million new homes by 2070
-
- Urban heat: City temperatures rising by 3–4°C due to the heat island effect
- Flood risk: Rapid construction limiting natural drainage and stormwater absorption
- Investment Needs: $2.4 trillion required by 2050 for low-carbon, climate-resilient infrastructure
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- Promote cool roofs, urban green spaces, and early warning systems
- Invest in energy-efficient housing, flood-resilient transport, and waste systems
- Strengthen urban financial systems and incentivize private participation
Back2Basics: World Bank
- Overview: A global development organisation supporting economic progress in developing nations
- Founded: 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference
- Headquarters: Washington, D.C., United States
- Members: 189 countries
- India and the WB:
- India is a founding member of the IBRD and currently participates in four out of the five World Bank Group entities.
- India’s first World Bank loan, in 1948, was for railway rehabilitation.
- Constituent Institutions:
- IBRD – International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
- IDA – International Development Association
- IFC – International Finance Corporation
- MIGA – Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
- ICSID – International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
- Key Reports:
- World Development Report
- Global Economic Prospects
- Ease of Doing Business Index (now replaced)
- Business Ready (B-READY)
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| [UPSC 2025] The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options: (a) I only (b) II only* (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II |
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Why in the News?
China has commenced the construction of a massive hydropower project on the Yarlung Tsangpo river (Brahmaputra in India) in southeastern Tibet.

About the Mega Dam Project on Brahmaputra (Yarlung Tsangpo):
- Location: Nyingchi, southeastern Tibet, on the Yarlung Tsangpo River (Brahmaputra in India).
- Project Size: Estimated investment of 1.2 trillion yuan (USD 167 billion).
- Components: Comprises five cascade hydropower stations.
- Power Generation: Expected to produce 300 billion kilowatt-hours (kWh) of electricity annually.
- Objective:
- Contribute to China’s carbon neutrality target by 2060.
- Meet local power needs in Tibet and supply electricity to other Chinese provinces.
- Concerns:
- Environmental risks in a seismically active and ecologically fragile zone.
- Geopolitical tensions with downstream countries (India, Bangladesh).
- Potential impact on river flow and water availability downstream.
- Strategic Significance: Close to India-China border, raising concerns amid existing border disputes.
What if China stops Brahmaputra Water?
You should know: Three Gorges Dam
- Location: On the Yangtze River, Hubei province, central China.
- Completed: Fully operational since 2012.
- Type: Hydroelectric gravity dam – the world’s largest power station by installed capacity.
- Power Generation Capacity: Around 22.5 gigawatts (GW).
- Notable Impact:
- Helped in flood control, navigation, and electricity supply.
- Also criticized for ecological damage, displacement of over 1 million people, and increased seismic risk.
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| [UPSC 2011] The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow it through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to:
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
(d) Both (A) and (B) above |
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Why in the News?
The Lakshadweep administration has proposed the acquisition of Bitra Island, the smallest inhabited island in the archipelago, for national defence purposes.

About Bitra Island:
- Location: Situated in the Arabian Sea; part of the Amindivi subgroup of the Lakshadweep archipelago
- Distance from Mainland: ~483 km west of Kochi
- Land Area: 0.10–0.18 square kilometres
- Population: ~271–350 (as of 2025)
- Language and Livelihood
- Languages Spoken: Malayalam, Mahl, and English
- Economic Activities: Fishing, coconut farming, and emerging ecotourism (birdwatching, snorkeling, diving)
- Climate:
- Type: Tropical monsoon (similar to Kerala)
- Temperature Range: 25–35°C
- Annual Rainfall: ~1600 mm
- Monsoon Season: Mid-May to mid-September; sea access is limited
- Historical and Cultural Significance:
- History: Populated around 1945
- Pilgrimage Site: Hosts a shrine to Arab saint Malik Mulla
Strategic Importance:
- Location: Close to key international shipping lanes in the Arabian Sea
- Surveillance Advantage: Ideal point for maritime monitoring
- Military Utility: Suitable for naval installations and coastal defence
- Maritime Awareness: Enhances India’s preparedness in the western seaboard
| [UPSC 2014] Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
Options: (a) Andaman and Nicobar* (b) Nicobar and Sumatra (c) Maldives and Lakshadweep (d) Sumatra and Java |
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Why in the News?
India has formally submitted a Letter of Request (LoR) to the United States seeking the co-production of Javelin anti-tank guided missiles (ATGMs) under the ‘Make in India’ initiative.

About the Javelin Missile:
- About: American-made man-portable anti-tank guided missile (ATGM).
- Developers: Jointly developed by Raytheon and Lockheed Martin.
- Purpose:
- Defeats heavily armoured vehicles such as main battle tanks.
- Effective against bunkers, fortifications, and helicopters.
