💥UPSC 2027,2028 Mentorship (April Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

Type: Prelims Only

  • Port Infrastructure and Shipping Industry – Sagarmala Project, SDC, CEZ, etc.

    Paradip Port: India’s Leading Major Port in Cargo Handling

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Paradip and other major sea-ports

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    Paradip Port in Odisha has made history by becoming India’s largest major port in terms of cargo volumes, surpassing Deendayal Port Authority in Gujarat during FY24.

    About Paradip Port

    • Paradip Port is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha.
    • It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.
    • The port was commissioned in 1966 to serve as a gateway for the maritime trade of eastern India.
    • Paradip Port Trust, a statutory body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, manages and operates the port.

    Key Features of the Port

    • Infrastructure: It is equipped with modern facilities for handling a variety of cargo, including dry bulk, liquid bulk, containerized cargo, and general cargo.
    • Deep-Draft Port: The port has extensive berthing facilities and cargo-handling equipment capable of handling millions of tonnes of cargo annually.
    • Strategic Importance: Paradip Port serves as a vital link for the export and import trade of eastern and central India, contributing significantly to the region’s economic development.
    • Connectivity: The port is well-connected to major cities and industrial centers in Odisha and neighbouring states through road and rail networks.

    Key Feats Achieved

    • Cargo Throughput: Paradip Port achieved a record-breaking cargo throughput of 145.38 million metric tonnes (MMT) in FY2023-24, surpassing Deendayal Port.
    • Coastal Shipping Traffic: The port recorded the highest-ever coastal shipping traffic of 59.19 million metric tonnes, showcasing a growth of 1.30% over the previous year.
    • Thermal Coal Handling: Thermal coal shipping reached 43.97 million metric tonnes, marking a growth of 4.02% over the previous year.
    • Revenue Growth: Operating revenue crossed Rs 2,300 crore in FY24, reflecting a notable increase of 14.30% compared to the previous fiscal.

    Driving Factors of this Success

    • Enhanced Operational Efficiency: Mechanised coal handling plant operations were optimized, resulting in the highest handling of thermal coal at 27.12 million tonnes.
    • Productivity Improvement: Paradip Port improved berth productivity to 33,014 MT, the highest among all ports, showcasing a growth of 6.33% over the previous financial year.
    • Rake Handling and Ship Movements: The port handled 21,665 rakes and 2,710 ships during FY24, registering significant year-on-year growth in both metrics.

    Future Prospects

    • Capacity Expansion: With a current capacity of 289 million tonnes, Paradip Port is poised to exceed 300 million tonnes capacity in the next 3 years with the commissioning of the Western Dock project.
    • Strategic Location: Located near a mineral-rich hinterland, Paradip Port remains a strategic asset for India’s maritime trade and economic growth.

    PYQ:

    2017:

    What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

    (a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.

    (b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

    (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

    (d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    It is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal. It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.

    Which sea port in Odisha is being talked about by the above description?

    (a) Haldia

    (b) Gopalpur

    (c) Belikeri

    (d) Paradip

  • Capital Markets: Challenges and Developments

    SEBI unveils SCORES 2.0 to Strengthen Investor Redressal

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: SCORES 2.0, SEBI

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) unveiled the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0) marking a significant advancement in the investor complaint redressal mechanism in the securities market.

    About Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

     

    • SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
    • Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
    • It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
    • SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
    • Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.

    What is SCORES 2.0?

    • SCORES 2.0 refers to the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
    • SCORES is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.
    • Complaints can be lodged for any issues covered under the:
    1. SEBI Act, 1992
    2. Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1956
    3. Depositories Act, 1966
    4. Companies Act, 2013

    Complaints on SCORES 2.0 can be launched against:

    1. Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
    2. Brokers / stock exchanges
    3. Depository participants / depository
    4. Mutual funds
    5. Portfolio Managers
    6. Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc.)

    Features of SCORES 2.0:

    1. Reduced Timelines: SCORES 2.0 implements reduced and standardized timelines for addressing investor grievances, ensuring a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days from the date of complaint receipt.
    2. Auto-Routing and Escalation: The new version incorporates an auto-routing mechanism to swiftly direct complaints to the relevant regulated entity. Additionally, it introduces a two-tier review process, with complaints undergoing review first by the designated body and subsequently by SEBI if investors remain dissatisfied with the resolution provided.
    3. Integration with KYC Database: SCORES 2.0 is seamlessly integrated with the KYC Registration Agency database, streamlining the registration process for investors onto the platform.
    4. Enhanced Efficiency: Through features such as auto-routing, auto-escalation, and stricter monitoring protocols, SCORES 2.0 aims to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the investor complaint redressal process.

