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Type: Prelims Only

  • Historical and Archaeological Findings in News

    Konark Sun Temple

    Prelims Only | History | Mains Paper 1: Arts & Culture

    Why in the News?

    The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has prohibited tourist entry to the Nata Mandap (Hall of Dance) at the Sun Temple, Konark, citing safety concerns.

    konark

    About the Konark Sun Temple:

    • It is located approximately 64 km from Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
    • It was built in the 13th century (around 1250 CE) during the reign of King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
    • It is dedicated to Surya, the Sun God.
    • It is designed as a massive chariot drawn by 7 horses with 24 intricately carved wheels.
    • It was constructed from Khondalite stone, known for its durability and intricate carvings.
    • The structure originally included a sanctum (deul) and an assembly hall (jagamohan) that have largely collapsed.

    Historical Significance:

    • The Konark Wheel, featured on Indian currency (old ₹20 and new ₹10 notes), symbolizes Odisha’s rich cultural heritage and national identity.
    • It reflects 13th-century advancements in timekeeping and astronomy through its sundial functionality.
    • It embodies the cycle of life and serves as a testament to the worship of Surya, the Sun God.
    • It is a key example of the Kalinga architectural style, highlighting the Eastern Ganga Dynasty’s achievements.

    konark

    Architectural Significance:

    • Design: Represents a chariot of the Sun God, drawn by 7 horses, with 24 intricately carved wheels.
    • Wheel Details:
      • Diameter: 9 feet 9 inches.
      • Spokes: 8 wide and 8 thin, symbolising prahars (three-hour periods).
    • Symbolism:
      • 7 horses: 7 days of the week.
      • 12 pairs of wheels: 12 months.
      • 24 wheels: 24 hours in a day.
    • Sundial Functionality: Two wheels act as sundials, showing time from sunrise to sunset using the axel’s shadow.
    • Carvings: Features intricate designs of foliage, animals, and human figures, showcasing exceptional craftsmanship.
    [UPSC 2021] With reference to the Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
    2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
    3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
    4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    Options: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4* (d) 2, 3, and 4

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  • Nuclear Diplomacy and Disarmament

    Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organisation (CTBTO)

    IOCRPrelims Only | International Relations | Mains Paper 2: Bilateral, Regional and Global Groupings and agreements involving India

    Why in the News?

    China has rejected President Trump’s claim of secret nuclear tests, reaffirming its commitment to the CTBT amid renewed U.S. calls for nuclear testing and revived Cold War–style tensions.

    About Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO):

    • Establishment: Formed in 1996 under the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) to build and operate a verification regime ensuring compliance with the global ban on nuclear explosions.
    • Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
    • Mandate: To monitor adherence to the CTBT through a global verification system capable of detecting any nuclear test anywhere in the world.
    • Verification System: Operates the International Monitoring System (IMS) with 337 facilities, including seismic, hydroacoustic, infrasound, and radionuclide stations to detect underground, underwater, or atmospheric nuclear tests.
    • Data Centre: The International Data Centre (IDC) analyses and distributes real-time data to member states, providing early warning of suspicious activities.
    • Preparatory Commission: Functions until the CTBT formally enters into force, maintaining operational readiness and supporting states’ verification capabilities.
    • Scientific Applications: The IMS also contributes to tsunami warning systems, atmospheric research, and disaster response, reinforcing the CTBTO’s global utility beyond disarmament.

    Back2Basics: How are CTBT and NPT related?

    • Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) and the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) are closely linked pillars of the global nuclear arms control regime:
      1. Shared Goal: Both aim to prevent nuclear proliferation and promote disarmament.
      2. Scope Difference: The NPT focuses on stopping the spread of nuclear weapons and promoting peaceful nuclear use; the CTBT bans all nuclear explosions for any purpose.
      3. Chronological Link: The NPT (1970) came first, creating the legal framework for non-proliferation; the CTBT (1996) built on it by prohibiting testing, reinforcing the NPT’s disarmament pillar.
      4. Verification and Compliance: The CTBT adds technical verification through the International Monitoring System, complementing NPT’s safeguards under the IAEA.
      5. Disarmament Pathway: Ratification of the CTBT is often viewed as a key step toward fulfilling Article VI of the NPT, which obliges nuclear powers to pursue disarmament.