- Operational Since: Entered service with the U.S. military in 1996.
Key Features:
- Range:
- Standard effective range: 2.5 km.
- Advanced variants: Can reach up to 4 km.
- Weight: Approximately 5.11 kg.
- Technology:
- Employs a “fire-and-forget” system.
- No need for operator guidance after launch.
- Target Engagement Modes:
- Direct attack mode: For conventional engagement.
- Top-attack mode: Hits the weaker top armour of tanks.
- Mobility & Safety:
- Soldiers can relocate or reload immediately after launch.
- Uses infrared guidance allowing quick post-launch cover.
| [UPSC 2018] What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?
Options: (a) An Israeli radar system (b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme (c) An American anti-missile system* (d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea |
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Why in the News?
A satellite-based study (2003–2020) of 141 Indian cities revealed a surprising aerosol pattern — southern cities act as pollution hotspots, while many northern cities form ‘clean islands’ due to a phenomenon called the Wind Stilling Effect.
Key Highlights of the Study:
- Conducted by: The Indian Institute of Technology Bhubaneswar.
- Method: Used high-resolution aerosol optical depth data to track pollution.
- Focus: Examined how urbanisation interacts with natural and transported pollution.
- Surprising Insight: Many northern cities were not major aerosol hotspots, contrary to assumptions.
- Classification of Cities: Two categories based on aerosol levels relative to surrounding areas:
- Urban Aerosol Pollution Islands-
- Location: Predominantly in southern and southeastern India.
- Characteristics: Cities had higher aerosol levels than nearby rural surroundings.
- Pollution Source: Mostly local emissions from vehicles, construction, and industries.
- Absence of External Influence: Minimal contribution from long-range dust or biomass burning.
- Urban Aerosol Clean Islands-
- Location: Observed in northwestern India and the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
- Pattern: Cities had lower aerosol levels than nearby upwind (southwest) areas.
- Mechanism: Incoming pollutants were blocked or deflected, creating a “clean island” effect.
- Downwind Evidence: Northeast (downwind) sides showed equal or lower aerosol levels compared to city centres.
About the Wind Stilling Effect:
- Overview: A phenomenon where dense urban infrastructure reduces surface wind speed, altering local airflow.
- Barrier Formation: Slowed winds create atmospheric stagnation zones, especially on the upwind side.
- Pollution Blocking: Long-range pollutants like Thar Desert dust or biomass smoke are slowed or blocked.
- Misleading Cleanliness: Cities appear cleaner not due to lower emissions, but due to pollution deflection.
- Seasonality: Most evident during the pre-monsoon season, when dust transport is high and cloud cover is minimal.
| [UPSC 2010] If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India ?
1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia. 2. Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils. 3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3* |
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Why in the News?
A study in Nature has provided the first observational evidence of solid rock forming from vapour in a distant star system HOPS-315, marking early planet formation.
About HOPS-315:
- Type: A young star system located in the Orion constellation.
- Protoplanetary Disc: Surrounded by a flat, rotating disc of gas and dust, where new planets can form.
- Orientation: The disc’s tilt offers a clear line of sight from Earth, allowing deep observation.
- Observational Tools:
Clue on New Planet Formation:
- Rock Vapour Crystallisation: Scientists captured rock vapour cooling and forming crystals, marking the first direct observation of solid matter forming around a star.
- Detected Elements:
- Silicon monoxide gas at 470 Kelvin, close to the star.
- Crystalline silicates such as forsterite, enstatite, and silica found within 2.2 astronomical units of the star.
Scientific Significance:
- Similarity to Earth: The crystallisation mimics processes found in primitive meteorites on Earth.
- Chemical Confirmation: Suggests universal chemical processes in early planet formation across star systems.
- Location of Minerals: Crystals were detected in the disc’s atmosphere, not in stellar outflows.
- Temperature Conditions: Simulations confirmed dust vaporises and re-forms into solids at around 1300 Kelvin.
- Formation Stage: Marks the earliest stage of rocky planet formation ever observed.
| [UPSC 2015] The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of-
Options: (a) the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth (b) regions inside the Earth where shale gas is available (c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space* (d) search for meteorites containing precious metals |
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Why in the News?
A replica of the Ashoka Pillar was unveiled at Waskaduwa Sri Subhuthi Viharaya highlighting Buddhism in Sri Lanka.
The original pillars, like those at Rampurva and Lauriya Nandangarh in Bihar, are key symbols of India’s Buddhist and Mauryan heritage and are on UNESCO’s Tentative List.
![[pib] Ashoka Pillars of Rampurva and Lauriya Nandangarh](https://d18x2uyjeekruj.cloudfront.net/wp-content/uploads/2025/07/ashokan-pillar.jpg)
About Rampurva Ashoka Pillars (West Champaran, Bihar):
- Location: Near the Nepal border in West Champaran district, Bihar.