    Significance of SCORES 2.0

    • Improved Regulatory Oversight: By introducing stricter timelines and oversight mechanisms, SEBI aims to enhance regulatory efficiency and transparency, fostering a more accountable and responsive market ecosystem.
    • Technological Advancements: The integration of advanced technological features, such as auto-routing and KYC database linkage, reflects SEBI’s proactive approach towards harnessing digital innovations to modernize regulatory processes and services.

    PYQ:

    2013:

    The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about the SCORES 2.0 Platform recently launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):

    1.    It is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.

    2.    It addresses complaints pertaining to the SEBI Act, 1992 only.

    3.    It ensures a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days.

    How many of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) One

    (b) Two

    (c) Three

    (d) None

  • Disasters and Disaster Management – Sendai Framework, Floods, Cyclones, etc.

    Kallakkadal: Coastal Flooding Phenomena in Kerala

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Kallakkadal, Tsunami

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    • Coastal areas of Kerala, including Alappuzha, Kollam, and Thiruvananthapuram districts, are grappling with flooding caused by high sea waves, known as swell waves or Kallakkadal in Malayalam.
    • The recent swell surge occurred following a low-pressure system originating in the South Atlantic Ocean, leading to the formation of waves reaching heights of up to 11 meters.

    What is Kallakkadal?

    1. Origin and Meaning:
    • Kallakkadal refers to coastal flooding during the (April-May) pre-monsoon season.
    • It is caused by ocean swell waves on the southwest coast of India.
    • The term “Kallakkadal” originates from Malayalam, combining “Kallan” (thief) and “Kadal” (sea), denoting the sea’s unexpected intrusion akin to a thief.
    • In 2012, the term was formally approved by the UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).
    1. Causes:
    • These waves stem from distant storms, such as hurricanes, generating significant energy transfer from the atmosphere to the water.
    • Kallakkadal typically results from strong winds in the southern Indian Ocean, generating ocean swells that travel northward towards the Kerala coast.

    Features of Kallakkadal

    • This phenomenon occurs mostly during pre-monsoon season and sometimes during post monsoon.
    • It continues for a few days.
    • It inundates the low lying coasts.
    • Initially sea recedes before the surge.
    • During high tide the run-up, water level can reach as much as 3–4 m above Maximum Water Level (MWL).

    How is it distinct from Tsunami?

    • Nature of Phenomenon: Kallakkadal, though often confused with tsunamis, arises from distant storm-generated waves, contrasting with tsunamis triggered by underwater disturbances, typically seismic activities.
    • Clarification: Understanding this distinction is crucial for implementing effective early warning systems and mitigating the impact of coastal hazards.

    PYQ:

    2017: At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at-

    (a) Bhavnagar

    (b) Bheemunipatnam

    (c) Chandipur

    (d) Nagapattinam

     

    Practice MCQ:

    The Coastal areas of Kerala recently witnessed the Oceanic Swell Waves locally known as Kallakkadal. In this regard consider the following statements:

    1.    Kallakkadal typically occurs during the spring season (March-April).

    2.    These waves stem from distant storms in the southern Indian Ocean.

    Which of the given statements is/are NOT correct?

    (a) Only 1

    (b) Only 2

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Police Reforms – SC directives, NPC, other committees reports

    What is Zero FIR?

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Zero FIR vs ordinary FIR

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    • The Hyderabad Police have initiated a zero FIR case against former minister for alleged derogatory remarks against Telangana CM.

    First Information Report (FIR)

    • An FIR is a written document prepared by the police upon receiving information about a cognisable offence.
    • It is when an officer can arrest a suspect without a court’s warrant if/she has “reason to believe” that the person committed the offence and arrest is necessary based on certain factors.
    • It serves as the first step towards initiating the investigation process and subsequent police actions.
    • Section 154(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) empowers the police to register an FIR for cognizable offences.
    • Section 166A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides punishment for public servants failing to record information related to a cognizable offence, with imprisonment of up to two years and a fine.