    Status of the Treaty and Ratification Gap:

    • Adoption: It was adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1996 and opened for signature on September 24, 1996.
    • Membership: As of 2025, 187 states have signed and 178 have ratified the treaty.
    • Enforcement: It will become legally binding only after 44 specific “Annex 2” states, those with nuclear technology at the time ratify it.
    • Pending Ratifications: Eight critical states have not ratified the treaty- China, Egypt, Iran, Israel, and the United States (signatories but unratified), and India, Pakistan, and North Korea (non-signatories).
    • Recent Setback: In 2023, Russia revoked its ratification, though it continues to observe a testing moratorium, weakening the treaty’s political momentum.
    • Global Compliance: Despite legal limbo, a de facto moratorium on nuclear testing has largely held since the 1990s; only North Korea has violated it with tests since 2006.
    • Significance: The CTBT remains a cornerstone of the global non-proliferation regime, its verification network providing both deterrence and transparency even without formal legal enforcement.
    [UPSC 2015] Consider the following countries:

    1.  China 2. France 3. India 4. Israel 5. Pakistan

    Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

    (a) 1 and 2 only * (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only  (c) 2, 4 and 5 only  (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

     

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  • Parliament – Sessions, Procedures, Motions, Committees etc

    Sessions of the Parliament

    Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Parliament & State Legislatures

    Why in the News?

    The Winter Session of Parliament will be held from December 1 to 19, 2025.

    About Parliamentary Sessions:

    • Parliamentary Sessions are formal periods when the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha meet to legislate, deliberate, and hold the government accountable.
    • Each session has several sittings for debates, questions, and lawmaking. Under Article 85(1), the President must summon both Houses so that not more than six months elapse between two sessions.
    • Types of Sessions:
      1. Budget Session (Feb–Mar): Begins with the President’s Address; includes Union Budget presentation and debate.
      2. Monsoon Session (Jul–Aug): Focuses on legislative work and national issues.
      3. Winter Session (Nov–Dec): Reviews policies, finalises pending legislation.
      4. Special Session: Called for urgent or commemorative matters (e.g., emergencies or milestones).

    Key Terms Related to Sessions:

    • Summoning (Art. 85(1)): President summons Parliament on Cabinet Committee advice; at least two sessions yearly, with ≤ six-month gap.
    • Adjournment: Temporary suspension of a sitting; business resumes when House reassembles.
    • Adjournment Sine Die: Ends a sitting without fixing a date for the next meeting; followed by presidential prorogation.
    • Prorogation (Art. 85(2)(a)): Formal end of a session by the President; pending bills do not lapse.
    • Dissolution (Art. 85(2)(b)): Ends the Lok Sabha’s tenure; triggers new elections; pending bills in Lok Sabha lapse.
    • Recess: Period between the prorogation of one session and the start of the next.
    • Lame Duck Session: Last session of an outgoing Lok Sabha before the new one forms.
    • Quorum (Art. 100): Minimum attendance for business—55 in Lok Sabha, 25 in Rajya Sabha.
    • Voting (Art. 100):
      • Voice Vote: Members respond “Aye”/“No.”
      • Division Vote: Contested results recorded electronically.
      • Casting Vote: Presiding officer’s tie-breaking vote.
    [UPSC 2024] With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

    1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

    2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session.

    3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Options: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3* (d) 3 only

     

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  • Climate Change Negotiations – UNFCCC, COP, Other Conventions and Protocols

    India to join Tropical Forest Forever Facility (TFFF) as an ‘Observer’

    Prelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Why in the News?

    At the Leaders’ Summit in Belem, Brazil, preceding the COP30, India has announced its decision to join the Tropical Forest Forever Facility (TFFF) as an Observer.

    About Tropical Forest Forever Facility (TFFF):

    • What is it: A global blended-finance mechanism rewarding Tropical Forest Countries (TFCs) for conserving intact forests through annual conservation-linked payments.
    • Payment Design: Provides $4 per hectare annually for protected forest area, with deductions for deforestation or ecosystem degradation verified via satellite data.
    • Institutional Setup: Managed by a TFFF Secretariat (policy and oversight) and a Tropical Forest Investment Fund (TFIF) (financial operations and investment management).
    • Investment Model: The TFIF channels sponsor contributions into sovereign, corporate, green, and blue bonds, explicitly excluding fossil fuel industries.
    • Community Allocation: 20% of total payments earmarked for Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs) to support sustainable livelihoods and rights-based forest governance.
    • Monitoring Mechanism: Conservation outcomes tracked via satellite and third-party verification systems ensuring full transparency and performance-based accountability.
    • Financial Sustainability: Operates as a budget-neutral model, where investment returns fund long-term conservation payments rather than temporary grants.
    • Initial Pledges: Founding commitments include Brazil ($1 bn), Indonesia ($1 bn), Norway ($3 bn over 10 years), Colombia ($250 mn), Netherlands ($5 mn), Portugal (€1 mn); France, China, and UAE have expressed political support.