- Discovery: Found by archaeologist Alexander Cunningham, Lamb Carlleyle in 1876.
- Pillars: Two monolithic sandstone pillars, 300 meters apart:
- Lion Capital Pillar: Contains Major Pillar Edicts I–VI in Brahmi script.
- Bull Capital Pillar: Known for artistic refinement and Persian-inspired motifs.
- Design Features:
- Polished sandstone with Mauryan craftsmanship.
- Height: 12–15 meters; Weight: Up to 50 tons.
- Lion Capital: Preserved at Indian Museum, Kolkata.
- Bull Capital: Housed at Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi; praised for its lifelike form and “velvet touch” finish.
- Decorative motifs include rosette, palmette, and acanthus—showing Persian influence.
- Legend: Marks the site of Buddha’s renunciation near the Anoma River.
About Lauriya Nandangarh Ashoka Pillar (West Champaran, Bihar):
- Location: 22–28 kilometers northwest of Bettiah town.
- Surviving Structure: Only one complete pillar remains from an original group.
- Material and Size:
- Made of Chunar sandstone.
- Stands about 12 meters above ground with ~3 meters underground; Weighs over 50 tons.
- Capital Design:
- Features a seated lion with hind legs extending beyond the abacus.
- The abacus is adorned with hamsa (flying geese), symbolizing spiritual liberation.
- Inscriptions:
- Engraved with Major Pillar Edicts I–VI in Brahmi script, dated to 244 BCE.
- Promotes dharma, non-violence, religious tolerance, and compassion.
- Symbolism:
- The lion capital represents Mauryan imperial strength and Buddha’s Sakya lineage.
- The lion’s open mouth symbolizes the dissemination of Ashoka’s ethical and Buddhist teachings.
| [UPSC 2019] In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
Options: (a) Kanganahalli* (b) Sanchi I (c) Shahbazgarhi (d) Sohgaura |
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Why in the News?
The Winter Fog Experiment (WiFEX) at Delhi’s IGI Airport, has marked 10 years of pioneering research on dense winter fog in North India.
![[pib] 10 years of Winter Fog Experiment (WiFEX)](https://d18x2uyjeekruj.cloudfront.net/wp-content/uploads/2025/07/wifex.jpg)
About Winter Fog Experiment (WiFEX):
- Purpose: It is a long-term, open-field research project dedicated to studying winter fog—a major hazard in North India.
- Launch: Initiated in 2015 at Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi.
- Lead Institution: Managed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
- Supporting Agencies: Supported by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting.
- Objective: To understand fog variability, dynamics, and microphysics, and to improve fog forecasting across the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
Key Features:
- Network: Began at Indira Gandhi International Airport; expanded to Jewar Airport (Noida) and Hisar (Haryana).
- Instruments Used: Includes micrometeorology towers, ceilometers, and high-frequency sensors.
- Data Collected: Covers temperature profiles, humidity, wind, turbulence, soil heat flux, and aerosol concentrations.
- Scientific Goal: To model the full fog life cycle and develop operational forecasting systems.
- Next Phase – WiFEX-II:
- Will provide localized, runway-specific fog forecasts.
- Will expand to more airports for real-time winter decision-making.
Outcomes:
- Forecasting Model: A high-resolution fog prediction model with 3-km resolution and 85% accuracy for very dense fog (visibility <200 metres).
- Operational Benefits: Reduced flight delays and diversions; enhanced runway safety.
- Research Insights: Clarified the role of air pollution, urban heat islands, and land-use changes in fog formation.
- Significance:
- Aviation Planning: Helps airlines, pilots, and passengers manage winter fog disruptions.
- Science-Policy Link: Demonstrates successful collaboration between scientific institutions and public policy to address climate and aviation challenges.
| [UPSC 2014] Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among-
Options: (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight ** (b) CO2, O2, and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (c) CO, CO2, and NO2 at low temperature (d) high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening |
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Why in the News?
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has launched the PRATIBHA Setu initiative to channel the potential of civil service aspirants who reach the interview stage but do not make the final merit list.
About PRATIBHA Setu:
- Meaning: Stands for Professional Resource And Talent Integration – Bridge for Hiring Aspirants.
- Purpose: Connects candidates who cleared the interview stage of Union Public Service Commission exams but didn’t make the final merit list with verified employers.
- Launch: Rolled out during CSE Examination 2023 results; evolved from the Public Disclosure Scheme (2018).
- Objective: Utilizes the Union Public Service Commission’s rigorous selection process to support alternate career pathways for high-performing aspirants.
- Talent Pool:
- Scale: Over 10,000 high-performing candidates available for recruitment.
- Merit-Based: Offers employers access to a pre-tested, well-evaluated talent group.