    What is Zero FIR?

    • Provision and Purpose: Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognisable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
    • No diary: Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’. Hence the name.

    Features of a Zero FIR:

    1. Swift Action: The relevant police station subsequently registers a fresh FIR and commences the investigation.
    2. Focus on Victims: It is designed to expedite complaint lodging, particularly for serious crimes involving women and children, without the need to approach multiple police stations.
    3. Preserving Evidence: Early registration helps prevent the loss or tampering of crucial evidence and witnesses.
    4. Transferred Jurisdiction: The Zero FIR is later transferred to the relevant police station where the offence occurred or where the investigation should be conducted.

    How does it work?

    • After a police station registers a zero FIR, it has to transfer the complaint to a police station that has the jurisdiction to investigate the alleged offence.
    • Once a zero FIR is transferred, the police station with the appropriate jurisdiction assigns it a serial number, thereby converting it into a regular FIR.

    Legal Provisions for Zero FIR

    The provision of Zero FIR finds support in various judgments and recommendations:

    1. Satvinder Kaur vs. State (1999): The Delhi High Court held that a woman has the right to lodge her complaint from any place other than where the incident occurred.
    2. Justice Verma Committee (2012): The introduction of Zero FIR was based on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee, which was formed in response to the 2012 Nirbhaya gangrape case.
    3. Lalita Kumari vs. Govt. of UP (2014): The Supreme Court ruled that registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence.

    PYQ:

    2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

    1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked-up in police station, not in jail.

    2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Regarding the Zero FIR, consider the following statements:

    1. Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognizable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.

    2. Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    (a) Only 1

    (b) Only 2

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • Innovation Ecosystem in India

    125 years of Kodaikanal Solar Observatory

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    This year marks 125th Year of the Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO).

    About Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)

    • The idea for an Indian solar observatory emerged in the late 19th century, with then government sanctioning the establishment of the Solar Physics Observatory in Kodaikanal in August 1893.
    • Kodaikanal in the Palani hills of Tamil Nadu was chosen as the site for the observatory due to its favorable atmospheric conditions, following surveys conducted by Charles Michie Smith.
    • The foundation stone for KoSO was laid by Lord Wenlock, the then Governor of Madras, in 1895.
    • Systematic observations at KoSO began on March 14, 1901.
    • KoSO initially housed instruments for solar observations, including telescopes for examining sunspots, prominences, and solar radiations.
    • Presently, KoSO houses advanced instruments like the H-alpha telescope and the White light Active Region Monitor (WARM) for high-resolution solar imaging.

    Do you know?

    • The Bhavnagar Telescope, named after the Maharaja of Bhavnagar, was one of the more famous instruments at KoSO during the early decades of its operation.
    • A 15cm telescope was used to capture solar images onto a photographic film or plate.
    • Solar magnetic plages and prominences were recorded since 1911, taken on photographic films and plates.

    Historical Perspective

    • Ancient Legacy: Throughout history, seafarers, mathematicians, astronomers, and physicists have meticulously studied the Sun and its celestial phenomena.
    • British Era Initiatives: In 1792, the British East India Company established the pioneering Madras Observatory, marking a significant milestone in astronomical research in the region.
    • Madras Observatory’s Legacy: The Madras Observatory documented crucial astronomical observations during 1812-1825, laying the groundwork for solar research in India.
    • Shift to Systematic Observations: Dedicated solar observations commenced in 1878, fostering a deeper understanding of solar phenomena.
    • Advancements in Methodology: The adoption of systematic observational techniques paved the way for more comprehensive and detailed studies of the Sun’s behavior.

    Need for such Observatory

    • Great Drought of 1875-1877: This event triggered by scanty rainfall, propelled the need for comprehensive solar studies to comprehend its implications on weather patterns.
    • India’s Geographical Significance: India’s drought was part of a larger global phenomenon, affecting several countries and leading to widespread famine.
    • Scientific Inquiry: Scientists recognized the potential role of solar variability in influencing climatic patterns, prompting inquiries into the Sun’s behavior and its correlation with environmental phenomena.