    Relation to REDD+ Framework:

    • REDD+ Genesis: Launched in 2008 under the UNFCCC, REDD+ stands for Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation Plus, providing result-based payments for verified emission reductions.
    • Core Difference: While REDD+ rewards verified carbon reductions, TFFF offers annual standing forest payments, maintaining steady conservation incentives.
    • Approach: REDD+ focuses on carbon metrics and offset markets, whereas TFFF bypasses carbon dependency, offering investment-backed, non-offset finance.
    • Objectives Alignment: Both aim to promote sustainable forest management, biodiversity conservation, and enhanced carbon stock in developing nations.
    • Institutional Partners: REDD+ is jointly administered by FAO, UNDP, UNEP, and implemented in 65+ countries; TFFF aligns with these frameworks through transparency and inclusivity principles.
    • Added Value: TFFF strengthens long-term financial resilience of conservation efforts by combining public and private investments with community-centric benefit-sharing.

    India’s Role and Climate Record:

    • Emission Reduction Record: From 2005–2020, India cut emission intensity by 36%, achieving 50% non-fossil installed power capacity ahead of 2030 goals.
    • Carbon Sink Achievement: Between 2005–2021, India added 2.29 billion tonnes CO₂ equivalent through expanded forest and tree cover.
    • NDC Commitments: India’s updated Nationally Determined Contribution (to 2035) targets deeper emission cuts and enhanced carbon sink creation.
    • Strategic Importance: Strengthens South–South cooperation and India’s advocacy for equitable climate responsibility within global negotiations.
    [UPSC 2025] Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

    (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)*

    (b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

    (c) The New Development Bank (NDB)

    (d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

     

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  • Historical and Archaeological Findings in News

    Piprahwa Relics of Buddha

    Prelims Only | Art and Culture | Mains Paper 1: Arts & Culture

    Why in the News?

    The sacred Piprahwa relics of Lord Buddha have reached Thimphu, Bhutan, as a goodwill gift from India for the Global Peace Prayer Festival (GPPF).

    About the Piprahwa Relics:

    • Discovery: Unearthed in 1898 by William Claxton Peppe, a British engineer, at Piprahwa (Siddharthnagar, Uttar Pradesh), near the Nepal border.
    • Historical Significance: Identified as ancient Kapilavastu, capital of the Shakya republic, where Prince Siddhartha (Buddha) lived before renunciation.
    • Findings at the Site: A buried stupa yielded a large stone coffer containing:
      • Bone fragments believed to be Buddha’s relics
      • Caskets made of soapstone and crystal
      • A sandstone coffer
      • Over 1,800 ornaments: pearls, rubies, sapphires, gold sheets
    • Legal Custody:
      • The British Crown claimed the relics under the Indian Treasure Trove Act, 1878.
      • Most artifacts were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata.

    Stupas with Buddha’s Relics:

    • After the Buddha’s death (Mahaparinirvana), his cremated relics were divided among 8 kingdoms and a Brahmin named Drona, who coordinated their distribution.
    • Each recipient built a Stupa to enshrine their share of the relics, creating important pilgrimage sites and early centers of Buddhist worship.
    • The 9 stupas were in Rajagriha, Vaishali, Kapilavastu, Allakappa, Ramagrama, Vethadipa, Pava, Kushinagar, and Pippalivana.
    • Emperor Ashoka (3rd century BCE) redistributed the relics from these stupas into thousands of new stupas across his empire.
    • The stupa at Ramagrama is unique because it is believed to remain untouched and still holds the original relics.
    • A typical early Buddhist stupa included a hemispherical mound (anda), a square railing (harmika), a central pillar (yashti) with umbrellas (chatra), and a path for circumambulation (pradakshinapatha).
    [UPSC 2023] With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:

    1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.