Key Features:
- Eligibility:
-
- Included: Civil Services, Indian Forest Service, Engineering Services, Central Armed Police Forces, Combined Medical Services, etc.
- Excluded: National Defence Academy, Naval Academy, and certain Limited Departmental Competitive Examinations.
- Access for Recruiters: Organizations register using Corporate Identification Number through the Ministry of Corporate Affairs portal.
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- Platform Tools:
-
- Functions: Dashboard for shortlisting, wish-listing, and making selections or rejections.
- Data Access: Employers can view candidates’ educational profiles and contact details in digital format.
Impact:
- Candidate Benefit: Opens alternate career paths for deserving UPSC aspirants.
- Employer Advantage: Enables transparent and efficient hiring from India’s top talent.
- Wider Utility: Extends the relevance of the UPSC selection process beyond final appointments.
| [UPSC 2020] In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
Options: (a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism (c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy* |
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Why in the News?
Despite growing global pressure, the International Seabed Authority (ISA) has yet to finalize regulations for deep sea mining.
Deadlock Over Deep Sea Mining Rules:
- ISA’s 36-member executive council concluded a line-by-line reading of the draft “mining code” containing 107 regulations.
- These regulations govern mining for cobalt, nickel, and manganese in international waters.
- Key concerns remain unresolved, especially around environmental protection mechanisms.
- Chile and 36 other countries demand a moratorium until scientific assessments confirm minimal harm to marine ecosystems.
- Also, the US is not a member of the ISA or party to UNCLOS.
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About International Seabed Authority (ISA):
- Establishment: Formed under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (1982) and the 1994 Agreement relating to Part XI of the Convention.
- Headquarters: Located in Kingston, Jamaica.
- Membership: Comprises 168 member states including India and the European Union.
- Jurisdiction: Governs “The Area” — the seabed and ocean floor beyond national boundaries, covering around 54% of global oceans.
- Guiding Principle: Operates on the principle that deep-sea resources are the common heritage of humankind.
Key Functions:
- Regulation of Mineral Activities
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- Licensing: Grants licenses for exploration of seabed mineral resources.
- Transition Oversight: Manages the shift from exploration to commercial exploitation.
- Mining Code Development: Maintains the Mining Code—rules for environmental impact, royalties, benefit sharing, and technology transfer.
-
- Standards: Sets and enforces environmental norms for seabed activities.
- Risk Management: Applies precautionary principles to minimize ecological harm.
-
- Monitoring: Oversees contractors and states for legal and environmental adherence.
- Enforcement: Investigates violations and recommends corrective action.
India’s Engagement with the International Seabed Authority:
- Active Participation: India contributes to rule-making and sustainable seabed governance.
- Existing Contracts:
- Polymetallic nodules in the Central Indian Ocean Basin.
- Polymetallic sulphides in the Central Indian Ridge.
- New Applications (2024):
- Polymetallic sulphides in the Carlsberg Ridge.
- Cobalt-rich crusts in the Afanasy-Nikitin Seamount.
- Mining Code Engagement: Participates in drafting and negotiating legal standards.
- Equity and Protection: Supports fair benefit-sharing and strong environmental safeguards.
[UPSC 2021] Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only* (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
The Indian Air Force’s longest-serving combat aircraft, the Russian-origin MiG (Mikoyan and Gurevich)-21, is set to be phased out by September 2025.
About MiG-21:
- Type: Single-engine, single-seater, multi-role fighter and ground attack aircraft.
- Origin: Originally inducted as an interceptor; later upgraded for multi-role capabilities.
- Key Indian Variants: Type-77, Type-96, MiG-21 BIS and MiG-21 Bison (most advanced variant with upgraded radar, avionics, and missile systems).
- Safety Concerns:
- High accident rate, especially in recent decades.
- Earned the nickname “flying coffin” due to frequent crashes and pilot fatalities.
- Combat Features:
- Performance: Known for high speed, agility, and rapid climb capability.
- Armament: Capable of deploying both air-to-air and air-to-ground missiles.
- War Record: Played key roles in- 1965 War with Pakistan; 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War; 1999 Kargil Conflict.
- Notable Operation: In 2019, a MiG-21 Bison piloted by Group Captain Abhinandan Varthaman shot down a Pakistani F-16 during aerial combat.
Induction and Retirement:
-
- Timeline: Inducted into the Indian Air Force in 1963 during tensions with China and Pakistan.
- Assembly: First units assembled in India at Chandigarh with Soviet assistance.
- Scale: Over 700 MiG-21s were procured, forming the backbone of the Indian Air Force for decades.
-
- Current Status: As of now, three MiG-21 Bison squadrons remain, each with 16–18 aircraft.
- Replacement: To be replaced by the indigenously developed Tejas Mark-1A aircraft.