    Scientific Endeavors of KoSO

    • The observatory made significant contributions to solar physics, including the discovery of the radial motion of sunspots, known as the Evershed Effect.
    • Over time, KoSO expanded its research areas beyond solar physics to include cosmic rays, radio astronomy, ionospheric physics, and stellar physics.
    • In April 1971, KoSO was brought under the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, as part of the separation of astrophysics from the India Meteorological Department (IMD).

    Repository of the KoSO

    • Between 1904 and 2017, all solar observations were traced onto photographic films and plates
    • A new telescope mounted with CCD cameras has taken over and, since 2017, continued to observe the Sun.
    • Digitization of the records was initiated in 1984 by Prof J C Bhattacharyya, and others continued the effort.
    • KoSO is now home to a digital repository of a whopping 1.48 lakh solar images adding up to 10 terabyte of data.
    • These include 33,500 white-light images (showing sunspots), 45,000 images of the Ca II K spectral line (which reveals plages), and 70,000 H-alpha photographic plates that show prominences.

    PYQ:

    2019:

    On 21st June, the Sun-

    (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

    (b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

    (c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

    (d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Which of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Evershed Effect’ in Sun?

    (a) It refers to the bending of light waves around obstacles, demonstrated by the diffraction pattern observed in a single-slit experiment.

    (b) It is the phenomenon of a magnetic field being generated by the motion of charged particles in the convective zone of the Sun.

    (c) It describes the deflection of moving charged particles, such as electrons, in a magnetic field, leading to the creation of an electric potential difference.

    (d) It is the radial flow of gases in the Sun’s outer atmosphere, observed as a redshift in the spectrum of light emitted by the photosphere.

  • Civil Services Reforms

    In news: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the News?

    • The Allahabad High Court clarified the appellate jurisdiction concerning orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) in contempt proceedings.
    • The court ruled that appeals against CAT contempt orders must be filed exclusively before the Supreme Court under Section 19 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

    What is Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

    • The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body in India established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India.
    • Its primary function is to adjudicate disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
    • CAT was set up to provide a speedy and inexpensive remedy to government employees in matters concerning their service conditions and employment disputes.

    Establishment of CAT:

    • The Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985 enacted by the Parliament authorizes the central government to establish Central Administrative Tribunal and the State Administrative Tribunals.
    • There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the Central Administrative Tribunal all over India.

    Jurisdiction of CAT:

    • The Administrative Tribunal is distinguishable from the ordinary courts with regard to its jurisdiction and procedure.
    • It exercises jurisdiction only about the service matters of the parties covered by the Act.
    • CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning the following:
    1. A member of any All-India Service
    2. A person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the Union
    3. A civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence

    Services NOT Covered:

    The following members are NOT covered under the jurisdiction of CAT:

    1. Defense forces, Officers,
    2. The staff of the Supreme Court and
    3. Secretarial staff of the Parliament.

    Procedure:

    • The CAT is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is NOT bound by the procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
    • It is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
    • Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.

    Composition:

    • The CAT comprises of a chairman, and other members who are appointed by the President of India.
    • The membership of CAT is filled by members from judicial and administrative fields.
    • The term of the service is 5 years or until the age of 65 years for chairman; 62 years for members, whichever is earlier. (minimum age is 50 years)
    • The chairman or any other member may address his resignation to the President in between his term of office.

     

    PYQ:

    2019: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its power as an independent judicial authority. Explain.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):

    1.    The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body.

    2.    It adjudicates disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.

    3.    Personnel of the armed forces are covered in the jurisdiction of CAT.

    How many of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) One

    (b) Two

    (c) Three

    (d) None

  • Festivals, Dances, Theatre, Literature, Art in News

    Lalit Kala Akademi chief’s powers curbed by Culture Ministry

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Lalit Kala Academy

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    • The Ministry of Culture has restricted the powers of Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA) Chairman, V Nagdas, preventing him from taking any administrative actions without prior consultation with the ministry.
    • The directive was issued, citing rule 19(1) of General Rules and Regulations of LKA, empowering the central government to intervene in administrative matters.

    About Lalit Kala Akademi

    Details
    Established 1954

    Inaugurated by then Education Minister Maulana Azad (Based on French Academy)

    Headquarters New Delhi, India
    Founding Legislation Lalit Kala Akademi Act, 1954

    Registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.