    2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.

    3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two* (c) All three (d) None

     

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  • Electoral Reforms In India

    Disclosure of Election Finance

    Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Representation Of People’s Act

    Why in the News?

    A recent report by the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) revealed that over half of registered unrecognised political parties (RUPPs) linked to Bihar have failed to comply with mandatory financial disclosure norms for FY 2023–24.

    Key Findings of ADR Report:

    • Non-Compliance: Over 59% of registered unrecognised political parties (RUPPs) linked to Bihar failed to file either their audit reports or donation statements for FY 2023–24, violating Election Commission of India (ECI) norms.
    • Scope: Of 275 RUPPs reviewed, 184 were from Bihar and 91 from other states. Only 67 parties (24.36%) disclosed both audit and contribution reports.

    Political Funding in India:

    • Overview: Political funding refers to financial resources raised by political parties or candidates to sustain organisational operations and election campaigns.
    • Purpose: Ensures participation in democratic processes, electoral competitiveness, and mass outreach.
    • Sources of Funding:
      • Individuals: Citizens contribute voluntarily; deductions under Section 80GGB (Income Tax Act).
      • Corporates: Donations governed by Section 182 (Companies Act, 2013).
      • State Support: Indirect subsidies (media access, tax exemption) allowed; direct funding prohibited.
      • Electoral Trusts (2013): Channel corporate contributions transparently.
      • Electoral Bonds (2018): Introduced donor anonymity; struck down by Supreme Court (2024) for violating transparency and citizens’ right to information.

    Legal Framework for Political Funding:

    • Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA): Governs election conduct, contributions, and maintenance of accounts.
    • Income Tax Act, 1961:
      • Section 13A: Exempts tax only for parties maintaining audited accounts and disclosing donations.
      • Section 80GGB/GGC: Offers tax benefits to individual and corporate donors.
    • Companies Act, 2013:
      • Section 182: Limits corporate donations to 7.5% of average net profits of the last three years.
      • Mandates annual disclosure of political contributions.
    • Election Commission Guidelines: Mandate submission of audited accounts and contribution reports above ₹20,000.

    Mechanisms Governing Political Funding Disclosure:

    • Disclosure Requirements:
      • Under Section 29C (RPA, 1951): Political parties must disclose donations above ₹20,000 to the ECI annually.
      • Under Sections 77–78 (RPA, 1951): Candidates must submit true election expenditure accounts within 90 days (Lok Sabha) or 75 days (Assembly).
      • Violations invite disqualification up to three years (Section 10A).
    • Transparency Gaps:
      • Over 60% of party income from “unknown sources”, mainly due to inadequate enforcement and loopholes.
      • Frequent delays, incomplete disclosures, and absence of independent audits persist.
    • Judicial Oversight:
      • Supreme Court judgments (e.g., PUCL v. Union, 2003) and 2024 ruling on Electoral Bonds strengthened citizens’ right to know funding sources.
    • Reform Recommendations:
      • Bring political parties under the Right to Information (RTI) Act.
      • Lower disclosure threshold from ₹20,000 to ₹2,000.
      • Establish National Election Fund for equitable, state-audited funding.
      • Ensure real-time digital reporting and independent third-party audits.
    [UPSC 2021] Which one of the following effects of the creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

    Options: (a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing

    (b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewelry, gold, etc.

    (c) Large donations to political parties and the growth of regionalism

    (d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion*

     

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  • Foreign Policy Watch: United Nations

    Bangladesh’s accession to the UN Water Convention

    Prelims Only | International Relations | Mains Paper 2: Important International Institutions

    Why in the News?

    In 2025, Bangladesh became the first South Asian nation to join the UN Water Convention (Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes).