Back2Basics: LCA Tejas
- Type: Indian single-engine, fourth-generation, multirole light fighter aircraft.
- R&D: Designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency in collaboration with the Aircraft Research and Design Centre of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.
- Origins: Developed under the Light Combat Aircraft programme launched in the 1980s to replace India’s ageing MiG-21 fleet.
- Indigenous Content:
- By Value: 59.7% of the aircraft’s components are sourced indigenously.
- By Units: 75.5% of the line replaceable units are domestically produced.
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| [UPSC 2024] Consider the following aircraft:
1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None* |
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Why in the news?
The recent polyandrous marriage in Himachal Pradesh has brought the spotlight back on the customary practices of the Hatti tribe.
About Hatti Tribe:
- Location: Indigenous to the Trans-Giri region (Himachal Pradesh) and Jaunsar Bawar region (Uttarakhand).
- Rivers: Settled around the Giri and Tons rivers, tributaries of the Yamuna.
- Etymology: “Hatti” derives from “haat” (traditional village markets).
- Population: Around 2.5 lakh in 2011; now estimated at 3 lakh.
- Traditional Governance: Khumbli (tribal council) handles disputes and key decisions.
- Social Structure: Divided into upper castes (Bhat, Khash) and lower castes (Badhois).
- Livelihood: Depend mainly on agriculture; eco-tourism also provides seasonal income.
- Backwardness: Social and educational deprivation due to geographical isolation.
- Scheduled Tribe Status:
- Jaunsar Bawar (Uttarakhand) recognized in 1967.
- Trans-Giri region (Himachal Pradesh) granted status in 2023–24.
Legal Status of Polygamy and Polyandry:
- Prohibition: Banned under Hindu Marriage Act (1955), Special Marriage Act, and Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.
- Exemption for Scheduled Tribes: These laws do not automatically apply to Scheduled Tribes unless notified by the Central Government.
- Constitutional Provision: Article 342 gives Scheduled Tribes distinct legal recognition.
- Legal Exemption Clause: Section 2(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act exempts Scheduled Tribes unless otherwise notified.
- Definition of Custom: Recognised if the practice is long-standing, reasonable, and not against public policy.
- Judicial Requirement: Courts need clear evidence to validate customary laws.
- Uniform Civil Code (Uttarakhand, 2024): Explicitly excludes Scheduled Tribes.
- UCC Rules (2025): Confirms UCC does not apply to groups protected under Part XXI of the Constitution.
Related Judicial Pronouncements:
- Customs vs Fundamental Rights: The Supreme Court strikes down customs that violate equality, dignity, or liberty.
- Triple Talaq Case: Declared unconstitutional as it violated Articles 14 and 21.
- Ram Charan v. Sukhram (2024): Tribal women cannot be denied inheritance based on customary male preference.
- Judicial Outlook: Customs must adapt and cannot override fundamental rights.
| [UPSC 2019] Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
Options: (a) Article 19 (b) Article 21* (c) Article 25 (d) Article 29 |
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Why in the News?
The ongoing Supreme Court hearings on the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Bihar have reignited discussions on the legal status of the ‘right to vote’ in India.
About Right to Vote in India:
- Overview: It is also known as suffrage, allows citizens to elect their representatives in democratic institutions.
- Constitutional Basis: Guaranteed under Article 326 of the Constitution of India, which provides for universal adult franchise.
- Eligibility: Every citizen of India aged 18 and above is entitled to vote, unless disqualified by law.
- Supervision: Organised and overseen by the Election Commission of India.
- Supporting Laws:
- Representation of the People Act, 1950: Defines voter eligibility and grounds for disqualification.
- Representation of the People Act, 1951: Governs the procedures for conducting elections.
Judicial Interpretation:
- N.P. Ponnuswami v. Returning Officer (1952): Declared the Right to Vote as a statutory right.
- Jyoti Basu v. Debi Ghosal (1982): Reiterated that the Right to Vote is neither a fundamental right nor a common law right.
- People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2003): Recognised the Right to Vote as at least a constitutional right.
- Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006): Held that the Right to Vote continues to be a statutory right.
- Raj Bala v. State of Haryana (2015): Recognised the Right to Vote as a constitutional right.
- Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023):
- Majority View: Right to Vote is a statutory right.
- Dissenting Opinion by Justice Ajay Rastogi:
- Linked the Right to Vote with the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a).
- Considered it essential to free and fair elections and thus part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Current Legal Status:
- Nature: It is legally a statutory right.
- Constitutional Context: It is shaped by constitutional provisions but does not hold the status of a fundamental right.