    Type Autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India
    Objective Promotion and development of visual arts in India
    Functions Conducting exhibitions, workshops, seminars, and research programs

    Granting scholarships, awards, and fellowships to artists

    Publishing journals, catalogues, and other art-related publications

    Collaborating with international art organizations and institutions

    Programs 1.    National Exhibitions of Art

    2.    Rashtriya Kala Mela

    3.    International Exhibitions

    4.    Scholarships, Awards, and Fellowships

    5.    Workshops and Residencies

    6.    Seminars and Conferences

    Key Initiatives Triennale India

    National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA)

    Art camps and symposiums

    Membership Open to visual artists, art enthusiasts, and art scholars
    Publications 1.    Lalit Kala Contemporary

    2.    Lalit Kala Series

    3.    Annual Reports

    4.    Catalogues and Journals

    Awards 1.    Lalit Kala Akademi Fellowship

    2.    National Awards in various art categories

    3.    Kalidasa Samman

    Gallery Lalit Kala Akademi Galleries in New Delhi and regional centers

     

     

    PYQ:

    2021: Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 :​

    1.    American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.​

    2.    The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.​

    3.    Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.​

    Which of the above statements are correct?​

    (a) 1 and 2 only ​

    (b) 2 and 3 only​

    (c) 1 and 3 only ​

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statement about the Lalit Kala Akademi:

    1. It was inaugurated in 1954 by then-Education Minister Maulana Azad.

    2. It is an autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    (a) Only 1

    (b) Only 2

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • ISRO Missions and Discoveries

    Ozone found on Jupiter’s moon Callisto

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Ozone, Jupiter's Compositions, Its moon

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    PRL Ahmedabad researchers has uncovered evidence of ozone presence on Jupiter’s moon Callisto, offering profound insights into celestial chemical processes.

    About Jupiter and its Moons

    Description
    Discovery Known since ancient times;

    Galileo Galilei observed Jupiter and its moons through a telescope in 1610

    Composition Mostly composed of hydrogen and helium, with traces of other gases such as ammonia, methane, and water vapor
    Diameter 139,822 kilometers
    Mass 1.898 × 10^27 kilograms (317.8 Earth masses)
    Orbital Period Approximately 11.86 Earth years
    Average Distance from Sun Approximately 778 million kilometers
    Surface Temperature Approximately -145°C (-234°F)
    Magnetic Field Strong magnetic field, the strongest in the solar system
    Moons Jupiter has 79 known moons, including the four largest Galilean moons: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.

    Other notable moons include Amalthea, Himalia, Elara, Leda, Thebe, Metis, Adrastea, and more.

    The moons vary significantly in size, composition, and orbital characteristics.

    Great Red Spot Enormous storm system, known to exist for at least 400 years
    Exploration Explored by spacecraft such as Pioneer, Voyager, Galileo, Juno, and more

    Callisto and its Unique Environment

    • Composition: Callisto’s predominantly icy surface, interspersed with rocky materials, sulphur dioxide, and organic compounds, positions it as a compelling candidate for extraterrestrial life exploration.
    • Geological Stability: Despite extensive cratering, Callisto’s surface exhibits geological inactivity, suggesting long-term stability conducive to preserving subsurface oceans or potential habitats.

    Significance of Ozone Findings

    • Life-Sustaining Component: Ozone, a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms, plays a vital role in shielding celestial bodies from harmful ultraviolet radiation, fostering conditions conducive to life.
    • Earthly Parallel: Just as the Earth’s ozone layer protects against harmful UV radiation, the presence of ozone on Callisto hints at stable atmospheric conditions and potential habitability, sparking scientific intrigue.

    PYQ:

    What is the difference between asteroids and comets?

    1.    Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are made of ice, dust and rocky material.

    2.    Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.

    3.    Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (2011)

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1 and 3 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

  • ISRO Missions and Discoveries

    ISRO’s NICES Programme Combatting Climate Change

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: NICES Programs

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    The National Information System for Climate and Environment Studies (NICES) Program has extended invitations to Indian researchers to contribute to climate change mitigation efforts.

    What is NICES Program?