    About UN Water Convention:

    • Overview: Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes, adopted in Helsinki (1992) and enforced in 1996 under the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE).
    • Globalisation: Originally regional (Europe, Central Asia); opened to all UN Member States in 2016 after a 2013 amendment, becoming a global treaty for transboundary water governance.
    • Objective: Promotes sustainable management of shared water resources and conflict prevention through cooperative mechanisms.
    • Key Goals: Implements SDG-6 (Clean Water and Sanitation) and SDG-16 (Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions) via equitable water sharing and joint management.
    • Obligations for Parties:
      • Prevent and reduce transboundary pollution and unsustainable extraction.
      • Use shared waters equitably and reasonably.
      • Coordinate national and transboundary water management policies.
      • Establish joint bodies or commissions for shared basins.
    • Institutional Mechanism: Managed by the UNECE Secretariat, which organises meetings, facilitates implementation, and promotes basin-level cooperation among signatories.
    • Legal Character: Functions as a framework convention, complementing rather than replacing bilateral treaties (e.g., Indus Waters Treaty, Ganga Treaty).
    • Significance: Serves as a legal and institutional mechanism for Integrated Water Resource Management (IWRM), regional peacebuilding, and climate-resilient governance.
    • Related Instruments: Inspired the UN Watercourses Convention (1997); both operate in complementary scopes within international water law.

    Why did Bangladesh join (2025):

    • First in South Asia: Became the first South Asian nation to ratify the Convention amid escalating water stress and climate vulnerability.
    • Hydrological Dependence: Over 90% of river inflows come from outside Bangladesh, mainly India and China, making Dhaka highly vulnerable to upstream interventions.
    • Upstream Projects: Concerns over China’s Motuo Hydropower Project (Yarlung Tsangpo/Brahmaputra) and India’s unresolved Teesta water-sharing dispute drove the decision.
    • Environmental Risks: 60% of population exposed to floods; half live in drought-prone areas, heightening need for cooperative governance.
    • Legal Context: Bangladesh’s 2019 High Court ruling granting rivers legal personhood reinforced its institutional focus on water rights.
    • Strategic Motivation: Seeks global legal recourse, access to data-sharing mechanisms, and international funding for climate adaptation and water security.

    Implications for India:

    • Shift from Bilateralism: India prefers bilateral river treaties (e.g., Indus, Ganga). Bangladesh’s multilateral engagement introduces scope for third-party mediation, contrary to India’s stance.
    • Ganga Treaty Renewal (2026): Bangladesh may invoke “equitable utilisation” to seek a higher share of Ganga waters under Convention norms.
    • Teesta River Pressure: The stalled Teesta agreement could face renewed international pressure, citing fairness and sustainability principles.
    • Regional Domino Effect: Likely to motivate Nepal and Bhutan to join, potentially transforming South Asia’s hydro-diplomatic architecture.
    • Strategic Concerns: Bangladesh’s simultaneous trilateral cooperation with China and Pakistan raises apprehensions of a Beijing-influenced hydro-bloc.

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  • What is Animal Birth Control (ABC) Program?

    Prelims Only | Governance | Mains Paper 2: Governance, Transparency & Accountability, Citizens Charters

    Why in the News?

    The Supreme Court has ordered all States and Union Territories to remove stray dogs from public areas and relocate them to shelters after sterilisation and vaccination under the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023.

    About Animal Birth Control (ABC) Program:

    • Purpose: Humane, scientifically proven method to control stray dog populations and reduce rabies.
    • Legal Basis: First under Animal Birth Control (Dogs) Rules, 2001 (under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960); updated as Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023.
    • Development: Created with support from the World Health Organization (WHO).
    • Core Method: “Catch–sterilise–vaccinate–release” model; prohibits relocation or culling.
    • Implementation: Managed by municipalities, municipal corporations, and panchayats.
    • Authorisation: Only organisations recognised by the Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) can conduct programs.
    • Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023:
      • Implemented to comply with Supreme Court guidelines in Writ Petition No. 691 of 2009.
      • Assigns responsibility to local bodies (municipalities, corporations, panchayats) to conduct ABC programs for sterilisation and immunisation of stray dogs.
      • Prohibits relocation of stray dogs as a means of population control; instead, they must be sterilised and returned to the same area.
      • Only organisations recognised by the Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) can conduct ABC programs.

    Key Features:

    • Sterilisation Target: Minimum 70% of stray dogs in an area within one reproductive cycle (~6 months).
    • Focus: Female sterilisation at a 70:30 female-to-male ratio.
    • Rabies Control: Mandatory rabies vaccination (ABC–ARV) for every sterilised dog.
    • Infrastructure: Kennels, veterinary facilities, vehicles, and hygienic shelters required.
    • Recordkeeping: Detailed records for catching, surgery, vaccination, and release.
    • Monitoring: State and local committees ensure compliance and handle complaints.
    • Legal Protection: Mass relocation or killing prohibited under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act, 1960.
    [UPSC 2010] Consider the following statements:

    1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu.