Back2Basics: Other Types of Rights in India
|
Description |
Enforceability |
| Natural Rights |
Inherent and inalienable rights (e.g., life, liberty); not directly enforceable unless linked to fundamental rights. |
Indirectly through Fundamental Rights |
| Fundamental Rights |
Guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution (e.g., right to equality, speech, life). |
Enforceable in Supreme Court under Article 32 |
| Constitutional Rights |
Rights given in the Constitution but outside Part III (e.g., property, trade). |
Enforceable under Article 226 via High Courts |
| Statutory Rights |
Granted by ordinary laws (e.g., MGNREGA, Forest Rights Act, Food Security Act). |
Enforceable as per respective legislations |
| [UPSC 2017] Right to vote and to be elected in India is a:
Options: (a) Fundamental Right (b) Natural Right (c) Constitutional Right* (d) Legal Right |
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Why in the News?
The Vice-President of India, Jagdeep Dhankhar resigned citing health reasons, creating a rare mid-term vacancy in India’s second-highest constitutional office.
What happens if VP resigns?
- The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides in his absence. No provision exists for an “acting” Vice-President.
- Unlike the President, whose vacancy must be filled within six months, the VP election must be held “as soon as possible.”
- The Election Commission will notify the schedule.
- Election governed by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.
- The elected candidate will serve a full 5-year term, not the remainder of Dhankhar’s term.
|
About Vice-President (VP) of India
- Position: Second-highest constitutional post; deputy to the President.
- Parliamentary Role: Serves as ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- Succession: Ranks second in order of precedence and first in line to become President.
- Membership: Is a member of Parliament, not directly elected by the people.
- Qualifications:
- Citizenship: Must be a citizen of India.
- Age: Minimum 35 years.
- Office of Profit: Should not hold any.
- Parliamentary Eligibility: Must qualify for election to Rajya Sabha (unlike President, who must qualify for Lok Sabha) due to the VP’s role in the Upper House.
- Roles and Responsibilities:
- Rajya Sabha Chairmanship: Presides over sessions and ensures order.
- Bill Classification: Refers money bills to the Lok Sabha Speaker.
- No Independent Powers: Has no executive or legislative powers unless acting as President.
Election Procedure:
- Constitutional Basis: Governed by Article 66.
- Electoral College: Comprises 543 Lok Sabha MPs, 233 elected Rajya Sabha MPs, and 12 nominated Rajya Sabha members.
- Voting Method: Proportional representation by single transferable vote and secret ballot.
- No Whip Allowed: Parties cannot issue voting whips.
- Conduct: Managed by the Election Commission; Returning Officer is the Secretary-General of either House (on rotation).
- Winning Quota: Requires 50% of valid votes + 1; votes are transferred in rounds if no candidate secures majority in the first round.
Resignation and Removal:
-
- Article 67(a): VP submits his/her resignation to the President. Parliamentary approval is NOT needed, and the resignation takes effect immediately upon receipt.
- No Acting VP: Constitution doesn’t provide for an acting Vice-President.
- Presiding in Absence: Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides in VP’s absence (currently Harivansh Narayan Singh).
- Example: Dhankhar, who took office in 2022, is only the third VP in Indian history to resign before completing his term, after V.V. Giri and R. Venkataraman.
-
- Article 67(b): Removal process begins in Rajya Sabha with 14 days’ notice.
- Voting Requirement: Needs effective majority in Rajya Sabha and simple majority in Lok Sabha.
- No Grounds Specified: Constitution doesn’t list specific removal grounds.
- Judicial Immunity: Article 122 bars courts from questioning parliamentary proceedings related to removal.
- No Precedent: No VP has been removed so far.
| [UPSC 2013] With reference to Parliament, consider the following statements:
1.The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2* (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
The Prime Minister will attend a function in Tamil Nadu marking 1000 years since King Rajendra Chola I’s conquest of the Gangetic plains.

About Rajendra Chola I:
- Reign & Dynasty: Ruled from 1014 to 1044 CE, succeeding his father Rajaraja Chola I.
- Titles:
- Gangaikonda Cholan (“Bringer of the Ganges”) – adopted after his victorious northern campaign.
- Kadaram Kondan (“Conqueror of Kedah (Malaysia)”) – earned following his Southeast Asian naval expeditions.
- Capital Foundation: Established Gangaikonda Cholapuram, shifting the capital from Thanjavur to the Kollidam River area.
- Temple Building: Built the Gangaikondacholeshwaram (Shiva) Temple to commemorate his conquests.
- Succession: Succeeded by his son, Rajadhiraja I.
- Religious Policy:
- Devout Shaivite, but practiced religious pluralism—patronised Buddhism, including building stupas in South India and Southeast Asia.
- Diplomacy & Trade: Strengthened international ties with Song Dynasty China and Arab merchants.
- Administration: Pioneered local self-governance, showcasing notable administrative sophistication.