    • The NICES Programme is operated by the ISRO and the Department of Space.
    • It was launched in 2012.
    • It operates within the framework of the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
    • NICES aims to enhance the participation of Indian researchers in addressing climate change-related challenges through multidisciplinary scientific investigations.
    • Focus Areas: Potential areas for project submission include Space-based Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) and Climate Indicators, Climate Change Challenges, Weather Extremes, and Climate Services.

    Activities held under NICES Program

    • NICES invites project proposals from Indian scientists, academicians, and researchers affiliated with various governmental organizations, recognized institutions, universities, and departments.
    • Project proposals should address climate change-related challenges.
    • These projects are expected be completed within 3 years from the date of sanction.

    Objective and Functionality

    • The primary objective of the NICES Programme is to generate and disseminate long-term Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) derived from Indian and other Earth Observation (EO) satellites.
    • These variables, spanning terrestrial, oceanic, and atmospheric domains, are crucial for characterizing Earth’s climate and monitoring changes over time.

    Achievements and Impact:

    • Since its inception in 2012, NICES has developed over 70 geophysical products meeting stringent quality standards.
    • These products have been instrumental in documenting climate change and its impacts, contributing to scientific understanding and evidence-based decision-making.

    PYQ:

    2021: Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference?

     

    Practice MCQ:

    The NICES Program is an initiative of:

    (a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

    (b) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)

    (c) Department of Science and Technology (DST)

    (d) None of the above.

  • Electronic System Design and Manufacturing Sector – M-SIPS, National Policy on Electronics, etc.

    Tamil Nadu accounts for 30% of India’s electronics exports

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: district Kancheepuram, trend in export of electronic goods

    Mains level: Trend in export of electronic goods

    Why in the news? 

    Nearly 40% of India’s smartphone shipments over the past two fiscal years originated from a single district Kancheepuram.

    Context 

    • In FY23, Tamil Nadu emerged as India’s foremost exporter of electronic goods, contributing 30% to the country’s total electronic goods exports in FY24.
    • Historically, the state lagged behind Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka in this sector until FY22.
    • However, in recent years, Tamil Nadu has experienced consistent growth in electronic goods exports, unlike other states where figures have either declined or remained static.

     Chart 1 shows the electronic goods exported from Tamil Nadu in $ billion, year-wise.

    • Between April 2023 and January 2024, Tamil Nadu exported electronic goods valued at over $7.4 billion.

    Chart 2 shows the exports of electronic goods of the top five States in India in $ billion, year-wise

    • In FY24, Tamil Nadu’s exports exceeded the combined exports of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka, which totaled $6.7 billion during that period.
    • Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka were ranked second and third, respectively, in terms of electronic goods exports.
    • Gujarat and Maharashtra, also among the top five exporting states, have experienced stagnant growth in recent years.

    Chart 3 shows the commodity wise share in total exports from India for FY24 (till February) in $ billion

    • Engineering goods were the dominant category of exports from India during the specified period, with a total value of $98 billion.
    • Petroleum products followed closely behind, with exports valued at $78 billion.
    • Gems and jewellery constituted another significant export category, with a total export value of $30 billion.
    • Electronics goods were also notable, although they ranked lower compared to other categories, with exports totaling $25 billion. In FY18, electronics goods were not among the top 10 most exported commodities from India.

     Biggest markets

    • Top most importor of India’s Electronic goods: The United States and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) are the largest markets for India’s electronic goods export. In FY24 (up to February), the U.S. accounted for approximately 35% of India’s electronic goods exports, amounting to $8.7 billion, while the UAE accounted for 12% with $3 billion.
    • Other countries share:The Netherlands and the United Kingdom (U.K.) each held a share of about 5% in India’s electronic goods exports.
    • The primary destination : Since FY21, the United States has consistently been the primary destination for India’s electronics exports, with its share increasing significantly in recent years.

    Conclusion

    Tamil Nadu’s emergence as a key electronics exporter, with 30% of India’s exports, is highlighted. Kancheepuram district’s significant role, alongside Tamil Nadu’s surpassing of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka, underscores its growth in electronic goods exports.

     

    Mains PYQ

    Can the strategy of regional-resource based manufacturing help in promoting employment in India? (UPSC IAS/2019) 

    Q Account for the failure of manufacturing sector in achieving the goal of labour-intensive exports. Suggest measures for more labour-intensive rather than capital-intensive exports.(UPSC IAS/2017)