    2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu

    3.To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Options: (a) 1 and 2 only* (b) 2 only  (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

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  • CAG plans to create two new cadres for more centralisation

    Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Indian Constitution – historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure

    Why in the News?

    The Comptroller and Auditor General of India approved two new Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IA&AD) cadres, the Central Revenue Audit and Central Expenditure Audit, effective from 1 January 2026.

    About the New Cadres:

    • Objective: Designed to build deeper professional expertise in auditing Central receipts and expenditures, streamline manpower management, and reduce dependence on regional deployments.
      1. Central Revenue Audit (CRA): Focuses on auditing Central Government revenues, including direct taxes, indirect taxes, customs, excise, and non-tax receipts. It ensures compliance, accuracy, and transparency in revenue administration.
      2. Central Expenditure Audit (CEA): Concentrates on auditing Central Government expenditures, assessing legality, efficiency, and prudence in public spending across ministries and departments.
    • Impact: The reform consolidates around 4,000 audit professionals (out of a total CAG strength of ~42,000), improving manpower flexibility, domain expertise, and data-driven audit capabilities.
    • Significance: Marks a major shift toward centralised auditing, ensuring a uniform approach to the examination of national finances and reinforcing accountability in public administration.

    About the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

    • Overview: Established under Article 148, the CAG heads the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IA&AD) and acts as guardian of public finance.
    • Legal Framework: Functions under the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, amended in 1976, 1984, and 1987.
    • Appointment & Tenure:
      • Appointed by the President under warrant and seal.
      • Tenure – Six years or until age 65, whichever earlier.
      • Removal – Same as a Supreme Court judge, requiring special majority in Parliament.
    • Independence Safeguards:
      • Salary and expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
      • No reappointment to government posts after retirement.
      • No minister can defend the CAG in Parliament.
    • Duties & Powers:
      • Audits Consolidated Funds of the Union, States, and UTs.
      • Examines PSUs, autonomous bodies, and grant-in-aid institutions.
      • Submits reports to the President, later examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
    • Role & Importance: Serves as the watchdog of public finance, conducting regulatory and propriety audits to ensure legality and efficiency in expenditure.
    • International Role: Currently the External Auditor for IAEA (2022–2027) and FAO (2020–2025), enhancing India’s global audit leadership.
    [UPSC 2012] In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

    1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency

    2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

    3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

    4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1, 3 and 4 only  (b) 2 only  (c) 2 and 3 only * (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

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  • Land Reforms

    Watandari System of Land Revenue

    Prelims Only | History | Mains Paper 1: Modern Indian History

    Why in the News?

    An inquiry has been ordered into a Pune land deal over alleged irregularities and undervaluation of 40 acres of a Watandari land.

    What is the Watan / Watandari System?

    • Overview: A hereditary land tenure and revenue-rights system once prevalent in Maharashtra and the Deccan, granting Watan lands to individuals or families for performing state or village services.
    • Historical Origin: Evolved under the Rashtrakutas, Deccan Sultanates, and Mughals to institutionalise local governance through hereditary offices.
    • Purpose: Created to compensate local officials and functionaries (like village heads, accountants, or priests) through land revenue rights rather than direct salaries.
    • Administrative Role: Integrated local elite families into the state’s fiscal system, ensuring continuity of governance and tax collection.
    • Socio-Economic Character: Reflected the fusion of land, caste, and service, forming a semi-feudal agrarian order at the village level.

    Key Features of the Watan System:

    • Hereditary Tenure: Watan rights and duties passed from one generation to another, often within the same lineage.
    • Service-Based Grant: Land given as compensation for hereditary duties– administrative, military, or religious, performed for the state.
    • Watandars: Holders included Patils, Kulkarnis, Deshmukhs, Josis, and Purohits, each tied to specific village roles.
    • Non-Transferability: Watan lands were non-saleable and non-alienable, as tenure depended on continued public service.
    • Revenue Rights: Watandars retained a share of village revenue in lieu of fixed payment, ensuring local autonomy.
    • Caste-Linked Hierarchy: Reinforced hereditary privilege and caste dominance within village administration.
    • Decline and Inefficiency: Over time, hereditary claims caused disputes, mismanagement, and reduced accountability.
    [UPSC 2024] With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:
    1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
    2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only* (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

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