His Legend:
- Northern Conquest: Rajendra led a military campaign to the Gangetic plains, defeating the Pala ruler Mahipala of Bengal and Bihar, and commemorated this victory by bringing Ganga water to his capital.
- Overseas Expeditions: He commanded what is considered the largest blue-water navy in Indian history. Successfully conducted naval expeditions to:
- Srivijaya Empire (covering parts of modern-day Sumatra, Java, and Malaysia)
- Burma, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Maldives, and Pegu Islands
- Extracted tribute from Thailand and the Khmer kingdom of Cambodia.
- First Indian king to undertake large-scale overseas military campaigns.
- Trade and Diplomacy: Established trade and diplomatic links with Song China and Arab merchants.
- Administration: Promoted local self-governance, showcasing the Cholas’ administrative efficiency.
- Wealth and Power: Under his reign, the Chola Empire became one of the wealthiest and most powerful empires of the time.
| [UPSC 2025] Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime state, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
Options: (a) Amoghvarsha (Rashtrakuta) (b) Prataprudra (Kakatiya) (c) Rajendra I (Chola) * (d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala) |
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Why in the News?
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India’s (CAG) audit has flagged ₹573 Crore irregularities in Indian Railways.
About Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:
- Foundation: Established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India.
- Independence: A constitutional authority, not subject to executive control.
- Appointment: Appointed by the President of India.
- Tenure: Holds office for 6 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- Removal: Can be removed by the President in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
- Post-Retirement Bar: Ineligible for further office under the Government of India or any State after demitting office.
- Funding: Administrative expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring financial autonomy.
- Parliamentary Independence: No minister can represent the CAG in Parliament.
- Role: Known as the guardian of the public purse and a key pillar of Indian democracy.
Powers and Functions:
-
- Fund Audits: Audits expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India, State Consolidated Funds, and Union Territory funds.
- Other Fund Audits: Audits Contingency Fund and Public Account at both Central and State levels.
- Departmental Audits: Reviews profit and loss accounts, balance sheets, and subsidiary accounts of government departments.
- Authority Audits: Audits bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government.
- Company Audits: Examines accounts of government-owned companies and corporations.
- Special Audits: Audits other authorities when requested by the President or Governor.
- Parliamentary Role: Acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
- Public Accountability: Exposed major scams such as the 2G spectrum and coal block allocation cases.
- Sectoral Reviews: Highlighted inefficiencies in defence, railways, and other public enterprises.
Limitations of the office of CAG:
- Lack of Real-Time Control: Cannot stop or approve withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund; cheques can be issued without CAG’s prior clearance.
- Opaque Appointment: No prescribed qualifications or transparent procedure for selection; appointment is entirely executive-controlled.
- Limited Audit Scope:
- Excludes certain public entities like Life Insurance Corporation and public sector banks.
- Cannot audit public-private partnerships and funds like Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund and Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund.
- Off-budget borrowings (e.g., through National Investment and Infrastructure Fund) remain outside audit scope.
- Post-Facto Nature: Audits occur after expenditure, limiting preventive or real-time oversight.
| [UPSC 2012] In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only* (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
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Why in the News?
The Prime Minister paid tribute to the great freedom fighter Mangal Pandey on his birth anniversary.
Who was Mangal Pandey?
- Birth: Born on 19 July 1827 in Nagwa village, Ballia district, Uttar Pradesh.
- Military Service: Joined the British East India Company’s army in 1849 as a sepoy in the 34th Bengal Native Infantry at Barrackpore.
- Trigger of Revolt: Opposed the use of Enfield rifle cartridges greased with cow and pig fat, offensive to religious beliefs.
- Rebellion: On 29 March 1857, attacked British officers and encouraged sepoys to rise in revolt.
- Punishment: Arrested, tried, and executed by hanging on 8 April 1857.
- Legacy: Regarded as the “Hero of the First War of Indian Independence” and a symbol of resistance.
Back2Basics: 1857 War of Independence
- Overview: The First War of Indian Independence or the Great Rebellion of 1857.
- Sepoy Composition: Indians made up over 87% of the British Indian Army but faced severe discrimination.
- Root Causes:
- Military Discontent: Unequal pay, poor promotion prospects, denial of allowances.
- Religious Insensitivity: Use of animal fat-greased cartridges insulted Hindu and Muslim beliefs.
- Economic Hardship: Heavy land taxes, decline in traditional crafts, and rising unemployment.
- Political Grievances: Annexation of Indian states and enforcement of oppressive laws.
- Outbreak:
- Barrackpore: Mangal Pandey’s defiance on 29 March 1857 marked the beginning.
- Meerut: On 10 May 1857, sepoys rebelled after refusing cartridges and were imprisoned.
- Delhi: Rebels marched to Delhi and declared Bahadur Shah II as Emperor.
- Spread of Revolt: Uprising expanded to Kanpur, Lucknow, Jhansi, Bihar, Bareilly, Faizabad, and beyond.
- Mass Participation: Involved sepoys, peasants, landlords, and regional rulers.
Suppression and Its Aftermath:
- Brutal Suppression: Rebellion was crushed by 1859; Delhi was recaptured in September 1857.
- Administrative Shift: British East India Company was dissolved; India came under direct British Crown rule, initiating the British Raj.
- Military Reorganization: Indian representation in the army was reduced and reorganized to prevent future revolts.
- Increased Repression: Racial discrimination and harsh policies intensified post-revolt.
|
| [UPSC 2006] Who was the Governor-general of India during the Sepoy Mutiny?
Options: (a) Lord Canning* (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord Hardinge (d) Lord Lytton |
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Why in the News?
Gujarat has launched India’s first Tribal Genome Sequencing Project to map tribal genetic data, contributing to the national Genome India Project (GIP).
About the Gujarat Tribal Genome Project:
- Launch & Duration: Announced in Gujarat’s 2025–26 budget; spans 5 years under Gujarat Biotechnology Research Centre (GBRC).
- Target Population: Focuses on genome sequencing of tribal communities forming ~15% of Gujarat’s population (~1 crore).
- Objective: Addresses under-representation in Genome India Project (GIP), which had only ~100 tribal samples from Gujarat.
- Sample Size: Involves 4,158 individuals, including 378 trio families, to create a 2,000-sample reference genome panel.
- Data Collection: Includes blood, stool, genealogical, physiological, and lifestyle information.
Key Features:
- Precision Medicine Applications
-
- Early Detection: Enables screening for sickle cell anaemia, G6PD deficiency, BRCA-linked cancers.
- Gene-Trait Mapping: Explores genetic links to traits like agility and archery.
- Genomic Sampling Protocol
-
- Filtering: Uses SNP genotyping to remove closely related samples.
- Sequencing: Conducts Whole Genome Sequencing (WGS) on 2,000 diverse samples via Illumina NovaSeq 6000.
- Data Security: Employs double encryption for privacy and anonymity.
About the Genome India Project (GIP):
- Launch: Initiated in January 2020 by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
- Structure: Multi-institutional consortium involving top Indian research bodies.
- Objectives
- Diversity Mapping: Decode genetic variation across Indian population.
- Reference Panel: Build Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) -based haplotype database for Indian genomes.
- Biobank Creation: Establish DNA reserves for research and therapy development.
- Key Achievements
- Sequencing Scale: 10,074 genomes sequenced from 99 ethnic groups.
- Data Storage: Securely stored at Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC), Faridabad.
- Insights: Revealed rare traits aiding affordable diagnostics and predictive tools.
- Significance
- Global Impact: Offers India-specific insights to global genomics research.
- Healthcare Value: Enables evidence-based, genetically informed policy and diagnosis.
| [UPSC 2017] With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
In a breakthrough, scientists have developed BioEmu—an AI tool that predicts the full range of protein shapes, offering faster and scalable insights into protein dynamics.

What is BioEmu?
- Overview: It is a deep learning tool that predicts the equilibrium ensemble of a protein — meaning all the different shapes a protein can naturally take.
- It works like diffusion models, starting with random/noisy inputs and learning to rebuild protein shapes.
- Training: It was trained on-
- AlphaFold structures (millions of predicted proteins)
- Molecular dynamics (MD) simulation data (200 ms)
- 500,000 mutant sequences from lab experiments
- Speed: Once trained, BioEmu can quickly create thousands of 3D protein structures on a single GPU in just minutes to hours.
Key Features of BioEmu:
- Flexibility Capture: Shows how proteins change shape, fold/unfold, or form hidden binding pockets.
- Accuracy:
- Detects 83% of large and 70–81% of small shape changes.
- Predicts open/closed forms of enzymes like adenylate kinase.
- Mutation Analysis: Helps see how mutations affect protein structure and stability.
- Fast & Scalable: Much faster than traditional MD simulations; works on thousands of proteins using less computing power.
- Snapshots Only: Gives static 3D shapes, not full motion timelines.
- Limitations: Can’t handle membrane proteins, drug molecules, or multi-chain complexes.
Why is BioEmu Important?
- Improves Protein Modelling: Adds to what AlphaFold does by showing how proteins move, not just what they look like.
- Helps Drug Discovery: Finds hidden drug binding sites — speeding up the search for new medicines.
- More Accessible: Works on basic hardware, making advanced protein modelling available to more researchers.
- Combines with Other Tools: Can be used with molecular dynamics for deeper study.
- Future of Research: Encourages students and scientists to learn a mix of AI, biology, and physics.
| [UPSC 2020] Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not.
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do.
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole vacuoles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only * (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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